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Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) > Experimental Animal Research Techniques > Flashcards

Experimental Animal Research Techniques Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

Is the CCAC a mandatory control program?

A

No

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2
Q

Is the CCAC under the supervision of the federal government?

A

No

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3
Q

Does the CCAC carries out its responsibility through education and its Assessmentprogram.

A

Yes

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4
Q

Does the CCAC carry out their assessment visits every 2 years

A

No, every 3

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5
Q

After a CCAC assessment, if the institution is in compliance it will receive a document called:

A

CERTIFICATE OF GOOD ANIMAL PRACTICE

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6
Q

Canada has no specific federal legislation relating to the care and use of experimental animals (T or F).

A

TRUE

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7
Q

How many animals are used per year in Canada for scientific purpose?

A

Approx. 3,000,000.

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8
Q

What committee reviews animal research protocols to be sure that the methods of care and use are appropriate and in compliance with CCAC guidelines?

A

The animal care committee

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9
Q

Name at least 4 advantages of an Anteroom in an animal facility.

A

USEFUL AIRLOCK, NOISE CONTAINMENT, EXTRA-LEVEL OF SECURITY, CHANGING STATION,DISINFECTION/WASHING STATION, PROCEDURE ROOM, STORAGE

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10
Q

(T/F) animal rooms need large windows to permit natural light

A

False

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11
Q

(T/F) ventilation requirements are minimum 15 room changes of air / hour

A

True

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12
Q

Describe positive air pressure

A

Positive air pressure pushes air out of a room or container by increasing the rate of flow. Fans create a steady flow of air out of the room, and an intake replaces it. The air, and any particles, are forced out of the room, keeping contaminants out for as long as the intake is properly filtered.

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13
Q

Describe negative air pressure

A

With negative room pressure, the ventilation system moves air out more quickly than air can move in. This creates negative pressure and encourages air from halls and neighboring rooms to flow into the negative pressure room, rather than allowing contaminated air out. Negative room pressure is an isolation technique hospitals and labs can use to control an environment where contaminants may be present.

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14
Q

Explain the double-corridor concept for animal facilities.

A

THERE IS TWO CORRIDORS (CLEAN & DIRTY) AND THE TRAFFIC IS UNIDIRECTIONNAL (FROM CLEAN TO DIRTY)

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15
Q

Which of the following features does not apply to a barrier facility? (a) Shower at the entrance(b) Housing infectious animals(c) Positive ventilation(d) Autoclaving materials entering inside the facility

A

(b) Housing infectious animals

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16
Q

Which of the following statements is false concerning the environmental parameters for housing laboratory animals?(a) Proper ventilation requirements are required to remove contaminants such as ammonia. (b) Exposure to high light intensity should be avoided to prevent retinal damage to albino animals. (c) Quarantine rooms should be kept under positive air pressure to prevent cross- contamination. (d) Recommended environmental temperatures should be followed for each specie

A

(c) Quarantine rooms should be kept under positive air pressure to prevent cross- contamination.

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17
Q

Why do we need animal models?

A

To study disease, and biological function to be able to extrapolate the results to humans, since often we cannot study directly on humans.

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18
Q

What are the animal care factors (4) to consider when choosing an animal model?

A

COST AND AVAILABILITY, HOUSING AVAILABILITY, HUSBANDRY EXPERTISE, STRESS FACTORS

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19
Q

What is the difference between an isomorphic and a homologous model?

A

ISOMORPHIC: SAME SYMPTOMS BUT DIFFERENT ETIOLOGY; HOMOLOGOUS: SAME SYMPTOMS AND CAUSES

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20
Q

What are the types of models used to study biological end functional systems?

A

(a) EXPLORATORY (b) EXPLANATORY (c) PREDICTIVE

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21
Q

Explain what a Negative animal model is.

A

A MODEL (ANIMAL) THAT FAILS TO REACT TO A DISEASE/CHEMICAL STIMULUS. (USED TO STUDY MECHANISM OF RESISTANCE)

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22
Q

What is the difference between face validity and construct validity in an animal model?

A

FACE VALIDITY IS SAME PHENOTYPE WHILE CONSTRUCT VALIDITY IS SIMILAR GENETIC

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23
Q

True or False(a) A “one-to-one” model is when each aspects of a condition are each analyzed by onespecific animal model.

A

False

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24
Q

True or False(b) In some cases, the typical model in the field must be used and there is limitedflexibility to consider other models.

A

True

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25
Q

True or False(c) An orphan animal model is composed of animals in which a particular disease is notpresent.

A

False

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26
Q

Why is a literature search and statistical calculations recommended before choosing amodel?

