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Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

How much hemaglobin is in a rbc

A

30%

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2
Q

What is mcv

A

Mean corpuscular volume

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3
Q

What is mch

A

Mean corpuscular Hb

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4
Q

What is mchc

A

Mean corpuscular Hb concentration

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5
Q

What is normocytic

A

A normal sized rbc

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6
Q

What is microcytic

A

An abnormally small rbc

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7
Q

What is macrocytic

A

An abnormally large rbc

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8
Q

What is normochromic

A

Normal coloured rbc

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9
Q

What is hypochromic

A

Light coloured rbc

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10
Q

What is hyperchromic

A

An abnormally dark rbc

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11
Q

How many days does it take for erythrocytes to be made in bone marrow

A

6-8 days

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12
Q

Where does hematopoeisis occur

A

Liver, spleen, thymus, red bone marrow

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13
Q

What is erythropoiesis

A

The production of erythrocytes

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14
Q

What is Leukopoiesis

A

The production of leukocytes

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15
Q

What is thrombopoiesis

A

Production of platelets

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16
Q

What is the rbc schedule

A

Rubriblast ➡️ prorubricyte ➡️ rubricyte➡️ metarubricyte➡️ reticulocyte ➡️ mature rbc

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17
Q

What happens to cell size with rbc maturation

A

Cell size decreases

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18
Q

What happens to the ️nucleus in rbc maturation

A

Gets darker and more granular and then decreases

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19
Q

What happens to the cytoplasm in rbc

A

Goes from blue to light pink

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20
Q

How much water is in a rbc

A

60%

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21
Q

How long does the rbc live

A

100 days

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22
Q

What percentage of rbc die per day

A

1%

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23
Q

What is the waste product of rbc distruction

A

Bilirubin

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24
Q

What is poikilocytosis

A

Unusually shaped rbc

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25
Q

When does Rouleaux occur

A

Can be an artifact if blood is held too long or has been refrigerated

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26
Q

What is agglutination mean

A

Due to formation of immune complexes that attach to rbc. Occurs in immune mediated disorders

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27
Q

How do you differentiate Rouleaux from agglutination

A

Put saline on a drop of blood, Rouleaux will disperse

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28
Q

What are hyperchromatic cells

A

Have a darker stain than normal cells

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29
Q

Why does a cytoplasm stain blue

A

Due to the endoplasmic reticulum

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30
Q

What is anisocytosis

A

Variation of rbc siZe

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31
Q

Is new methylene blue stain a vital stain

A

Yes

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32
Q

What is a Heinz body

A

Denatured Hb

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33
Q

What do spherocytes associated with

A

Hemolytic anemia due to immune disease. It has a smiley face

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34
Q

What are echinocytes

A

Often an artifact. Crenated rbc

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35
Q

What are acanthocytes

A

Red cells with 2-10 blunt elongated finger like surface projections

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36
Q

What are spherocytes

A

Small round red cells that stain intensely and lack central pallor

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37
Q

What are Elliptocytes

A

Oval erythrocytes

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38
Q

What are dacrocytes

A

Tear drop shaped erythrocytes

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39
Q

What are codocytes

A

Stomatocytes and target cells. Shaped erythrocytes and are due to rbc membrane change

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40
Q

What are acanthocytes associated with

A

Hemangiosarcoma

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41
Q

Why do acanthocytes occur

A

Due to abnormal accumulation of lipids within the rbc membrane.

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42
Q

What are schistocytes

A

Fragmented rbc

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43
Q

What are shistocytes

A

Red blood cell fragments due to mechanical damage

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44
Q

What are keratocytes

A

A helmet blister cell- another type of fragmented rbc

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45
Q

Are schistocytes clinically relevant?

A

Yes

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46
Q

What is a Howell jolly body

A

Remnant of a ️nucleus

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47
Q

What is basophilic stippling associated with

A

Seen in lead poisoning

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48
Q

Are target cells or stomatcytes significant if there is no anemia

A

Yea

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49
Q

What is a stomatocyte

A

Red blood cell membrane defect

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50
Q

What are target cells and what are their associated with

A

Excess cell membrane. Associated with liver disease

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51
Q

When are codocytes significant

A

Finding codocytes in the absence of polychromasia is significant, it means that excess lipid membrane is present and is an abnormality

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52
Q

What are Dacrocytes

A

Failure of the red blood cell to return to its original shape after squeezing through capillaries. Associated with bone marrow disorders

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53
Q

What are six blood parasites that can be seen in a blood smear

A

Dirofilaria Immitis Hemobartinella EhrlichiaAnaplasmaCytauxzoon Babesia

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54
Q

What is anemia

A

Decreased red cell mass

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55
Q

How do you classify anemia

A

Regenerative or Non regenerative based on bone marrow response

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56
Q

What are the three general causes of anemia

A

Decreased production, increased destruction, blood loss

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57
Q

Given example of decreased production

A

Bone marrow problems, cancer, renal failure

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58
Q

Given example of increased destruction

A

Macrophages kill red blood cells. Associated with hemolytic anemia

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59
Q

Given example of blood loss

A

Parasites or bodily injury

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60
Q

Describe what happens with Parvo or panleukopenia

A

White blood cell destruction destruction of rapidly dividing cells in the gastrointestinal tract

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61
Q

How could you tell by looking at peripheral blood spear if anemia is responsive

A

The presence of reticulocytes

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62
Q

Describe body changes in blood loss or hemorrhage

A

Bone marrow is still functional. Responsive anemia. No jaundice or increase BiliRubin. Plasma proteins are decreased

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63
Q

How do you know based on a blood test that you have hemolytic anemia

A

you have an increase in BiliRubin. But normal plasma protein. Plus reticulocytes on a blood smear

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64
Q

What are the two types of Hemolysis

A

Intravascular or extravascular

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65
Q

Describe extra vascular hemolysis

A

Involves the destruction and removal of damaged red blood cells by the microphages of the spleen and liver. Results in excess production of BiliRuben = jaundice

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66
Q

When do you see hemoglobinemia or hemoglobinuria

A

Only in severe cases of intravascular hemolysis

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67
Q

When do you see icterus

A

In either intravascular or extravascular hemolytic anemia due to the excess production of BiliRuben.

