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Microbiology And Immunology 2 > Unit 2 - Vaccines > Flashcards

Unit 2 - Vaccines Flashcards

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0
Q

How do you prevent disease

A

Nutrition, hygiene, housing, transport, ventilation

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1
Q

What is immunoprophylaxis

A

Prevention of disease through the exploitation of the immune system

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2
Q

What are the two forms of immuno prophylaxis

A

Passive immune therapy which is short term, vaccination long term

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3
Q

Why is disease prevention important

A

Treatment may be unavailable, poorly efficacy, have unwanted side effects. Cheap in cost and performance for large animals due to disease may be reduced or eliminated. Eradication of some diseases may be possible by vaccination

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4
Q

What is a vaccine

A

A preparation of a week or killed pathogens such as a virus or bacteria, or of a portion of the pathogens structure that upon administration stimulates antibody production against a pathogen but is in capable of causing severe infection.

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5
Q

What does getting a vaccine result in

A

Active acquired immunity.

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6
Q

Why was a vaccine designed

A

To do you said to me in response which should be protective and most vaccinated animals.

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7
Q

What does vaccine protocol depend on

A

Varies depending on type of vaccines such as modified live or inactivated. Characteristics of the group to be vaccinated newborns versus adult, and characteristics of the infection route of exposure, local versus systemic, prevalence

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8
Q

What is the goal of vaccination

A

Production of memory cells which help the body respond much faster with a larger response if reexposed to the same antigen

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9
Q

What is the time period between vaccination on the creation of memory cells

A

2 to 3 weeks if the vaccine is injected, several days if given intranasally

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10
Q

What is considered an anamnestic or secondary response

A

When the body responds to the booster vaccine greater and much faster then after the first vaccine. The second vaccination will produce more memory cells against parvovirus and the body is primed.

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11
Q

How long did memory cells live

A

Memory cells again some diseases live a long time, while those for other diseases may have a relatively shorter lifespan. Since memory cells do not live forever we need to revaccinated animal to produce a new generation of memory cells.

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12
Q

What is duration of immunity

A

How long a sufficient number of memory cells live and how long the antibodies remain so that the animals still protected

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13
Q

What is herd immunity

A

If most of the population is immune that is heard of him unity. With heard immunity outbreaks are limited to sprout a cases because there are not enough susceptible individuals to support spread of epidemics. Heard immunity also protects unvaccinated individuals by preventing easy spread of disease. Important for animals that cannot be vaccinated

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14
Q

How do you produce a vaccine

A

By understanding the principal virulence mechanisms of the agent. Ability to grow the agent in vitro. Knowledge of the pathogenesis of the disease, including root of infection. Stability of the organisms antigens. mutability. Immunogenicity of the agent and its products.

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15
Q

What is an adjuvant

A

Immunological agent that enhances the immune response to a vaccine. Adjuvants may be crucial components of a vaccine, particularly inactivated and subunit types since these are often poorly immunogenic. Most live vaccines are not adjuvanted

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16
Q

What is a route of vaccination

A

The route of vaccination is biased the immune response that results. In general, parenteral routes favor induction of systemic immunity and mucosal roots favor Immune responses at the mucosal surface not absolute. Potent crossover responses can be achieved

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17
Q

What does a parenteral vaccine do to the body

A

Stimulates primary response by draining lymph nodes, memory cells home primarily to other peripheral nodes and spleen. Provides good systemic Immunity. Vigorous immunization may permits spill over to mucosal sites

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18
Q

What do mucosal vaccinations do

A

Stimulates local immunoresponse at site of administration, memory cells home to other mucosal sites. Vigorous immunization or modified live virus may also and do systemic response

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19
Q

How do you mass immunize

A

Aerosol spray, drinking water, water bath. More convenient and economical than individual immunization . Used widely and poultry industry and fishfarming.

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20
Q

What are the four types of vaccines

A

Live, attenuated vaccine. Modified live vaccines.
Inactivated vaccines,
subunit vaccines,
toxoid vaccines

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21
Q

Describe modified live vaccine

A

Contain a version of the living micro that has been attenuated in the lab so it cannot cause disease. Closely mimics an actual infection.

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22
Q

What does attenuated mean

A

Weakened

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23
Q

What do attenuated virus is due in the body

A

Replicate increasing the original dose and acting as a series of secondary booster immunizAtion.