A

LITERATURE: TO FIND OUT THE EXISTING BODY OF KNOWLEDGE CONCERNING POSSIBLE MODELS TO USE FOR A SPECIFIC DISEASE AND THEIR + AND - STATS: TO DETERMINE THE POWER OF THE STUDY (THE NUMBER OF ANIMAL NEEDED (IF WE NEED LARGE NUMBERS OF ANIMALS IT WILL IMPACT MODEL CHOICE).

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27
Q

What is called a biochemical test that measures the presence of a molecule in a solution through the use of an antibody?

A

ELISA: ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOASSAY

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28
Q

Hybridomas are produced by fusing (a) T-cells and myeloma cells(b) B-cells cells and melanoma cells(c) T-cells and melanoma cells(d) B-cells and myeloma cells

A

(d) B-cells and myeloma cells

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29
Q

Why is the chicken a good species for reduction and refinement in antibody production? (give 2 reasons)

A

CAN HARVEST ATB IN EGGS, PRODUCES 10X MORE THAN RABBIT, CAN DO ORAL IMMUNIZATION

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30
Q

Which is the least toxic adjuvant that we discussed in class

A

ALUMINIUM

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31
Q

Describe monoclonal antibodies

A

(a) Produced by one plasma cell clone. (b) Often associated with neoplasia (c) Very sensitive and specific (d) Takes a long time (up to 3-6 months) to be produced

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32
Q

True or False:(a) The production of antibodies relies on the presence of the innate immune system.

A

False

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33
Q

True or False:(b) Antibody production can be done to use as a therapeutic option.

A

True

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34
Q

True or false:(c) A large antigen is usually not very immunogenic

A

False

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35
Q

True or false:(d) A very foreign antigen often need a carrier to be recognized by the immune system

A

False

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36
Q

True or false:(e) A large number of a small species (eg mice) are used to produce large quantities of antibodies.

A

False

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37
Q

True or false:(f) The phage display technique is part of the 3Rs of antibody production

A

True

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38
Q

Summarize the processes of monoclonal antibody production:

A
  1. IMMUNIZATION OF ANIMALS (IN-VIVO PRODUCTION OF ANTIBODY PRODUCING CELLS2. HARVESTING OF THOSE CELLS (B LYMPHOCYTE) + PRODUCTION OF HYBRIDOMA (IN-VITRO)3. PROPAGATION OF SELECTED HYBRIDOMAS (IN-VIVO: IP INJECTION; IN-VITRO: DISH CULTURE)4. HARVESTING OF ANTIBODIES
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39
Q

Freund’s incomplete adjuvant is less toxic since it does not contain what element?

A

MYCOBACTERIAL CELL WALL

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40
Q

What is the main issue with recombinant methods of antibody production?

A

DIFFICULT TO OBTAIN TERTIARY STRUCTURE

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41
Q

What is the difference between pain and nociception?

A

PAIN: FELT BY THE BRAIN (CNS)NOCICEPTION: ACTIVATION OF NERVE PAIN RECEPTORS

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42
Q

What is the difference between persistent pain and chronic pain?

A

PERSISTANT: LASTS FOR DAYS TO WEEKS; CHRONIC: PERSISTS DAYS TO MONTH AND IS DIFFICULT TO MANAGE (TYPICALLY ASSOCIATED WITH DEGENERATIVE DISEASE)

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43
Q

An area of increased sensitivity surrounding the site of the injury is called what?

A

SECONDARY hyperalgesia

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44
Q

Name and briefly describe two methods to assess pain discussed in class.

A
  1. DEMONSTRATE THE PRESENCE OF ANATOMY PHYSIOLOGY (EG. DOES THEANIMAL HAVE PAIN RECEPTORS) & INVESTIGATE IF IT SHOWS A RESPONSE TONOXIOUS STIMULI (EG. SWIM AWAY FROM HEAT)2. MOUSE/HORSE GRIMACE SCALE, ROTAROD TEST, LAB ANIMAL BEHAVIOROBSERVATION REGISTRATION AND ANALYSIS SYSTEM (LABORAS)
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45
Q

True or False(a) Pain receptors are the same throughout the body.

A

False

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46
Q

True or False(b) We now that inverterbrates do not feel pain

A

False

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47
Q

True or False(c) C-(nerve)fibers are unmyelinated and thus transmit quickly the feeling of fast, sharppain.

A

False

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48
Q

True or False(d) Pain medication administration should be handled by evaluating the patient atregular intervals and administering the medication dose when slight signs of pain aredemonstrated.

A

False

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49
Q

True or False(e) Appropriate surgical technique is a form of pain management.

A

True

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50
Q

What is a multimodal approach of pain prevention?