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68
Q

Describe The pathogenesis of immune mediated hemolytic anemia

A

Red blood cells become coated with anti-bodies as they circulate. Antibody coated red blood cells either Lyses intravascularly or removed by macrophages in the liver and spleen. You will see a red blood cell agglutination

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69
Q

Why does agglutination occur

A

What antibodies cause bridging between adjacent red blood cells

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70
Q

What are four conditions which can cause immune mediated hemolytic anemia

A

Heartworm disease, lymphoma, lupus, drug-induced immune mediated Hemolysis

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71
Q

What is the morphologic hallmark of immune mediated hemolytic anemia

A

A significant number of Spherocytes

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72
Q

What Can non regenerative anemia be caused by

A

Result of either ineffective erythropoiesis (maturation defect anemia) or reduced production of red blood cells (hypoproliferative anemia)

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73
Q

What are some causes of non responsive anemia

A

Bone marrow damageReduced erythropoetin (renal failure)Bone marrow invasion by neoplastic cells

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74
Q

What is the most common cause of nonresponsive anemia

A

Chronic disease

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75
Q

Describe normal bone marrow ratios in adult animals

A

50% nucleated cells and 50% fat cells

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76
Q

Describe the bone marrow ratio in juvenile mammals

A

25% fat

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77
Q

Describe the bone marrow ratio in geriatric mammals

A

75% fat

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78
Q

What is polycythemia

A

Defined as increased circulating red blood cell mass. Values for PCV, hemoglobin concentration, red blood cell count are higher than reference ranges

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79
Q

What can cause high pcv

A

High altitudesBrachycephalic breeds

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80
Q

What is relative polycythemia

A

Decrease in plasma volume (dehydration) ⬆️ circulating rbc

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81
Q

What are the signs of relative polycythemia on a blood test

A

Increase in pcv and total protein.

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82
Q

What is transient polycythemia

A

Caused by splenic contractions with the release of epinephrin

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83
Q

How do you know if it is a transient polycythemia based on the blood test

A

Increase pcv, normal hydration and normal tp

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84
Q

What is absolute polycythemia

A

An absolute increase of circulating rbc as a result of increased bone marrow production.

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85
Q

What are the clinical findings in absolute polycythemia

A

Lethargy, low exercise tolerance, behavioural change, brick red/cyanotic mm, sneezing, bilateral epistaxis, cardiopulmonary impairment

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86
Q

What is an incorrect way to store reagent strips

A

At refrigerated temperatures

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87
Q

Name the urine collection method of choice if sediment examination, estimation of protein urea or bacterial culture of the urine is required

A

Cystocentesis

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88
Q

True or false an animal that is PUPD will have a high specific gravity

A

False

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89
Q

If an animal is over hydrated what would you expect her urine specific gravity to be

A

1.002

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90
Q

If an animal is significantly dehydrated what would you expect that his urine specific gravity would be

A

1.060

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91
Q

In the final stages of chronic renal failure what would you find an animals urine specific gravity to be

A

1.012

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92
Q

What is considered the hyposthenuric specific gravity range

A

Less than 1.008

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93
Q

How can you be sure a circle is a fat droplet

A

They’re perfectly round even when focusing in and out through layers. They’re all uniform shape and have the same approximate size

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94
Q

A urine sample has a pH of eight and 1+ protein. Give two explanations for how this protein could be a false positive.

A

It could’ve come from contamination of the sample by detergents or could have formed from being left out too long

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95
Q

The protein pad on the dipstick test for which specific protein

A

Albumin

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96
Q

Coffin lid shaped urinary crystal

A

Struvite

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97
Q

Urine is the same osmolarity as plasma

A

Isothenuria

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98
Q

Term for blood in urine

A

Hematuria

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99
Q

Dumbbell shaped crystal seen in rabbits and goats

A

Calcium carbonate

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100
Q

Waste metabolite produced from red blood cell destruction

A

Bilirubin

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101
Q

Frequent small amounts of urine

A

Pollakiuria

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102
Q

These cells are 7 µm in diameter

A

Erythrocytes

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103
Q

The direct measurement of specific gravity of urine

A

Urinometer

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104
Q

These epithelial cells are large, flat, irregularly shaped cells with abundant of cytoplasm and a small round nucleus

A

Squamous

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105
Q

Urine specific gravity less than 1.008

A

Hyposthenuric

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106
Q

To lower the light on the microscope when looking at urine, what do you lower

A

Condensor

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107
Q

The presence of neutrophils in urine

A

Pyuria

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108
Q

Under high-power these cells appear as round granular spheres about 14 µm in diameter and have a nucleus

A

Leukocytes

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109
Q

Uses light refraction to measure urine specific gravity

A

Refractometer

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110
Q

Presence of Bilirubin in the urine

A

Bilirubinuria

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111
Q

Dipstick test is 4+ in diabetes mellitus

A

Glucose

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112
Q

The protein detected on the urine dipstick test

A

Albumin

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113
Q

Epithelial cells originating from the bladder

A

Transitional

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114
Q

Frequent large volumes of urine

A

Polyuria

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115
Q

The term for inflammation of the bladder

A

Cystitis

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116
Q

Cylindrical structures with Parallel sides present in acid urine

A

Casts

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117
Q

Phos

A

Phosphorus

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118
Q

Lipa

A

Lipase

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119
Q

Tp

A

Total protein

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120
Q

Bun

A

Urea

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121
Q

Ca

A

Calcium

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122
Q

Na

A

Sodium

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123
Q

Alkaline phosphatase

A

Alkp

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124
Q

Crea

A

Creatinine

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125
Q

Glob

A

Globulin

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126
Q

Chol

A

Cholesterol

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127
Q

K

A

Potassium

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128
Q

Tbil

A

Total bilirubin

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129
Q

Amyl

A

Amylase

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130
Q

Alananine transferase

A

Alt

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131
Q

Alb

A

Albumin

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132
Q

Which color tube has the anticoagulant heparin

A

Green

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133
Q

Which color tube has fluoride in it and thus is able to preserve glucose

A

Grey

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134
Q

Which color tube has a reversible anticoagulant citrate

A

Blue

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135
Q

Which color tube contains EDTA

A

Purple

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136
Q

Which color tube contains no anticoagulant and is just in a sterile glass container

A

Red

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137
Q

Which color tube contains no anticoagulant and a serum separator gel

A

Yellow and tiger top

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138
Q

Which color tube is used to do a CBC

A

Purple

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139
Q

Which tube is used to obtain plasma for the vet test

A

Green

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140
Q

Which tube is used to perform coagulation assays

A

Blue

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141
Q

Which color tube has an anticoagulant that is antithrombin

A

Green

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142
Q

Excitement releases which hormone

A

Epinephrine

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143
Q

Explain how excitement can cause polycythemia

A

Because it triggers splenic contractions that release red blood cells

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144
Q

Plasma is made up of 80% of what

A

Water

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145
Q

Name two major proteins in plasma

A

Albumin and globulin

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146
Q

Name three electrolytes in plasma

A

Sodium, chloride, potassium

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147
Q

What is pus in the urine called

A

Pyuria

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148
Q

What is cloudiness of a solution called

A

Turbidity

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149
Q

What is excess Bilirubin present in the urine called

A

Bilirubinuria

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150
Q

The range of which the urine specific gravity equals that of the glomerular filtrate meaning no dilution or concentration has occurred

A

Isosthenuria

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151
Q

Decreased amounts of urine that is being produced and excreted

A

Oliguria

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152
Q

The weight of a solution as compared to distilled water

A

Specific gravity

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153
Q

Increased specific gravity of urine

A

Hypersthenuria

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154
Q

No urine formation or excretion

A

Anuria

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155
Q

Presence of the muscle protein myoglobin in the urine

A

Myoglobinuria

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156
Q

Accumulation of large quantities of Ketone bodies

A

Ketosis

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157
Q

After the centrifugation process, the solution is divided into two portions. The blank is the liquid portion of the top and the sediment is at the bottom

