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ANTH 352 > Vertebrae part 2 > Flashcards

Vertebrae part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most mobile segment of vertebral column?

A

cervical vertebrae

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2
Q

supper cervical spine

A

C1 and C2

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3
Q

lower (or subaxial) cervical spine

A

C3 to C7

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4
Q

C3 - 6 are ____

A

typical

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5
Q

C7 is

A

transitional (has cervical and thoracic features)

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6
Q

how many joints in the neck that move the head and neck relative to trunk?

A

37

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7
Q

pivot joint

A

trochoid joint

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8
Q

Condylar region of skull, atlas, and axis are often together referred to as

A

cervicocranium

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9
Q

All cervical vertebrae are characterized by presence of a

A

transverse foramen in each transverse process

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10
Q

transverse foramen allows for passage of

A

vertebral artery (C1-C6) and vein (C1-C7)

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11
Q

what does the dens or odontoid process of axis allow the atlas to do?

A

so atlas rotates around its own former body; atlas and axis form a sagittal pivot or trochoid type of joint

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12
Q

C1 and C2 form a ____ joint

A

pivot

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13
Q

C1 and C2 articulate at __ sites

A

3

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14
Q

articular triad

A

C1 and C2 articulate at 3 sites: a central atlanto-axial joint, the atlanto-dental joint, and two lateral atlanto-axial joints or facet joints

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15
Q

what projects medially from the lateral masses of the atlas?

A

tubercle for transverse atlantal ligament

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16
Q

where does the transverse atlantal ligament attach on the C2?

A

on the dens

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17
Q

is dens on C1 or C2?

A

C2 - on axis

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18
Q

fibro-osseus ring

A

consist of transverse atlantal ligament and anterior arch and lateral masses

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19
Q

what does the fibro-osseus ring allow for

A

holds dens in place to create a pivot joint ( atlantoaxial joint or atlantodental joint)

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20
Q

crus superius attaches to

A

occipital bone C0

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21
Q

crus inferius attaches to

A

posterior body of axis C2

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22
Q

cruciate ligament

A

transverse atlantal ligament + crus superius + crus inferius

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23
Q

cervicocranium

A

where 50% of cervical movement occurs

C0, C1, C2

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24
Q

C0-C1 makes ___ motion

A

yes

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25
Q

C1-C2 makes ___ motion

A

no

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26
Q

Over evolutionary time, C1 has lost its body (to form dens) and acquired an ______

A

anterior arch

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27
Q

true or false; C2 is a ring shaped bone

A

false; it is C1 that is a ring shaped bone

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28
Q

what features is the atlas comprised of?

A

anterior arch
2 lateral masses
posterior arch
posterior tubercle

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29
Q

true or false; C1 (atlas) does not have spinous process

A

true; instead it has posterior tubercle

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30
Q

atlantodental joint is a _____ joint

A

synovial pivot joint

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31
Q

what do the occipital condyles articulate with?

A

superior articular facets of atlas, which are part of lateral masses; allows for skull stability

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32
Q

posterior arch of C1 is ____ flattened

A

craniocaudally flattened

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33
Q

C1 transverse process act as

A

levers

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34
Q

what attaches to tips of dens to base of occiput

A

apical ligament

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35
Q

alar (check) ligaments; atlantal and occipital portions

A

attach dens to medial aspect of each occipital condyle and to atlas

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36
Q

transverse foramen of axis allows for passage of

A

arteries

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37
Q

Bifid C2 spinous process is large; inverted V-shape provides large surface area for

A

muscle attachments

38
Q

Uncovertebral joints =

A

Luschka joints

39
Q

which foramen is triangular?

A

vertebral foramen of typical vertebrae (C3-6)

40
Q

Articular processes form a column from C2 to C7 allow for which movements?

A

flexion and extension

41
Q

which cervical spinous process has bifid shape?

A

C3-6

42
Q

C1 spinous process is a

A

small tubercle

43
Q

C7 nonbifid spinous process is a _____

A

vertebra prominens

44
Q

which cervical vertebrae do not have anterior tubercles?

A

C1, 2, 7

45
Q

which cervical vertebrae have anterior tuebrcles?