A

USING DIFFERENT PAIN MEDICATION TO TARGET DIFFERENT PAIN PATHWAYS, REDUCE THE SIDE-EFFECTS OF EACH DRUG AND ENHANCE THEIR TOTAL EFFECTS

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51
Q

Fear and anxiety can have an influence on pain. Give two non-pharmacological ways to deal with this.

A

ACCLIMATATION, TRAINING TO WITHSTAND SOME PROCEDURES, SOCIALIZATION, ENRICHMENT

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52
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

AN INCREASED RESPONSE TO A NOXIOUS STIMULI

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53
Q

Signs of pain in a rodent include all of the following, except (a) Lack of appetite(b) Ears moved backward (c) Ruffled coat(d) Malocclusion

A

(d) Malocclusion

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54
Q

True or False?(a) Immunodeficient animals are usually used for health monitoring programs.

A

False

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55
Q

True or False?(b) One quality assurance program for health monitoring is required per installation(includes all species present).

A

False

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56
Q

True or False?(c) Opportunistic pathogens never need to be tested for.`

A

False

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57
Q

True or False?(d) An immunosuppressed animal does not always produce antibodies in reaction to an infection.

A

True

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58
Q

True or False?(e) The health monitoring report consists of compiled test results made available to interested parties

A

False

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59
Q

Name two impacts diseases can have on laboratory animal pertaining to research.

A

CAN AFFECT BEHAVIOUR, GROWTH RATE, IMMUNE RESPONSE, PRODUCE HISTOPATHOLOGICAL LESIONS, CAN CONTAMINATE BIOLOGICAL PRODUCTS

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60
Q

Name two advantages of using health monitoring

A

MORE RELIABLE AND REPEATABLE RESULTS; DECREASED RISK OF ZOONOSIS; DECREASED RISK OF SPREADING INFECTIOUS AGENTS; REDUCTION IN THE # OF ANIMAL USED; PREVENT UNNECESSARY HARM TO THE ANIMALS

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61
Q

What could cause a false-positive on a PCR test?

A

SAMPLE CONTAMINATION, NON-SPECIFIC AMPLIFICATION

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62
Q

What is a sentinel animal?

A

IT’S AN ANIMAL EXPOSED TO ANIMALS OF THE SAME (OR ANOTHER) SPECIES TO EVALUATE THEIR MICROBIAL STATUS

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63
Q

Why do we perform health monitoring in research facilities? Give the 2 goals.

A

PREVENT DISEASE, DETECT THE PRESENCE OF PATHOGENS

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64
Q

FACILITY DESIGNS: GOALS

A

Minimizing the spread of diseasesIsolated from the rest of the institutionMaintain a constant and controlled environment

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65
Q

Describe Animal rooms

A

Species must be separatedEasy to cleanWaterproof

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66
Q

Describe Anteroom advantages

A

Useful airlockNoise containmentExtra level of securityChanging stationDisinfection/washing stationProcedure roomStorage

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67
Q

Describe the Surgical suite

A

Pre and post-op roomsOperative roomAseptic techniques

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68
Q

Describe the Cage-washing rooms

A

Separated area to ↓ cross-contamination and noise but accessible from animal rooms through corridors.Clean and dirty sidesVentilation

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69
Q

Describe the Laboratories

A

Procedures performed on animals should be done outside the animal rooms to ↓ stress to other animals.Radiography, treatment, necropsy, etc.

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70
Q

Describe Personnel areas

A

OfficesRecord keepingCafeteriaChanging and shower rooms

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71
Q

Describe Receiving & storage areas

A

Medications, supplies, animalsAnimal feed & beddingEquipmentsSeparated from animal rooms (↓ noise)Feed: low humidity & temperature, stored away from the floor and the wall

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72
Q

What are the TYPES OF FACILITIES

A

Conventional facility Double-corridor Barrier Containment

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73
Q

Describe a Conventional facility

A

Room with single doors & central corridorSmall facilitiesSystem needed to ↓ cross-contamination

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74
Q

Describe a Double-corridor facility

A

Clean/dirty corridorUnidirectional traffic

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75
Q

Describe a Barrier facility

A

Similar to double corridor facilityShower at entranceAir lockAutoclaving, UV lightPositive ventilationPathogen-free animals

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76
Q

Describe a Containment facility

A

Similar to barrierShower when leavingAutoclaving of material before leavingTreatment of air exitingInfectious animals

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77
Q

Describe CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS

A

Waterproof and seamlessWall protection against movement of large items such as cagesNo exterior windowsWindows in the doors of animal rooms

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78
Q

What is ENVIRONMENTAL CONCERNS

A

Constant temperature, humidity, lighting and ventilationMust be adjusted for the sp.