A

Supernatant

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158
Q

Substances that act as electron contributors

A

Reducing agent

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159
Q

Presence of ketones in the Urine

A

Ketonuria

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160
Q

The filtrate of plasma that passes through the glomerulus

A

️Glomerular filtrate

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161
Q

After the centrifugation process the top the blank is at the bottom and consists of solids

A

Sediment

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162
Q

Enzyme linked amino observant assay used to detect or measure antigens are antibodies

A

Elisa

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163
Q

Presence of abnormal levels of protein in the urine

A

Proteinurua

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164
Q

Presence of hemoglobin in the urine

A

Hemoglobinuria

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165
Q

The degree to which a substance is easily dissolved

A

Soluability

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166
Q

Inflammation of the urinary bladder

A

Cystitis

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167
Q

An instrument for measuring the concentration of solutes

A

Refractometer

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168
Q

Decreased urine specific gravity

A

Hyposthenuric

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169
Q

Evaporates rapidly

A

Velocity

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170
Q

Presence of intact red blood cells in the urine

A

Hematuria

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171
Q

What is polycythemia

A

Increase of erythrocytes

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172
Q

A monolayer of cells in the blood smear is best described as

A

Cells with no overlapping or touching

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173
Q

Decreased total protein can suggest all of the following except for

A

Dehydration

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174
Q

Which erythrocyte Index gives an indication of the average size of a red blood cell

A

MCV

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175
Q

An elevated hematocrit usually indicates which situation is present

A

Dehydration

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176
Q

You know that a good ballpark estimate of the patient’s hemoglobin is

A

One third the packed cell volume

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177
Q

What is the first step of the diff quick

A

Fixative. The jar contains methanol

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178
Q

What is the second step of the diff quick

A

Eosin stain which is red

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179
Q

What is the third step of the diff quick

A

Methylene blue. The stain is blue

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180
Q

Is fibrinogen present in serum ?

A

False

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181
Q

How does a square blood smear occur

A

The pause was too long and forward spreading speed was too slow.

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182
Q

How do you fix a square blood smear

A

Take a shorter pause when backing into the drop and increase forward spreading speed

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183
Q

How do you make a half bullet blood smear

A

Uneven downward pressure on the spreader slide left to right

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184
Q

How do you fix a half bullet blood smear

A

Apply even downward pressure on the spreader slide

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185
Q

How do you make a blood smear with holes

A

If the slide has a dirty or greasy film a smear with holes will result. Holes may also occur if they’re fat particles in the blood

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186
Q

How do you fix a blood smear with holes

A

Clean your slide beforehand

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187
Q

How do you get tails on the blood smear

A

Tells may be caused by lifting the spreader slide up at the end of the spreading motion

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188
Q

How do you fix tails on the blood smear

A

Don’t lift us spreader side up at the end of the spreading motion

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189
Q

How do you get a long and narrow blood smear

A

When pushing the blood drop too soon before the blood has spread across the edge of spreader slide

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190
Q

How do you fix long and narrow blood smears

A

Pause longer when backing into the drop

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191
Q

How do you get a short and wide blood smear

A

If the spreader site is held at an angle greater than 30°

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192
Q

How do you fix a short And wide blood smear

A

Decrease the angle of the spreader slide

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193
Q

Which of the following is a vital stain

A

New methylene blue

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194
Q

Reticulocytes on a modified wrights stain example diff quick appear

A

Polychromatic

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195
Q

A decrease in this value is described as a microcyte

A

MCV

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196
Q

A decrease in this value describes hyperchromic

A

MCH

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197
Q

Measures the concentration of hemoglobin in the whole red blood cell volume

A

MCHC

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198
Q

Is measured in femtometers

A

MCV

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199
Q

Tells you the average weight of hemoglobin per red blood cell

A

MCH

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200
Q

How many days does it take to produce red blood cells in the bone marrow

A

6 to 8 days

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201
Q

Approximately _____ percent of the circulating blood cells of the dogs are replaced daily

A

1%

202
Q

Effete red blood cells are phagocytized and metabolized by _____ of spleen, bone marrow, liver

A

Macrophages

203
Q

Iron and amino acids are preserved for reutilization, and ____ is the waste product

A

Bilirubin

204
Q

Where is BiliRubin excreted

A

Bile

205
Q

Describe two things you need to do the week before your hematology duty week

A
  1. Meet with tech to let them know when you’ll be performing the blood draw. 2. Ensure you know how to use the machines properly for the next week
206
Q

A variation in the staining pattern of the red blood cell. Typically appears more purple in color

A

Polychromic

207
Q

A red blood cell that has a smaller diameter than what is considered normal for that species

A

Microcytic

208
Q

Meaning renewal. In hematology refers to the increase production of new cells to replace the ones that have been lost.

A

Regenerative

209
Q

A plasma protein that is involved in the clotting process. Under the influence of thrombin, fibrinogen is converted into fibrin.

A

Fibrinogen

210
Q

Also referred to as a metarubricyte , these are immature, nuclear did red blood cells.

A

Nrbc

211
Q

The simplified version of the activated partial thromboplastin time test. Assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway

A

Activated clotting time

212
Q

A condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is decreased due to low hemoglobin content or low red blood cell numbers

A

Anemia

213
Q

A measurement that represents the average hemoglobin content of a red blood cell

A

MCH

214
Q

The process of forming vacuoles, or a cavity within the cytoplasm of the cell

A

Vacuolation

215
Q

A term used to describe the bright yellow coloring of mucous membranes or plasma sample. Associated with increased levels of bile pigments

A

Icteric

216
Q

A clotting tests used to measure the activity of clotting factors V, VII, X, prothrombin, fibrinogen

A

Prothrombintime

217
Q

Parasites found in the blood

A

Hemoparasites

218
Q

Referring to variation in cell color

A

Chromasia

219
Q

Inorganic compounds that disassociate in body fluids and carry a positive or negative

A

Electrolytes

220
Q

Referring to the rupturing of red blood cells

A

Hemolyzed

221
Q

Blood test and calculation that provide insight into the size of hemoglobin content of the average by blood cell of the sample

A

Red blood cell indices

222
Q

Peripheral blood smear

A

Pbs

223
Q

Revolutions per minute

A

Rpm

224
Q

Anticoagulant used in blood collection tubes. Typically used to collect blood for coagulation studies

A

Sodium citrate

225
Q

A cell displaying polychromasia

A

Polychromatophils

226
Q

The formation and production of erythrocytes

A

Erythropoesis

227
Q

A small piece of chromatin seem during interface of female cells. Typically seen in a drumstick shape

A

Barrbody

228
Q

An enlarged platelet

A

Megathrombocyte

229
Q

The portion of the cell that surrounds the nucleus. May contain various organelles