A

C3-6

46
Q

the transverse foramen is closed by the

A

costo-transverse bar

47
Q

true or false: C2 and C3 are commonly fused

A

true

48
Q

true or false;
•Occipital bone and atlas may occasionally be fused
•Atlas and axis may be fused

A

true

49
Q

C7 may carry

A

cervical ribs

50
Q

fused vertebrae =

A

block vertebrae

51
Q

typical thoracic vertebrae

A

T5 - 8

52
Q

which T vertebrae have demifacets ?

A

T2 - 9 (or 10)

53
Q

the bodies of thoracic vertebrae tend to be ___ shaped

A

heart shaped (cardioid)

54
Q

true or false; Superior facet on T1 is complete facet for rib 2

A

false; Superior facet on T1 is complete facet for rib 1

55
Q

in the thoracic vertebrae, Superior articular facets are oriented ________, and inferior articular facets are oriented _______

A

posterolaterally; anteromedially

56
Q

in the thoracic vertebrae, superior vertebral notches are absent from

A

T2 to T12

57
Q

lumbar body shape

A

Large kidney-shaped or reniform body

58
Q

Transverse processes have wide span. Which vertebrae subdivision is this?

A

lumbar

59
Q

spondylolysis

A

when part of the vertebral arch is separated from the remainder of the vertebrae - leads to potential instability

60
Q

what is the weakest part of a vertebra?

A

pars interarticularis

61
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

superior vertebra and slip forward upon inferior vertebra due to pars interarticularis defect

62
Q

what may partly stabilize a spondylolisthesis

A

iliolumbar ligament

63
Q

sacral vertebra is consisted of ___ fused pieces - a composite bone

A

5

64
Q

sacrum forms part of the ____

A

bony pelvis

65
Q

base, alae, promontory

A

Superior surface= base, comprised of a median part (S1 body) and 2 lateral portions -alae
•Anterior superior border of S1 is the promontory of the sacrum

66
Q

how can you tell if the sacrum belongs to a male or female based on concavity?

A

male sacrums concave anteriorly

tend to be flatter in female for giving birth

67
Q

sacrum has __ transverse ridges and __ sacral foraminae for spinal nerves

A

4; 4

68
Q

pars lateralis

A

in sacrum, is bone lateral to foraminae

69
Q

nerve root =

A

ramus

70
Q

The sides of S4 and S5, as well as the sides of the coccyx, are thin, for the ________ (sacrum to ischial tuberosity)and _______(sacrum to ischial spine) ligaments (next slide)

A

The sides of S4 and S5, as well as the sides of the coccyx, are thin, for the sacrotuberous (sacrum to ischial tuberosity)and sacrospinous(sacrum to ischial spine) ligaments (next slide)

71
Q

median crest

A

formed by spinous tubercles

72
Q

intermediate crest

A

formed by articular tubercles

73
Q

lateral crest

A

formed by transverse tubercles

74
Q

sacral hiatus

A

inferior gap where median crest divides inferiorly

75
Q

Sacral cornuae

A

inferior ends of divided median crest

76
Q

spina bifida

A

failure of neural arch fusion

77
Q

failure of one of chondrification centres to appear and subsequent failure of half of vertebra to form

A

hemivertebra

78
Q

scoliosis

A

lateral curvature of spine

79
Q

kyphosis

A

anteroposteriorly curved

80
Q

kyphoscoliosis

A

kyphosis and scoliosis

81
Q

Superior surface of C3 to C6 body looks like shallow seat posterior and lateral aspects are raised as ________

A

uncinate processes

82
Q

what are the 3 functions of uncinate processes?

A

1) prevent posterior translation of vertebral body
2) reinforce posterolateral discs
3) limit lateral flexion

83
Q

where do pedicles arise from?

A

vertebral body

84
Q

pedicles arise from vertebral body, giving rise to _____

A

superior and inferior vertebral notches

85
Q

the superior and inferior articular processes form the

A

articular column

86
Q

middle 4 thoracic vertebrae are called?

A

typical thoracic vertebrae

87
Q

true or false; the superior demifacet on T2-T9(10) are for the numerically corresponding rib

A

true

88
Q

where are flat facets?

A

anterosuperior aspect of tip of T8-10

89
Q

flat facets allow for ____ movement

A

gliding

90
Q

posterolateral orientation of superior facet allow for ____ motion between vertebrae

A

rotary

91
Q

how can you use the ratio of sacral body to alae in sex estimation?

A

females: 1:1:1
males: alae < body > alae

92
Q

spina bifida

A

vertebral arch defect where left and right halves of vertebral arch do not fuse

ANTH 352 (26 decks)

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