Vaccines Flashcards

1
Q

1. The first production of live but non-virulent forms of chicken cholera bacillus was achieved by:

A Pasteur

B Salk

C Jenner

D Montague

E Sabin

A

A Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2. What does the term variolation refer to?

A The generation of antibody variable regions

B The attenuation of virulent organisms

C Innoculation of scab material into small skin wounds

D The removal of scab material from an individual with smallpox

E A type of gene therapy

A

C Innoculation of scab material into small skin wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3. The circulation of a 2-month-old breast-fed baby will contain maternal:

A IgA

B IgD

C IgE

D IgG

E IgM

A

D IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4. What is the minimum percentage of children that need to be vaccinated successfully in order to achieve herd immunity to diphtheria?

A 100%

B 10%

C 50%

D 75%

E Herd immunity cannot be achieved against diphtheria

A

D 75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5. For vaccination against mycobacterial diseases such as tuberculosis, what is the most important facet of the immune response to be stimulated?

A A high titer of antibody

B Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity

C Cytotoxic T-cells

D Antibody in the gut lumen

E Neutrophils

A

B Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6. Which of the following diseases has been completely eradicated worldwide?

A Measles

B Smallpox

C Tuberculosis

D Cowpox

E Psittacosis

A

B Smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7. BCG is used to protect against:

A Tuberculosis

B Rabies

C Hepatitis B

D Influenza

E Pertussis

A

A Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8. A small protein subunit used in a vaccine can fail to stimulate T-cell immunity because of:

A Lack of glycosylation

B Lack of conformation

C Lack of carrier determinants

D HLA-related unresponsiveness

E Inherently insufficient antigen concentration

A

D HLA-related unresponsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9. Which of the following statements is TRUE of DNA vaccines?

A DNA vaccines are relatively poor at stimulating cytotoxic T-lymphocyte responses in mice

B DNA vaccines must be administered on gold particles if they are to be effective

C DNA vaccines are only effective if followed by a protein boost

D DNA vaccines can have distinct advantages when preparing subunit vaccines against viruses that frequently alter their antigens

E DNA vaccines require cold storage in tropical countries

A

D DNA vaccines can have distinct advantages when preparing subunit vaccines against viruses that frequently alter their antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10. Which of the following statements is TRUE of a peptide immunogen?

A A peptide immunogen adopts a single rigid structure in solution

B A peptide immunogen can mimic a part of a discontinuous epitope

C A peptide immunogen can elicit potent antibody responses in the absence of T-cell help

D A peptide immunogen can be used to stimulate B-cell but not T-cell responses

E A peptide immunogen lacks contact residues capable of interacting with the antigen receptor on the relevant lymphocytes

A

B A peptide immunogen can mimic a part of a discontinuous epitope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11. Tetanus toxoid is usually given to humans:

A Absorbed to aluminum hydroxide

B With complete Freund’s adjuvant

C Without the addition of any other agent

D Together with the toxin

E Only as a therapeutic agent, not prophylactically

A

A Absorbed to aluminum hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12. What is a potential disadvantage of immunological protection using passive transfer of horse globulins?

A Serum sickness

B Irreversible protection [Incorrect]

C Lack of antibody-mediated immune response

D Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

E Immunodeficiency

A

A Serum sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13. Which of the following is a feature of a Salmonella-based vaccine expressing antigens from other infectious agents?

A Immunity is limited to the gut

B Only secretory IgA is elicited

C It does not invade the mucosal lining of the gut

D It provokes both oral and systemic immunity

E The organism does not need to be attenuated

A

D It provokes both oral and systemic immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14. To which one of the following groups would it be acceptable to give a live attenuated viral vaccine?

A Children under 8 years of age

B Patients treated with steroids

C Pregnant mothers

D Patients with leukemia

E Patients treated with radiotherapy

A

A Children under 8 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15. An antibody response to a protein vaccine can only be obtained:

A If the molecule is first linked to a carrier

B If the molecule maintains discontinuous epitopes

C If the molecule is glycosylated

D If disulfide bonds are maintained

E If the peptide bonds are maintained

A

E If the peptide bonds are maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16. The inactivated polio vaccine is sometimes referred to as the:

A Salk vaccine

B Sabin vaccine

C BCG

D Hib

E RTS,S

A

A Salk vaccine

17
Q

17. Of the following, the most urgent need for an improved vaccine relates to:

A Hepatitis B

B MMR

C DTaP

D BCG

E Rabies

A

D BCG

18
Q

18. Influenza vaccines usually contain antigens from how many different strains of influenza virus?

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

E 5

A

C 3

19
Q

19. Some of the newer adjuvants under development aim to stimulate:

A Cell surface immunoglobulin

B T-cell receptors

C MHC

D TLRs

E CTLA-4

A

D TLRs

20
Q

20. Which of the following is an example of an anti-tumor vaccine?

A HPV16 and 18

B Virosome

C Varicella

D Alum

E Rotavirus

A

A HPV16 and 18