A

Cytoplasm

230
Q

A group of Eosin and methylene blue stains used in hematology and cytology

A

Romanowskystains

231
Q

Including test that assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway of whole blood

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time

232
Q

Referring to the presence of fatty materials or lipids in plasma or serum

A

Lipemic

233
Q

The fluid portion of whole blood before coagulation

A

Plasma

234
Q

A red blood cell that has decreased hemoglobin content and therefore appears pale in color

A

Hypochromic

235
Q

A measurement that represents the average volume of a red blood cell

A

MCV

236
Q

A aggregation of platelets visualized on the blood smear

A

Platelet clumping

237
Q

Reticulocyte production index. Corrects the reticulocyte count by taking into account the presence of anemia. Gives a more accurate representation of red cell regeneration

A

Rpi

238
Q

An area of a peripheral blood smear where the blood cells are evenly distributed

A

Monolayer

239
Q

The fluid portion of coagulated blood. Does not contain any coagulation proteins

A

Serum

240
Q

A measurement that represents the average hemoglobin concentration of a red blood cell

A

Mchc

241
Q

A body within a cell that contains the chromosomes and nucleoli

A

Nucleus

242
Q

Accumulation of residual endoplasmic reticulum found immature neutrophils. Associated with toxemia

A

Dohlebodies

243
Q

And immature erythrocyte but no longer contains a nucleus

A

Reticulocyte

244
Q

Anticoagulant used in the blood collection tubes. Sodium heparin or lithium heparin are two available forms

A

Heparin

245
Q

Instrument used to count cells in a variety of fluids. Consists of a counting chamber etched with a grid covered by a coverslip.

A

Hemocytometer

246
Q

Stain particles that settle out if the solution. Is a source of artifacts

A

Stain precipitate

247
Q

Referring to abnormally shaped red blood cells

A

Poikilocytosis

248
Q

A measure of the variation size of red blood cells

A

Rdw

249
Q

The area of a peripheral blood spear where Counts are performed and morphologys are assessed

A

Monolayer

250
Q

The middle layer of a packed so valuable that contains the leukocytes thrombocytosis

A

Buffy coat

251
Q

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

A

Edta

252
Q

A stain used in blood, vaginal smears, cytology. Provides high nuclear detail. Used to identify the presence of reticulocytes a lot of blood smear

A

Nmb

253
Q

When you use the unopette method on bird blood that stains eosinophils, what other avian WBC is also stained

A

heterophils

254
Q

What is a heterophil equivelent to

A

neutrophil

255
Q

what biochem value is used in birds to assess renal function

A

uric acid

256
Q

how would you determine if a bird has responsive anemia when looking at the smear

A

more than 5% polychromasia

257
Q

T/F a bird with elevated CPK and a normal AST has a liver problem

A

false

258
Q

What electrolyte would be elevated in a reproductively active female bird

A

calcium

259
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for protein digestion

A

trypsin

260
Q

which electrolyte is responsible for maintaining plasma oncotic pressure

A

sodium

261
Q

the _______ test is considered the most sensitive indicitor of pancreatitis in cats

A

pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity

262
Q

what does the X-ray film digestion test actually measure

A

fecal trypsin

263
Q

what are the vitamin K dependent coagulation factors

A

factors I, VII, X, XII

264
Q

What is the primary site for production of coagulation factors

A

liver

265
Q

which of the following is not a coagulation factor: Factor II (prothrombin), Factor X, von Willebrand’s factor, Factor VII

A

Von Willebrand’s factor

266
Q

What cannot be detected with mucosal bleeding time

A

rodenticide toxicity

267
Q

What increases with malignancy, particularly with lymphosarcoma

A

calcium

268
Q

Hyperkalemia is commonly associated with which endocrine disorder

A

hypoadrenocorticism

269
Q

What are the four ways to collect specimens for urinalysis

A

Voided, bladder expression, catheterization, Cystocentesis

270
Q

Why is a voided sample the best to check for Hematuria

A

Because you know that the blood is not your fault

271
Q

What is the advantage of cystocentesis

A

Avoids any risk of urine contamination by blood or bacteria

272
Q

Would your shipping Urine to the lab which tube do you use

A

Red top tube

273
Q

What do you do if you’re not going to examine the urine right away

A

Refrigerate it

274
Q

What is the normal output of urine

A

20 to 40 mL per kilogram per day

275
Q

What is Pollakiurua

A

Small amounts of urine

276
Q

What is polyuria

A

Frequent urination

277
Q

What are some common causes of abnormal turbidity

A

Increased cells, numerous crystals, bacteria, lipiduria, mucus, semen, fecal contamination

278
Q

What are three ways to determine urine specific gravity

A

Refractometer, urinometer, reagent test strip

279
Q

What are the five functions of the kidney

A
  1. Water balance 2. Filter out waste 3. Acid-base balance 4. Erythropoietin 5. It involved a blood pressure maintenance
280
Q

What is Concentrated urine

A

Functional kidneys: USG> 1.035 (dog) Or >1.040 (cat)

281
Q

What is hyposthenuric

A

Dilute urine: USG

282
Q

What is moderately concentrated urine

A

USG 1.013-1.029 (dog) or 1.034 (cat)

283
Q

What is Isothenuria

A

1.007-1.012. When the urine is the same osmolarity as possible. Neither concentrated or diluted

284
Q

What are the three rules for reagent strips

A

Store reagent strips and original container at room temperature. Avoid exposing reagent strips moisture, sunlight, heat. Do not touch test areas of reagent strip

285
Q

What are the factors that may decrease the pH of urine

A

Fever, starvation, high-protein diet, excessive muscular activity, administration of certain drugs

286
Q

What is increased pH due too

A

Alkalosis, high Fiber diets, urinary tract infection

287
Q

Where do protein of the urine come from

A

Cystitis, high ph (false positive), fever, concentrated urine

288
Q

What does glucosuria and normoglycemia mean

A

Suggests tubular damage:LeptoAntifreezeFanconi syndrome

289
Q

Why are ketones formed

A

Starvation, peak lactation in dairy cattle, diabetes mellitus

290
Q

What do ketones in the body cause

A

Central nervous system depression and acidosis.