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79
Q

Describe Temperature and humidity of a facility

A

Follow the guidelinesTemperature range within the thermoneutral zone.

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80
Q

Describe Ventilation requirements

A

Supplies oxygenRemoves noxious odors and contaminants àAmmoniaRemoves thermal loads caused by animal respiration, lights and equipment15 room air changes/hourRecirculation of air is not recommended

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81
Q

What are the two types of Air pressure

A

NegativePositive

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82
Q

Describe Illumination in a facility

A

No windows 12 hours light/12 hours darkLight intensity à retinal damage in albinos

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83
Q

Describe Noise requirements in a facility

A

House noise sensitive animals away from noisy equipment and animals

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84
Q

Absorbable suture characteristics

A

Undergoes degradation and loses tensile strength within 60 days

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85
Q

What is tensile strength

A

The force the suture strand can withstand before it breaks

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86
Q

What are nonabsorbable

A

Sutures that retain tensile strength for more than 60 days or permanent

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87
Q

Describe monofilament

A

Withstand contamination.. Stiffer because it has a better memory

88
Q

What is memory

A

Tendency of a suture to return to its original packaged form

89
Q

What is multifilament

A

Several strands braided or twisted together. More pliable and easy to tie. Stimulate tissue reaction

90
Q

Describe the ideal suture material

A

VersatileEasy to handle Have high tensile strengthNo memoryNo tissue reaction

91
Q

3 type of suture needle attachment

A

Closed eyeFrench eyeSwaged

92
Q

3 types of suture needle

A

Conventional cutting needleReverse cutting needleTaper needle

93
Q

What impacts suture material choice

A

Nutritional status Inadequate blood supply Chronic diseaseInfectionDrugs

94
Q

What is the typical length of the suture ear

A

3 mm

95
Q

What is the Length of the skin ear

A

10-15mm

96
Q

What is the average distance from incised placement

A

Usually 5 mm

97
Q

What is the distance between each suture

A

Depends on the amount of tension that will be exerted on the incision

98
Q

What is the pro of. Interrupted sutures

A

It’s ok if a suture breaks. Can adjust tension at each suture

99
Q

What is the con to interrupted sutures

A

More time and more consuming of materials

100
Q

What are the pros to continuous sutures

A

Less material, faster, tighter

101
Q

What are the disadvantages to continuous sutures

A

Less control of tensionLess risk of suture breaking

102
Q

What is the con to the interrupted suture pattern

A

Excessive amount of tension

103
Q

When do you use interrupted suture pattern

A

Skin, fascia,blood vesssels

104
Q

Why do you use a horizontal mattress suture

A

To spread tension evenly along the Wound

105
Q

When do you use a vertical mattress suture

A

When there is greater tension than normal

106
Q

Why do you use a cross mattress suture

A

To prevent eversion and easy to remove

107
Q

Why do you use simple continuous

A

Fast, less material, good adisposition, excessive tension can cause puckering

108
Q

Why do you do an interlocking suture

A

Helps to distribute tensionProvides good adisposition Fast For large animals

109
Q

Why do you do a transfixed ligature

A

For larger vessels Prevents slippage

110
Q

What’s the advantage of staples

A

Quick placement Minimal tissue reactionLow infection risk

111
Q

What is the cons of staples

A

Less precise Expensive

112
Q

Why do we use sutures

A

Hold wound edgesReplace function (ex ligament) u Hold tube, organ etc. in place

113
Q

Describe the type and characteristics of this model and discuss (as seen during the animal model lecture)

A

Explanatory model: to understand complex problems (often used in psychiatry). High fidelity, Isomorphic, Construct validity (behavior affected by same genetic background). It’s a repetitive behavior naturally present in mice that can be used as a model and their frequency and intensity can vary after genetic modifications.

114
Q

Are the mice anxious because of the marbles? Are the mice burying the marbles on purpose?

A

The mice did not seem anxious because of the marbles rather because of being alone in a new environment. This is backed up by the literature. (Normally the mice should be acclimated to the study setting). It seems that mainly the mice do not bury marbles specifically but in the process of digging and burrowing, marbles become covered by the bedding . Some students did observe that some rare mice seemed to be burying on purpose (many students also mentioned rather vigorous digging from the mice in the nestlet experiment also).

115
Q

What are we measuring exactly (for the marble and nestlet parts)?

A

What was measured: for the marbles, the amount of marbles that ended up being buried over 30 min, for the nestlet the amount of material shredded, which represent an objective measure of a repetitive and compulsive-like behaviors in rodents.

116
Q

What section of the brain controls this behavior?

