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Microbiology And Immunology 2 > Unit 3 Serology > Flashcards

Unit 3 Serology Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are three methods of identification of micro organisms

A

Direct microscopic evaluation, cultivation and biochemical tests, Serological test

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2
Q

What is serology

A

Tests based on the interactions of antibodies and antigens. Theyre developed to determine the presence of antibodies or antigens in a patient

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3
Q

What is sensitivity

A

The ability to recognize an bind to antigens

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4
Q

What is specificity

A

Characteristic of binding only to one antigen and not to others

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5
Q

What are the principles of serological reactions

A

Based on the formation of antibody antigen complexes. If antibodies are found in the serum of an animal it demonstrates that the animal has had contact with the specific antigen

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6
Q

What is an antibody tighter test

A

Measurement of how much antibody an organism has produced that recognizes a particular epitope

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7
Q

What is the concentration of antibodies in the serum considered

A

The antibody tighter

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8
Q

How is antibody tighter expressed

A

Expressed is the inverse of the greatest dilution that still gives a positive result

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9
Q

What is the function of single serum testing

A

Used to check immune status and does not always give enough information for diagnosis

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10
Q

Why can false negatives occur in single serum testing

A

Due to the fact that the anti-bodies may not have formed yet if a disease is in early stages

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11
Q

What is the definition of paired sera

A

Two serum samples taken at least two weeks apart with the first being taken during the acute phase and the second being taken during convalescence

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12
Q

How is paired serum processed

A

Both must be tested in parallel to ensure consistency of testing. Hold and freeze acute sample until convalescent samples collected and both are sent together to the lab

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13
Q

What are considered significant results in paired serum testing

A

Fourfold or greater increase between acute and convalescence

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14
Q

What are hybridomas

A

Produced by the fusion of malignant and plasma cells. The resulting population of cells is immortal and able to produce large amounts of a specific antibody

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15
Q

What are the advantages to hybridomas

A

They are uniform, highly specific and can be produced in large quantities

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16
Q

What are the uses of hybridomas

A

Serological identification, prevention of tissue rejection, cancer research.

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17
Q

Describe when precipitation reactions occur between antigens and antibodies

A

Precipitation reactions occur only when the ratio of antigen and antibody’s are off tomorrow. Optimal ratio is produced when separate solutions of antigen and antibody’s are placed adjacent to each other and allowed to diffuse together

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18
Q

What is the ouchterlony test

A

Both antigen antibody is defuse radio leaf ramose toward each other, thereby establishing a concentration gradient. As equivalents is reached a visible line of precipitation forms. Determines the relationship between antigens and the number of different antigen antibody complexes present

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19
Q

What is a coggins test

A

Sensitive diagnostic test for equine infectious anemia

20
Q

What is immunoelectrophoresis

A

Combines electrophoresis with immunodiffusion for the analysis of serum proteins. Antigens are placed in a well on an agar coated slide and an electric current is passed to the gel. The antigens migrate at different rates through the gel depending on their size and electric charge. One separation has completed, the anti-body is placed in the trough that is been made in the gel and diffusion will occur. The precipitate will form

21
Q

What is agglutination

A

Androgens linked together by antibodies to form visible aggregates. Can be direct or indirect

22
Q

What is direct agglutination

A

Direct agglutination reactions test patient serum for the presence of antibodies against ️large cellular antigens. They can be used to determine antibody titre

23
Q

What is a pathognomonic diseases

A

A disease with a very specific clinical sign that does not require any testing.

24
Q

What is a hemagglutination reaction

A

What agglutination reactions involve clumping red blood cells. They are used in blood typing, diagnosis of certain disease, identification of viruses

25
Q

What is indirect agglutination

A

Testing patient’s serum for the presence of antibodies against soluble antigens. Serum is mixed with latex spheres with the soluble antigens attached. Anti-bodies within cause visible agglutination of latex spheres with the soluable antigens

26
Q

What is an ELISA test

A

Enzyme linked immuno absorbent assay.

27
Q

What does the indirect Eliza test detect

A

Anti-bodies

28
Q

What does the direct Eliza test detect

A

Antigens

29
Q

Describe the direct Elisa test

A

Used to detect specific antigens against a antibody bound in the test chamber. Used when you want to know if a patient sample contains a specific antigen. Chamber coated with anti-bodies, antigens are added, chamber added antibodies.

30
Q

How do you know if you have a positive direct Eliza test

A

If an enzyme linked anti-body is present, a product will be formed and cause a color change

31
Q

What is an indirect Eliza test

A

It is used when you want to know if a patient sample contains an antibody against a specific antigen. coat chamber with antigen. Add antibodies. Add enzyme linked antibodies.

32
Q

How do you know if you have a positive indirect Eliza test

A

Add substrate and look for a color change

33
Q

What are the two types of in clinic Eliza tests

A

Immunofiltration and immuno chromatography

34
Q

Describe an immunofiltration Eliza test

A

Appearance of colored dots in the absorbent bed indicates a positive test

35
Q

Describe an immunochromatography Eliza test

A

Antigen is allowed to flow through a porous strip, until it meets the conjugate. It then meets some antibodies and a coloured line will appear if it is specific for these antibodies.

36
Q

What are some important idexx snap tests

A

4Dx,
Fiv/felv
Cpl
Parvo

37
Q

What is radioimmunoassay

A

Used to measure concentration of antigens by using antibodies. You make a known quantity of antigens radioactive. Then mix with a known amount of antibodies. Then mix sample of Serum. Then measure radioactivity levels using a gamma counter

38
Q

What is a western blot

A

Used to identify antigens in a patient sample. Separate proteins in patient sample by electrophoresis and transfer to a filter membrane,. If specific antigen is present in the sample the antibodies will combine with it and be visible as a colored band.

39
Q

What is a PCR test

A

Polymerase chain reaction test. Used to amplify a single copy of a piece of DNA to generate thousands of millions of copies. Requires very small amounts of DNA sample

40
Q

Briefly describe a PCR test

A

Using thermal cycling, consisting of cycles of repeated healing and cooling. Primers containing sequences complementary to the target region along with a DNA polymerase are key components to enable selective and repeated amplification. As PCR progresses the DNA generated is itself used as a template for replication

41
Q

What is needed for a polymerase chain reaction

A

Heat resistant DNA polymerase enzymes. DNA primers. Test samples. DNA nucleotides

42
Q

What is immunofluorescence

A

Using fluorescent antibody used to visualize specific antigens. Direct or indirect fluorescent antibody test

43
Q

What is the purpose of immunofluorescence

A

To detect a location an abundance of proteins for what you have an antibody. Use of fluorescent dye that is attached to an antibody

44
Q

What is direct immunofluorescence

A

Uses a primary antibody linked to a flurophore. The primary antibody recognizes the target antigen and binds to it. The attached flurophore can be detected by a fluorescent microscopic

45
Q

What is indirect immuno florescence

A

Uses two antibodies. The unlabeled first antibody specifically binds the target molecule. The second antibody which carries the flurophore recognizes the primary antibody and binds to it

Microbiology And Immunology 2 (23 decks)

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