291
Q

What about bilirubin in cats on urine dipstick

A

Should always be negative. Bilirubinemia in cats is pathologic

292
Q

When do we see Bilirubinuria

A

Increased destruction of red blood cells (hemolytic anemia), liver disease, obstruction of bile flow from the liver, clinical jaundice

293
Q

How do you change The microscope to see urine

A

Lower the condenser and closedown the substage iris diaphragm

294
Q

For the urinalysis what would you see in low magnification

A

Casts, large crystals, debris, parasitic ova

295
Q

What would you see under high magnification in a urinalysis

A

Leukocytes, erythrocytes, epithelial cells, far droplets, small crystals, sperm

296
Q

How big are red blood cells in the microscope

A

7um

297
Q

What happens to red blood cells when you have a high specific gravity

A

The red blood cells become crenated

298
Q

What happens to red blood cells in urine with low specific gravity

A

The cells may be lysed and not visible

299
Q

Describe fat droplets

A

Found in normal dog and cat sediments. Focus up and down and you could visualize their perfectly round appearance

300
Q

What do increased numbers of transitional epithelial cells indicate

A

Urinary tract infections

301
Q

Where are casts formed

A

In the lumen of the distal and collecting tubules

302
Q

Describe Casts

A

Cylindrical structures with Parallel sides present an acid urine

303
Q

Normal casts

A

Hyaline casts

304
Q

What are the abnormal casts

A

Granular castsEpithelial castsLeukocyte castsErythrocytes castsWaxy castsFatty casts

305
Q

When do you see epithelial cell casts

A

Acute nephritisDegradation of renal epithelium

306
Q

When do you see a leukocyte cast

A

Pyelonephritis

307
Q

When do you see a waxy cast

A

Severe degeneration of renal tubules

308
Q

When do you see a fatty cast

A

In cats with renal disease

309
Q

When do you see a struvites

A

In basic urine

310
Q

When do you see amorphous crystals

A

In acidic urine

311
Q

When do you see calcium carbonate crystals

A

In horses,Or rabbits and goats

312
Q

When do you see ammonium biurate crystals

A

In liver disease

313
Q

When do you see calcium oxalate dihydrate crystals

A

In acidic urine

314
Q

When do you see calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals

A

AntifreeZe poisoning

315
Q

When do you see uric acid crystals

A

Associated with dalmatians

316
Q

When do you see leucine or tyrosine crystals

A

Liver disease

317
Q

When do you see Cystine crystals

A

Renal tubular dysfunction

318
Q

What happens if there’s too much alcohol at the venipuncture site

A

Lyse the red blood cells

319
Q

What happens if you put too much pressure with the syringe

A

Collapse the vein

320
Q

What hormone is released with excitement

A

Epinephrine

321
Q

What hormone is released with stress

A

Cortisol

322
Q

What Effect does epinephrine have on red blood cells

A

Increase red blood cells due to splenic contractions

323
Q

What does cortisol do to white blood cell

A

Double the neutrophils or in cats sometimes it’s lymphocytes

324
Q

Describe what epinephrine does to the body

A

Increases white blood cells, red blood cells, physiologic neutrophils, polycythemia

325
Q

What affect does cortisol have on the body

A

Increased neutrophils, decrease eosinophils, increased lymphocytes

326
Q

What does the coagulant EDTA do

A

Binds calcium

327
Q

What is plasma made up of

A

90% water, 10% dissolved constituents: proteins, electrolytes etc

328
Q

What is serum made up of

A

It is plasma minus fibrinogen and clotting proteins

329
Q

How does heparin work

A

It has antithrombin

330
Q

What can heparin cause

A

Clumping of wbc

331
Q

What happens if you underfill the EDTA container

A

It can dilute blood

332
Q

What do grey top tubes do

A

Preserve glucose levels

333
Q

What are sodium citrate tubes used for

A

It is reversible anticoagulant and these tubes are used for coagulation assays. Works by binding calcium

334
Q

What happens to blood when it’s in the refrigerator

A

The more Clumped platelets appear

335
Q

How much sample volume do you need

A

Enough to run a biochem three times

336
Q

What does a complete blood cell count do

A

Red blood cell, PCV, total protein, blood differential, reticulocyte, hemoglobin concentration, red blood cell indices

337
Q

Hematocrit tubes should be within what percentage of each other

A

2%

338
Q

What happens the pact cell volume when the animal is dehydrated

A

Decreased plasma increase total protein

339
Q

What percent of plasma is protein

A

Five and 10%

340
Q

What does albumin do

A

Retains blood pressure

341
Q

What is a normal plasma protein for adult mammals

A

6-8 gm/dl

342
Q

What is the normal plasma protein for pediatric

A

4-6gm/dl due to decreased antibodies

343
Q

What is a decreased total protein do to

A

Protein losing enteropathy, chronic blood loss, liver disease, starvation

344
Q

What is elevated total protein do to

A

Dehydration

345
Q

When you’re dehydrated what happens

A

Increase in globulin

346
Q

What percentage of total protein is albumin

A

35 to 50%. Losses occur in kidney disease

347
Q

How will the ratio change with chronic inflammation and the cat or dog

A

Increased globulin and decreased ratio

348
Q

How do you estimate white blood cell count

A

10 times objective equals average number for field times 100

349
Q

What are the two agranulocyte

A

Lymphocyte, monocyte

350
Q

What is the function of the neutrophil

A

First responder against microbes

351
Q

What does neutrophils in tissue cause

A

Pus

352
Q

When neutrophils leave circulation how long did they stay in blood

A

10 hours then go into tissues

353
Q

How long do neutrophils survive in tissues

A

1 to 4 days then undergo apoptosis

354
Q

What can cause prolonged neutrophil lifespan

A

Cushing’s disease or steroid therapy

355
Q

How Do neutrophils migrate to tissue

A

Diapedesis

356
Q

How do dogs react

A

Physiologic neutrophilia

357
Q

How do cats react

A

Physiologic lymphocytosis

358
Q

What are the signs of a regenerative left shift

A

Leukocytosis and more mature neutrophils then immature

359
Q

What are the signs of a degenerative left shift

A

Child soldiers. Less mature than immature and a leukopenia

360
Q

What are the names of the immature neutrophils

A

Band neutrophils, myelocyte, metamyelocyte

361
Q

What is a hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Neutrophil with five or more lobes

362
Q

What are five types of toxic neutrophil

A

Cytoplasmic basophilia, cytoplasmic vacuolation, Dohle bodies, cytoplasmic granulation, Bizzarre nuclear configuration

363
Q

What are Dohle bodies

A

Basophilic leftover endoplasmic reticulum. We see them when there is a rapid turnover of cells. Often seen together with toxic granulation

364
Q

What is toxic granulation

A

Found in severe inflammatory states. Thought to be due to impaired cytoplasmic maturation in effort to rapidly generate large numbers of granulocytes

365
Q

What are some intracytoplasmic inclusions in the neutrophil due to

A

Canine distemper. Ehrlichia

366
Q

What is Peter huet anomolye

A

Hypersegmentation of all granuolocytic nuclei

367
Q

What is chediak higashi syndrome

A

Inherited diseaseFused granules

368
Q

What is the Birman cat neutrophil anomaly

A

Neutrophils have eosinophilic granules

369
Q

What is pelger huet anomaly

A

Is inherited as an incomplete dominant. Homozygous usually die in utero. Mainly in Australian shepherd

370
Q

What are 3 causes of neutrophilia p

A

Physiologic or epinephrine induced Corticosteroids or stress induced Acute inflammation