A

The hippocampus

117
Q

What else could we have measured/evaluated during this experiment?

A

Different beddings, thickness of the bedding. The amount of times a marble was buried/ unburied/(buried). How much time was spent near the sides of the cage versus the middle of the cage. The roaming and grooming behavior (length, frequency, particularities, etc.). We could also have measured the signs of stress/comfortableness.

118
Q

Discuss what this particular model (this behavioral assesment in mice) could be used to study.

A

This type of model is used to study disorders highlighted by the repeated expression of meaningless behaviors (such as OCD and autism). It can be used to assess different strain of mice (to better understand the genetic component of the disease, also different pharmacological compounds.

119
Q

What are some advantages of using this behavior as a model.

A

Advantages: this is a behavior that is naturally present. This evaluation is simple and easy to perform. Both tests are easily and accurately scored and each is sensitive to small changes in the expression of compulsive-like behaviors that result from genetic manipulations, disease, or head injury. Mice are easily kept, easily bred

120
Q

What are some limitations of using this behavior as a model.

A

Disadvantage: few disadvantages, does not reflect exactly the diseases modeled (but this is not the point). Is somewhat time consuming.

121
Q

Report and discuss the characteristics of the mouse strain used.

A

We used CD-1 5-6 weeks old female white albino mice. Their origin comes from a group of Swiss mice that were used to create this stock. -Behaviour: fairly docile and easy to handle Genes: outbred, coat colour genes: albino. They are an all purpose strain of mice. Can be used as a reference point for normal behavior

122
Q

Why are rodents used to study OCD behaviour

A

rodents often engagein a variety of repetitive behaviors and examples include grooming or digging. One psychiatric condition that involves the exhibition of recurrent and unwanted behaviors in humans is obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

123
Q

Why is it a necessity to use animals as a model for OCD or ASD

A

The intensity and frequency of occurrence of repetitive behaviors in OCD and ASD can become great enough to displace mostother normal behaviors and social interactions in patients with these conditions. In light of the prevalence and debilitating nature of psychiatric conditions characterized by repetitive behaviors, and considering the poor understanding of their causes and limited treatment options, the use of animal models to study these behaviors takes on added urgency.

124
Q

How do you prepare the cages for the marble test

A

Add 5cm mouse bedding and level bedding surface. Place marbles in 5 rows of 4 marbles.

125
Q

How do you prepare the cages for the nestled test

A

Add 0.5cm mouse bedding and level bedding surface. Weigh a nestlet and place it in the cage.

126
Q

How much time is needed to preform the experiment

A

30 minutes

127
Q

Are the mice allowed food or water during the experiment?

A

No, withhold it.

128
Q

How many people are grading the mice who are burying the marbles?

A

2-3

129
Q

When is a marble considered buried?

A

When two-thirds of its surface are is covered by bedding.

130
Q

Once the nestled is shredded, what do you do?

A

remove remaining intact nestlet material from cage. allow to dry overnight. weigh remaining unshredded nestlet and divide weight by starting weight to calculate percentage of nestled shredded.

131
Q

What is particular (different from cats&dogs) about the evaluation of rodents and rabbits?

A

Accurate history may not be availableMost have very short lifespan

132
Q

T or F: Mice should be lifted by grasping the tip of the tail.

A

False (Base)

133
Q

What health condition should the handler be aware of when scruffing rodents?

A

Respiratory distress

134
Q

Where should IP injections be administered in small rodents?

A

Posterior Quadrant

135
Q

Where should IM injections be administered in small rodents?

A

quadriceps muscle

136
Q

T or F. Hamsters are mostly very docile.

A

False

137
Q

T or F. Gerbils should not be grasped by the tail.

A

False

138
Q

T or F. Rabbits can be scruffed.

A

True

139
Q

What purpose does the EMLA cream serve?

A

Analgesia

140
Q

What is the active ingredient of EMLA cream?

A

lidocaine, prilocaine

141
Q

Why it is not necessary and recommended to withhold food from small rodents & rabbits for prolonged periods?

A

do not vomit, can predispose to hypoglycemia

142
Q

Where can fluid be administered in rabbit / rodents?

A

SQ, IP, IV, IO

143
Q

Why is there little advantage to giving a sedative agent to rodents and rabbits before going into general anesthesia?

A

because most anesthesia involve injectable (injection does sedative + anesthesia)

144
Q

Why are anticholinergics used in animals?

A

reduce bronchial and salivary secretion

145
Q

Why is atropine relatively ineffective in rabbits?

A

high levels of atropinase

146
Q

Which anticholinergic is used in rabbits?

A

glycopyrrolate

147
Q

What are the effect(s) of acepromazine in rodents / in rabbits?