371
Q

What is neutrophilia

A

Counts exceed 12,000-13,000/ul

372
Q

What is neutropenia

A

In dogs and cats, when the absolute count is less than 3000-4000 ul

373
Q

How long does it take for bone marrow to generate an eosinophil

A

5-7 days

374
Q

What are the functions of eosinophils

A

Systemic hypersensitivity reactions Elimination of parasites

375
Q

When do you see eosinopenia

A

When cortisol reduces the eosinophils

376
Q

How long do basophils circulate the blood

A

For a few hours

377
Q

How long do basophils live in the tissues

A

For a few weeks

378
Q

What do basophil granules contain

A

histamine and heparin

379
Q

what are monocytes

A

released into peripheral blood as immature cells and are transported to tissues where they can differentiate into macrophages, epitheloid cells, multinucleated inflammatory cells

380
Q

what are the functions of the macrophages

A

phagocytosisinflammatory responseantigen processing regulation of body iron stores

381
Q

monocytosis indicates

A

presence of inflammationdemand for phagocytosistissue necrosischronic inflammation

382
Q

What are the three types of granulocytes

A

Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

383
Q

What is the percent division of lymphocytes

A

70% Are T-lymphocytes and 30% are B lymphocytes

384
Q

Are the two different types of lymphocytes distinguishable on the smear

A

No it is indistinguishable

385
Q

What is the function of the lymphocyte

A

They’re the cells of the specific immune system

386
Q

What do b- lymphocytes differentiate into

A

Into plasma cells which produce antibodies (humoral immunity)

387
Q

What do T lymphocytes do

A

Responsible for cellular immunity through the formation and release of molecules known as cytokines

388
Q

What is lymphopenia

A

Reduction in the number of circulating lymphocytes

389
Q

What is lymphopenia caused by

A

Viral infections, high circulating levels of glucocorticoids, cancer

390
Q

What is physiologic lymphocytosis in cats cause by

A

Excitement

391
Q

What is lymphocytosis do to antigenic stimulation

A

When inflammatory conditions are often associated with antigenic stimulation lymphocytosis an elevated globulins may result

392
Q

What is lymphocytosis generally accompanied by

A

Marked non-regenerative anemia. Thrombocytopenia, neutropenia.

393
Q

Describe atypical lymphocytes

A

Abnormal finding present in both infectious and neoplastic diseases

394
Q

What does the cortex of the adrenal gland do

A

Produces the glucocorticoid cortisol and aldosterone

395
Q

What does the cortex of the adrenal gland do

A

Produces the glucocorticoid cortisol and aldosterone

396
Q

What does the medulla of the adrenal gland do

A

Secretes as epinephrine or adrenaline

397
Q

What is the function of aldosterone

A

Aldosterone acts on renal tubes to preserve and reabsorb Sodium and excrete Potassium

398
Q

What are the 3 types of cushion’s disease

A
  1. Pituitary tumor2. Adrenal gland tumor3. Iatrogenic
399
Q

Why does a pituitary tumor cause cushings disease

A

Pituitary tumor (adenoma) produces excess ACTH  overstimulates the adrenal gland  xs cortisol

400
Q

What does the hypothalamus produce

A

Corticotropin releasing factor

401
Q

What does the corticotropin releasing factor do to the pituitary gland

A

Causes the pituitary to release ACTH.

402
Q

What is ACTH

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

403
Q

What does ACTH do in the body

A

Causes adrenal growth and secretion.

404
Q

What does the adrenal gland produce

A

Cortisol (glucocorticoid)

405
Q

What effect does cortisol have on the body

A

Inhibits CRF and ACTH by means of negative feedback

406
Q

What are the hormones released by the Anterior pituitary gland

A

Thyroid, adrenal, ovary, teste

407
Q

What are the hormone released by Posterior pituitary

A

Oxytocin, vasopressin (ADH)

408
Q

What does a brain or pituitary tumor do

A

Causes excess ACTH –> Secondary bilateral adrenal hyperplasia –> excess cortisol

409
Q

What does the adrenal gland tumor do

A

Other adrenal will become hypoplastic and unilateral,

410
Q

What are the 3 types of excess cortisol hyperadrenocorticism

A
  1. Brain or pituitary tumor2. Adrenal gland tumor3. Iactrogenic
411
Q

Describe pituitary dependant cushings disease

A

Up to 90% of all Cushing’s cases in dogs fall into this category. It is slow growing cancer called an adenoma ( pituitary). This causes secretion of excess ACTH. The adrenal glands respond to this excess ACTH by enlarging and secreting excess cortisol.

412
Q

Describe non-pituitary dependent cushings disease

A

In up to 15% of Cushing’s there is an actual tumor of one of the adrenal glands (sometimes both are involved). It enlarges and secretes excess cortisol in the bloodstream.The benign version of this tumor occurs 50% of the time, and is called an adenoma. The malignant version, which occurs the other 50% or the time, is called an adenocarcinoma. It can spread from the adrenal gland to the liver, lung, kidney, and lymph nodes.

413
Q

Describe iatrogenic cushings disease

A

Long term use of supplemental cortisone, in oral, injectable, or even topical form, might cause an animal to have the symptoms of Cushing’s disease.i.e. Long term use of Drug prednisone. will cause the adrenal glands to shrink in size. This is because the negative feedback loop tells the brain there is plenty of cortisol in the bloodstream, so the pituitary secretes less ACTH.

414
Q

What does Iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism

A

exogenous excess cortisone atrophied adrenal glandsSudden withdrawal results in Addisonian crisis

415
Q

What are the clinical signs of cushings disease

A

Polyphagia- excess appetite.Polyuria/polydypsia (PU/PD)- Pot bellied abdomen.Thin skin and usually symmetrical hair loss along the trunk. The hair might grow in lighter in color or even be hyperpigmented. Secondary skin infections are common.Other symptoms could include lethargy, muscle wasting, poor appetite, weakness, and behavioral changes.

416
Q

Describe the signalment of cushings diease

A

Cushing’s tends to be a problem that affects older dogs, usually greater than 10 years of age. The disease tends to have a slow and gradual onset, so the early symptoms are easily missed.

417
Q

What are the breed dispositions of cushings disease

A

Yorkshire Terrier Poodle Beagle Boston Terrier Boxer Dachshund

418
Q

How do you diagnose cushings

A

CBC might show an increased WBC and an eosinopenia ( cortisol) BIOCHEM****elevated alkaline phosphatase (Alk Phos) ** maybe elevation Cholesterol Urinalysis Low sp .gravity often

419
Q

What does the urine cortisol/creatinine ratio show

A

is a screening test for Cushing’s disease; a positive test here does NOT confirm Cushing’s syndrome but a negative test DOES rule it out. If there is a high ratio - a relatively high amount of cortisol being excreted - further testing is in order.Ideally for this test the urine sample is collected at home so that cortisol secreted in response to the stress of visiting the vet’s office does not interfere with results.

420
Q

Specific diagnostic tests for cushings

A

ACTH Stimulation test Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (LDDS)High Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (HDDS)

421
Q

How do you treat a pituitary tumor

A

give drugs that will partially destroy or prevent the adreanal gland from secreting excess cortisoneMitotane (o,p’-DDD) Lysodren, L-Deprenyl (anipryl) Ketaconazole

422
Q

How do you treat an adrenal tumor

A

can do surgery or use above drugs

423
Q

What is Hypoadrenocorticism
 or Addison’s dse

A

Cortisone and a mineralocorticoid deficiency (aldosterone)Atrophy of adrenal cortexResults in decrease of glucocorticoids (cortisone) and mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

424
Q

What are the clinical signs of addison disease

A
425
Q

What are the clinical signs of addison disease

A
426
Q

What does the medulla of the adrenal gland do

A

Secretes as epinephrine or adrenaline

427
Q

What is the function of aldosterone

A

Aldosterone acts on renal tubes to preserve and reabsorb Sodium and excrete Potassium

428
Q

What are the 3 types of cushion’s disease

A
  1. Pituitary tumor2. Adrenal gland tumor3. Iatrogenic
429
Q

Why does a pituitary tumor cause cushings disease

A

Pituitary tumor (adenoma) produces excess ACTH  overstimulates the adrenal gland  xs cortisol

430
Q

What does the hypothalamus produce

A

Corticotropin releasing factor

431
Q

What does the corticotropin releasing factor do to the pituitary gland

A

Causes the pituitary to release ACTH.

432
Q

What is ACTH

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

433
Q

What does ACTH do in the body

A

Causes adrenal growth and secretion.

434
Q

What does the adrenal gland produce

A

Cortisol (glucocorticoid)

435
Q

What effect does cortisol have on the body

A

Inhibits CRF and ACTH by means of negative feedback

436
Q

What are the hormones released by the Anterior pituitary gland

A

Thyroid, adrenal, ovary, teste

437
Q

What are the hormone released by Posterior pituitary

A

Oxytocin, vasopressin (ADH)

438
Q

What does a brain or pituitary tumor do

A

Causes excess ACTH –> Secondary bilateral adrenal hyperplasia –> excess cortisol

439
Q

What does the adrenal gland tumor do

A

Other adrenal will become hypoplastic and unilateral,

440
Q

What are the 3 types of excess cortisol hyperadrenocorticism

A
  1. Brain or pituitary tumor2. Adrenal gland tumor3. Iactrogenic
441
Q

Describe pituitary dependant cushings disease

A

Up to 90% of all Cushing’s cases in dogs fall into this category. It is slow growing cancer called an adenoma ( pituitary). This causes secretion of excess ACTH. The adrenal glands respond to this excess ACTH by enlarging and secreting excess cortisol.

442
Q

Describe non-pituitary dependent cushings disease

A

In up to 15% of Cushing’s there is an actual tumor of one of the adrenal glands (sometimes both are involved). It enlarges and secretes excess cortisol in the bloodstream.The benign version of this tumor occurs 50% of the time, and is called an adenoma. The malignant version, which occurs the other 50% or the time, is called an adenocarcinoma. It can spread from the adrenal gland to the liver, lung, kidney, and lymph nodes.

443
Q

Describe iatrogenic cushings disease

A

Long term use of supplemental cortisone, in oral, injectable, or even topical form, might cause an animal to have the symptoms of Cushing’s disease.i.e. Long term use of Drug prednisone. will cause the adrenal glands to shrink in size. This is because the negative feedback loop tells the brain there is plenty of cortisol in the bloodstream, so the pituitary secretes less ACTH.

444
Q

What does hypothyroidism do

A

inadequate active thyroid hormone most common hormone imbalance of the dog. In Dogs:T3 is the active formT4 is the inactive form When T4 is absorbed into tissue cells, it is converted into T3

445
Q

What are the clinical signs of cushings disease

A

Polyphagia- excess appetite.Polyuria/polydypsia (PU/PD)- Pot bellied abdomen.Thin skin and usually symmetrical hair loss along the trunk. The hair might grow in lighter in color or even be hyperpigmented. Secondary skin infections are common.Other symptoms could include lethargy, muscle wasting, poor appetite, weakness, and behavioral changes.

446
Q

Describe the signalment of cushings diease

A

Cushing’s tends to be a problem that affects older dogs, usually greater than 10 years of age. The disease tends to have a slow and gradual onset, so the early symptoms are easily missed.

447
Q

What are the breed dispositions of cushings disease

A

Yorkshire Terrier Poodle Beagle Boston Terrier Boxer Dachshund

448
Q

How do you diagnose cushings

A

CBC might show an increased WBC and an eosinopenia ( cortisol) BIOCHEM****elevated alkaline phosphatase (Alk Phos) ** maybe elevation Cholesterol Urinalysis Low sp .gravity often

449
Q

What does the urine cortisol/creatinine ratio show

A

is a screening test for Cushing’s disease; a positive test here does NOT confirm Cushing’s syndrome but a negative test DOES rule it out. If there is a high ratio - a relatively high amount of cortisol being excreted - further testing is in order.Ideally for this test the urine sample is collected at home so that cortisol secreted in response to the stress of visiting the vet’s office does not interfere with results.

450
Q

Specific diagnostic tests for cushings

A

ACTH Stimulation test Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (LDDS)High Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (HDDS)

451
Q

How do you treat a pituitary tumor

A

give drugs that will partially destroy or prevent the adreanal gland from secreting excess cortisoneMitotane (o,p’-DDD) Lysodren, L-Deprenyl (anipryl) Ketaconazole

452
Q

How do you treat an adrenal tumor

A

can do surgery or use above drugs

453
Q

What is Hypoadrenocorticism
 or Addison’s dse

A

Cortisone and a mineralocorticoid deficiency (aldosterone)Atrophy of adrenal cortexResults in decrease of glucocorticoids (cortisone) and mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

454
Q

What is the free T4

A

Most of the circulating T4 is carried by blood proteins and is not available for tissue absorption; the portion that is not carried by proteins (the so-called “free T4”) free T4 is the portion that is able to enter tissues for activation

455
Q

What are the clinical signs of addison disease

A
456
Q

What is an addison crisis

A

Medical Emergency—Presents with sudden weakness, vomiting, diarrheaLow Na- causes a drastic drop in Blood pressureHigh K - heart problems Hypovolumemic – symptoms of shock

457
Q

How do you treat an addison crisis

A

Crisis- fluids– Normal SalineReplace Na (do not want K)Cortisone- prednisone or dexamethasone

458
Q

What is the treatment for addisons

A

Percoten V - monthly injections, Florinef- tablets

459
Q

How do you diagnose addison disease

A

Pre treatment Blood work: electrolyte imbalance Na:K – less than 27:1Often pre renal increase in BUN CREAT High BUN in absence of Kidney dse

460
Q

How do you confirm the diagnosis of addison disease

A

ACTH stimulation test to confirm addisons

461
Q

What is an ACTH sim test used for

A

used To dx Addison’s or Cushing’sEvaluates the degree of adrenal response to exogenous ACTH