A

sedation / excellent sedative effect in rabbits

148
Q

What are the effect of benzodiazepines in rodents and rabbits VS the effects in dogs and cats?

A

marked sedation in rodents (in cats and dogs very little sedative effect in adults)

149
Q

What are the effects of xylazine, medetomidine and dexmedetomidine in small rodents and rabbits?

A

sedation, immobilization

150
Q

What are the adverse effects of xylazine, medetomidine and dexmedetomidine in small rodents and rabbits and how can they be antagonized?

A

hyperglycemia, diuresis, respiratory and cardivascular depression. atipamezole preferred

151
Q

What is a good drug mix to use for ear blood sampling in rabbits in rabbits? And why?

A

acepromazine + butorphanol (sedation + analgesia + vein dilation)

152
Q

What are the most common injection routes used in rabbits and rodents to induce anesthesia? (Which is less painful?)

A

IP, IM, SQ (IP less painful than IM)

153
Q

Why are IP administrations in the right posterior quadrant?

A

avoids the bladder and caecum

154
Q

What precautions should be taken with IP injections of anesthetics?

A

wide safety margin to allow for less precision (no titration to effect possible)

155
Q

Why does ketamine have limited effect in small mammals when used alone?

A

does not achieve good restraint, does not provide sufficient analgesia

156
Q

Which drugs are usually combined with ketamine to increase its effectiveness?

A

alpha 2 agonist

157
Q

Why shouldn’t pentobarbital be used in the anesthesia of small mammals?

A

narrow safety margin

158
Q

Why is propofol rarely used in small rodents and rabbits?

A

needs to be given IV

159
Q

What is best for small rodents: mask or chamber induction? Why?

A

chamber, most convenient (less stressful for the animal, no need to restrain)

160
Q

Why it is not recommended to induce anesthesia with liquid anesthetic placed on gauze pads?

A

very high concentration of anesthetic vapours that can be dangerous

161
Q

Why it is preferable to administer preanesthetic medication before inducing anesthesia with a face or chamber in rabbits?

A

rabbits frequently hold their breaths, may make violent tentative to escape

162
Q

Which methods can be used to deliver anesthetic gases to rodents and rabbits?

A

face mask, E intubation, nasal catheter, laryngeal mask

163
Q

What is a laryngeal mask? In which species do we use it?

A

composed of an airway tube that connects to an elliptical mask with a cuff which is inserted through the patient’s mouth, down the trachea, and once deployed forms an airtight seal on top the glottis (unlike tracheal tubes which pass through the glottis) rabbits

164
Q

What are the reflexes used to ensure an appropriate plane of anesthesia in small rodents and rabbits?

A

pedal withdrawal reflex or tail pinch reflex

165
Q

Why are ocular reflexes not as useful in small mammals and rabbits?

A

wwith most regimens, the position of the eye remains fixed, and the palpebral reflex may remain present

166
Q

What measures should be undertaken if the eye rotates and protrude in rabbits?

A

reduction of anesthesia plain and supportive measures (cardiac arrest could occur shortly)

167
Q

Why it is difficult to accurately assess the heart rate in rodents and rabbits?

A

many pieces of equipment are not designed to be able to function at such a high cardiac rate, not usually possible to palpate pulse

168
Q

How should blood loss be monitored?

A

carefully weighing swabs and assessing any other blood loss

169
Q

How do we monitor the Arterial Blood Pressure in rabbits?

A

arterial ear catheter, oscillometer, doppler

170
Q

What is the difference in respiratory monitoring of rodents and rabbits compared to cats and dogs?

A

cannot use bag movement

171
Q

At which value should you start to be concerned with the RR?

A

reduction to less than 50% of the estimated normal

172
Q

Are pulse oximeters useful for small mammals?

A

need monitor with upper limit of at least 350bpm

173
Q

Why are capnographs to indicated for small mammals?

A

introduce too much dead space

174
Q

What are the differences in thermoregulation of rodents and rabbits compared to cats and dogs?

A

small body size and increase ratio of surface area to body weight = rapid cooling

175
Q

What is the difference in the postop care of rodents and rabbits compared to cats and dogs?

A

high environmental temp, bedding, food very early, warmed SQ or IP fluids

176
Q

What should be available in case of a respiratory or circulatory emergency? (drugs, instruments, etc)

A

Drugs: doxapram, epinephrin, lidocaine, sodium bicarbota (chart for quick dosing); oxygen, syringe or rubber tubing to assist ventilation; IO catheter setup, plasma volume expander

177
Q

What are the materials needed for rat anesthesia

A
  • Anesthetic drugs (see list provided the day of the procedure)- Ophthalmic sterile lubricant- Syringe & needle for IP injection- Anesthetic machine
178
Q

What do you do to the rat before the IP injection of the anesthetic

A

Verify all calculationsRecord it in drug log bookTake a rat from the cages.Perform a presurgical clinical examination of the animal.Take the body weight of the animal (using rodents scale).