462
Q

What hyperplastic adrenal gland do

A

Exaggerated response indicates cushings

463
Q

What does a hypo plastic adrenal gland do

A

Diminished response indicates addisons

464
Q

What is Low dose dexamethasone Suppression test

A

Replaces the ACTH test - to diagnose cushings

465
Q

What is High dose Dex. Suppression test

A

helps to distinguish if it’s a pituitary or adrenal tumor

466
Q

What dexamethasone suppression test is used for cats

A

use only in the high dose test

467
Q

What is the LDDST Protocol

A

Patient fasted before collection. i) Collect blood into a plain or SST for a baseline cortisolii) Administer 0.01 mg/kg off dexamethasone IV iii) Collect post-dexamethasone blood into a plain or SST at both 4 hours and 8 hours post-dexamethasone administration

468
Q

What are the results of LDDST

A

In the normal animal blood cortisol level will drop after a tiny dose of dexamethasone is givenIf there is a pituitary tumor, it will not turn off its stimulatory message and it ignores the dexamethasone. There is No drop in cortisol level is seen at the end of eight hoursAdrenal tumor will not suppress either

469
Q

How does the low dose/high dose work

A

Normally dexamethasone  suppress ACTH decreased cortisolPituitary tumor does not suppress to a low dose dex, but will suppress to a high dose dex– ( results in lower cortisol levels)Adrenal gland tumor pumps out cortisol regardless of ACTH  NO Suppression by large dose dexHigh dose dex suppression test will distinguish between the adrenal and pituitary cause of cushing’s

470
Q

Why can’t we measure ACTH

A

Very labile protein– requires special handling for sample—and immediate freezing of the plasma

471
Q

What does a pituitary tumor cause

A

HIGH ACTH

472
Q

What does an adrenal tumor

A

LOW ACTH

473
Q

What does the thyroid gland produces

A

T4 ThyroxineT3 Tri-iodothyronine

474
Q

What do T3 and T4

A

These hormones regulate metabolism of all tissues and organs

475
Q

What does hypothyroidism do

A

inadequate active thyroid hormone most common hormone imbalance of the dog. In Dogs:T3 is the active formT4 is the inactive form When T4 is absorbed into tissue cells, it is converted into T3

476
Q

What causes hypothyroidism

A

immune-mediated destruction of the thyroid gland, natural atrophy of the gland, dietary iodine deficiency, (Goiter) a congenital problem

477
Q

What are the breeds predisposed to hypothyroidism

A

the Doberman pinscher, the Golden retriever, the Irish Setter, the Great Dane, the Dachshund, the Boxer

478
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism

A

Weight gain without an increase in appetiteLethargy and lack of desire to exerciseCold intolerance (gets cold easily)Dry, dull hair with excessive shedding and flakingVery thin to nearly bald hair coatIncreased dark pigmentation in the skinIncreased susceptibility and occurrence of skin and ear infectionsFailure to re-grow hair after clipping or shavingHigh blood cholesterolSlow heart rate

479
Q

What is hypothyroidism

A

biochemistry panel might show an elevated cholesterol ( 75% of time)CBC mild non responsive anemiaMay see target cells due to cholesterol deposits on RBC membrane

480
Q

What is the physiology of hypothyroidism

A

(Hypothalmus)  TRF  pituitary (TSH) - thyroid gland  T3 +T4 (triiodothyronine and thyroxine)All of the T4 is produced by thyroidT4 can be converted to converted to T3 at the tissue levelMost T4 + T3 in blood is protein boundfT4 freeT4 enters the cell and is converted to T3

481
Q

Describe the Pituitary gland

A

pituitary gland –. TSHWhen T4 levels are dropping, the pituitary gland sends out TSH–stimulates the thyroid gland to make and release more T4.You expect to have a high TSH in a hypothyroid dog

482
Q

What is the total T4 screening test

A

Often part of a geriatric profile

483
Q

What is the free T4 by equilibrium dialysis

A

Can be a more specific test

484
Q

Do we ever do TSH and T4 together

A

Yes

485
Q

What is the free T4

A

Most of the circulating T4 is carried by blood proteins and is not available for tissue absorption; the portion that is not carried by proteins (the so-called “free T4”) free T4 is the portion that is able to enter tissues for activation

486
Q

What is Euthyroid sick

A

Many chronic illnesses will cause an animal to have a low T4 and he is not hypothyroid

487
Q

What is the TSH response test

A

Many diseases and drugs can suppress T4 levels– this test is more sensitive

488
Q

How do you do the TSH response test

A

Draw Pre-test blood sample – give TSHDraw post-test blood samples 4-6 hrs laterNormal dogs or euthryoid sick dogs should show increased T4 Hypothyroid dog shows no increase

489
Q

What are the two other hypothyroid tests

A

TRH- thyrotropin –Releasing Hormone Response testTriiodothyronine Suppression test

490
Q

Monitoring thyroid treatment

A

Monitoring with T4 Monitoring with +/- TSH level

491
Q

How do you know if diagnosis correct

A

to repeat test:thyroid hormone supplementation must be discontinued at least 2 months for blood testing to be valid

492
Q

What is hyperthyroidism

A

Caused by benign tumor (adenoma) on the thyroid gland excess of amounts of T3 and T4. These adenomas are not under the control of TSH

493
Q

What are the clinical signs of hyperthyroidism

A

Weight loss Excess appetite (polyphagia) Decreased appetite (anorexia) Nervousness , vocalization Muscle weakness Vomiting (emesis) Diarrhea Excess drinking and urinating (polyuria and polydipsia) Poor hair coat High heart rate (tachycardia) ( 200-300bpm) - gallop rhythm Labored breathing (dyspnea)

494
Q

What are the secondary complications of hyperthyroidism

A

thyrotoxic cardiomyopathyHypertension (high blood pressure)If left untreated there are significant complications that can develop. Blindness can occur due to retinal detachment from high blood pressure. Long term kidney damage and non-stop diarrhea might also be consequences, along with heart failure and death.

495
Q

What are the elevated enzymes in a biochem panel

A

Elevated liver enzymes on biochem panel- ALT AST

496
Q

How do you diagnose hyperthyroidism

A

Routine geriatric biochemistry Total T4 is very elevatedSometimes if T4 is normal and Hyperthyroidism is suspected the free T4 by equilibrium dialysis will be done

497
Q

What are the 4 treatment hyperthyroidism

A

Radioactive IodineTapazole (Methimazole) - monitor T4 levelsSurgery (thyroidectomy) Y/D diet from Hills ( has no iodine)- monitor T4 levels

498
Q

What are Reference ranges

A

normal valuesreference ranges established by measuring the laboratory parameters in a group of normal animals

499
Q

Describe the anatomy of the liver

A

receives nutrient blood hepatic artery- (20%) blood supply 80%-hepatic portal vein from- stomach, intestines, pancreas, spleenblood leaves the liver- HEPATIC VEIN –> Caudal VENA CAVA

500
Q

Describe the portal triad

A

hepatic a., portal v. –> blood flow toward central vbile duct–> bile flows in opposite direction

Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) (26 decks)

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