179
Q

What do you do with the rat after IP anesthetic administration

A

Coat the eyes of the animal with ophthalmic sterile lubricant.Test for depth of anesthesia by pedal withdrawal reflex.

180
Q

During anesthesia the following parameters will be monitored and recorded on the anesthetist’s data sheet:

A

Respiratory rate: (The respiratory rate in normal rats (undisturbed) is usually between 70 and 90 breaths per minute, and in general a fall up to 50% from this value can be considered acceptable)- Respiratory pattern (In light anesthesia, breathing is usually irregular in rate and depth.)- Colour of the ears, muzzle and footpads- Heart rate- Pedal withdrawal reflex

181
Q

What do you need for blood collection by IC puncture

A

****Anesthetized patientCalculate the maximum volume that can be collected (record the required information on the Lab Report)Prepare a 10cc syringe with a 22G 1” needle and one serum tube.

182
Q

Describe the technique for blood collection via IC puncture

A
  • Place the animal in dorsal recumbency.- Palpate the xiphoid process.- Insert the tip of needle between the left side of the xiphoid process and the last rib.- Once you have punctured the skin, gently pull back on the plunger to create a negativepressure and keep it.- Penetrate the thoracic cavity slowly while directing your needle toward the heart at an angleof approximately 40°. When blood is visible in the needle hub, stabilize your syringe andcontinue to pull back on the plunger slowly.- Record on the Lab Report the amount of blood that you have collected and place the blood inthe serum tube.
183
Q

What are the steps for the rat castration

A
  1. Shave scrotal area2. Prep scrotum with 1 and 2 solution3. Drape + Fix drape with towel forceps4. Make 1cm incision on tip of scrotum5. Make incision through tunica vaginalis6. Withdraw testical through the incision.7. Clamp spermatic blood vessels and vas deferens with forceps8. Place 3-0 suture material and place a singla ligature around both vessels and vas deferens. 9. Cut spermatic blood vessels + vas deferens10. Close tunica vaginalis with simple interrupted 3-0.11. Close skin incision with simple interrupted 3-0.
184
Q

How do you perform the splenectomy on a rat

A
  1. Shave abdomen from rib cage to pubic symphysis. Vacuum excess hair. Prep Surgical site.2. Tie animal to table, careful not to occlude circulation3. Drape surgical site4. Make mid-line incision from xyphioid to umbilicus.5. Dissect the skin laterally away from the muscle6. Lift linea alba with rat-tooth forceps. Make an opening with scalpel. Cut linea alba using metzenbaum.7. Place gauze around the spleen to prevent it from slipping. 8. Use 3-0 absorbable suture and place splenic blood vessels about 1cm from entry to the spleen. 9. Wet the exposed tissues with warm saline. 10. Remove spleen after cutting vessels.11. Close abdominal muscle with 3-0 simple interrupted.12. Close skin with 3-0 simple interrupted.
185
Q

What techniques are considered significant surgical techniques for EART

A

Femoral Arterial Venous CatheterizationImplantation of Radiotelemetry TransmitterSubcutaneous Osmotic Pump

186
Q

Name the 3Rs and give a brief definition.

A

Replacement: methods which avoid or replace the use of animals in an area where animals would otherwise have been used. Reduction: any strategy that will result in fewer animals being used. Refinement: modification of husbandry or experimental procedures to minimize pain and distress.

187
Q

What is relative replacement?

A

Replacing more sentient animals such as vertebrates, with animals that current scientific evidence indicates have a significantly lower potential for pain perception, such as some invertebrates. Using Early stage embryo or abattoir material.

188
Q

What is an organ on a chip?

A

A device (cell culture chip) that simulates the activities, mechanics and physiological response of entire organs and organ systems.

189
Q

What is microdosing?

A

It is a technique for studying the behaviour of compounds in humans through the administration of sub-therapeutic that are unlikely to produce whole-body effects, but high enough to allow the cellular response to be studied.

190
Q

Define replacement and give two examples.

A

Methods which avoid or replace the use of animals in an area where animals would otherwise have been used. Bioengineering, using human volunteers, organ on a chip, using zebra fish, etc.

191
Q

Which of the following is not a method of reduction?(a) using genetically homozygous animals(b) using analgesia (Refinement)(c) using statistics(d) using cell culture

A

(b) using analgesia (Refinement)

192
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility of your employer?(a) Maintain a safe working environment.(b) Train you properly in the safe use of chemicals and equipment.(c) Take action to correct unsafe working conditions immediately.(d) All of the above

A

(d)All of the above

193
Q

Up to 50% of people who handle laboratory animals develop allergies. T or F

A

FALSE

194
Q

The classification used to categorize the relative hazards of infective organisms iscalled the containment level. T or F risk group

A

F risk group

195
Q

List the 3 general methods to limit exposure to allergies. Give an example of each.

A

Engineering: e.g. cage dumping station with HEPA filter; Administrative controls e.g. strict protocols, training; Personal protective measures e.g. gloves, lab-coat, mask

196
Q

Which of the following factors is not used to determine which risk group an organism falls into?(a) pathogenicity(b) infectious dose(c) mode of transmission(d) type of genetic mutation(e) availability of effective preventive measures

A

(d) type of genetic mutation

197
Q

Give an example of a chemical hazard.

A

Flammable material, corrosiveness, reactivity, explosivity, toxicity… Formaldehyde, oxygen, mercury, etc

198
Q

What is the role of WHMIS?

A

To provide relevant safety and health information to Canadian workers so that they can take the necessary precautions to avoid injury, illness and premature death.

199
Q

Which of the following is not a key component of WHMIS?(a) Worker education and training program(b) Put in place legislation(c) MSDS(d) Cautionary labeling

A

(b) Put in place legislation

200
Q

What is particular in the PPE when working with squealing pigs?

A

Hearing protection

201
Q

What can you do to decrease the chance of animal related hazard (give 3 examples)

A

understand basic animal behaviour in relation to their interactions with people during handling; appreciate the “flight zones” typical of a species; understand how to communicate with the animal; use appropriate restraint techniques; use restraint equipment properly; identify any animals that may be unpredictable; wear appropriate; protective clothing and equipment; maintain appropriate vaccination status

202
Q

List 2 advantages and 2 disadvantages of CO2 as a means of euthanasia.

A

Advantage: can permit euthanasia of large numbers of animals, animals can stay in their home cages. Disadvantage: is aversive to rodents (less when given at a precise and controlled rate, animal needs to not hold its breath

203
Q

Personnel must be adequately trained to ensure that euthanasia is carried out in the most humane manner. Training should include the following (list two):

A

recognition of animal pain and distress using behavioural measures; proper methods of handling and restraining the animal; proper application of the method of euthanasia and; use of equipment; recognition and assessment of unconsciousness; methods of ensuring the death of the animal; recognition and confirmation of death.

204
Q

What is the definition of an acceptable method of euthanasia?

A

should result in rapid loss of consciousness, followed by respiratory and cardiac arrest and ultimate loss of all brain function.

205
Q

Give two reasons for producing transgenic animals.

A

in the basic biological study of regulatory gene elements; in medical research, to identify the functions of specific factors in complex homeostatic systems through over- or under-expression, as models of human disease; in toxicology as responsive test animals; in biotechnology as producers of specific proteins; in agriculture and aquaculture to improve yields of meat and other animal products.

206
Q

What is the major advantage of the pronuclear DNA microinjection to produce transgenic animals?

A

Applicable to a wide range of species

207
Q

Embryonic stem cell-mediated gene transfer is the method of choice for producing knock-out mice. True or F

A

True

208
Q

What is a chimeric animal?

A

A genetically modified single organism composed of two or more cell lines containing a different genetic background (DNA)

209
Q

What is a stem cell?

A

undifferentiated cells that have the potential to differentiate into any type of cell and therefore to give rise to a complete organism.

210
Q

What is lacking in SCID animals?

A

Functional lymphocytes

211
Q

What are the 3 general characteristics that define the nude mouse?

A

“hairless”, no normal thymus, defective immune system

212
Q

Germ-free conditions must be provided to nude and scid mouse. Name 3 ways to provide germ-free conditions:

A

PVI Caging System (pressurized individually ventilated), Filter-top Caging System Combined With a Laminar Flow Work, Animal isolators

213
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A

Ensure the maturation of T lymphocytes, ensure the induction of central tolerance

214
Q

Why do we call the nude mutation semi-dominant?

A

Because heterozygotes are not phenotypically normal (Also have reduced numbers of bone marrow stem cells, lower thymus weights)

215
Q

The SCID mice is a transgenic animal. T or False

A

False

216
Q

What are the manifestations of the SCID anomaly? (name 2 out of 3)

A

Lymphopenia, Lack of serum immunoglobulin, They have lymph nodes and a thymus which are abnormally small, but present with severe lymphopenia in all lymphoid tissues.

Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) (26 decks)

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