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24
Q

Where are modified live vaccines derived from

A

Usually derived from mutations or Gene deletion. Can also be derived from naturally occurring strains of organisms that are of low virulent in the target species. The strains need to express antigens relevant for protection against the more Virulent cousin strains

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25
Q

What is the advantage to giving a modified live virus

A

One initial dose is usually sufficient, additional boosters may be required due to passive anti-body interference. More rapid protection then killed vaccines. Produces a wider spectrum of protection then killed vaccines. Less likely to cause allergic reactions or post vaccination lumps. Less susceptible to passive antibody vaccine block. Less expensive

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26
Q

What is the disadvantage to modified live viruses

A

May cause mild disease. Can become a carrier of modified virus and shut the virus. Cannot be used in immunosuppressed animals. Some risk of causing abortion or transient infertility. Must be handled and mixed with care

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27
Q

What is in inactivated or killed vaccine

A

Killed organism, organism components or organism byproducts. Organisms are killed by chemical treatment, irritation, heat. Killed vaccine products use a large amount of organisms to produce a sufficient immunoresponse

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28
Q

What are bacterin’s

A

Inactivated vaccines that contain kill bacteria alone or enriched with selected bacterial antigens. Immunity of short duration, usually less than one year. Gram-negative bacteria and have increased risk of producing anaphylactic vaccine reaction

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29
Q

What is a subunit vaccine

A

Type of killed vaccine that contains only part of the virus or other micro organisms. Use only antigenic fragments of a micro organism the best to stimulate immune response

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30
Q

Why are subunit vaccine safer

A

Because they cannot reproduce inside the recipient

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31
Q

What is the advantage of subunit vaccines

A

Because they only contain the essential antigens and not all the other molecules that make up the microbe, the chances of adverse reactions to the vaccine are lower

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32
Q

What are recombinant vector vaccines

A

Type of subunit vaccine. Hybrid vaccine virus which uses alive avirulent virus such as canary pox to carry and express relevant antigens from one or several other virulent viruses. Stimulate protective levels of immunity without undergoing replication in mammals.

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33
Q

What are toxoids

A

Used for bacteria that secrete toxins or harmful chemicals. These vaccines are used when a bacterial toxins is the main cause of illness. Bacterial toxins are in activated by formalin. such detoxified toxins are called toxoids and are safe for use in vaccines.

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34
Q

What happens when the immune system receives a vaccine containing a harmless toxoid

A

It learns how to fight off the natural tocsin. The immune system produces antibodies that lock onto and block the tocsin such as the tetanus toxoid

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35
Q

What are the advantages of killed vaccines and toxoids

A

No risk of reverting to virulent form. No risk of vaccine organism spreading between animals. Little risk of causing abortion. More stable in storage. Excellent stimulant of passive antibodies and colostrum

36
Q

What is the disadvantage of killed vaccines and toxoids

A

More likely to cause allergic reactions and postvaccination lumps.
Two national dose is required.
Slower onset of immunity.
May not produce a strong or is long-lasting immunity as modified live products.
Produce a narrower spectrum of protection than modified live.
Tend to be more expensive than modified live

37
Q

Explain the importance of the timing of vaccination

A

Vaccine is ideally given before natural exposure so that the exposure triggers an anamnestic response sufficient to control or eliminate the organism prior to disease induction

38
Q

How do you secure anamnesis

A

Following initial vaccination with the booster in 2 to 4 weeks. passive immunity interferes with active immunity

39
Q

What is passive antibody interference

A

An animal that is passively immunized by administration of antibodies or naturally by transfer of antibodies from the dam will not mount an active immune response. Multiple vaccination doses are required to ensure that a primary and secondary response occurred.

40
Q

Describe how regulatory effects of passively acquired antibodies are dose-dependent

A

Large amounts may completely block active responses. Moderate amounts may permit priming but not active production of mediators. Small amounts may increase active response

41
Q

Describe passive antibody interference

A

For most newborns the amount of antibody transferred is unknown and therefore it’s rate of decline is unknown.

42
Q

How do you ensure best immune protection

A

2 to 3 vaccine doses are given starting at an early age to protect those with little passive immunity and continuing till 16 weeks of age to capture those whose passive protection blocked early attempts to immunize

43
Q

What causes vaccine failure

A

Some animals marriage failed to respond adequately despite following recommended particle. Genetic inability to respond. Transient immune suppression resulting from concurrent infection or drug therapy. Poor nutrition. Improper storage, expired or not administered properly

44
Q

what is chlamydia associated with in cats

A

Acute and chronic conjunctivitis

45
Q

Which cats are predisposed to chlamydia

A

Young cats

46
Q

Is chlamydia a systemic or local disease

A

Systemic, organisms can be shed from conjunctiva, vagina, rectum

47
Q

Is chlamydia contagious

A

Yes it is highly contagious between cats, transmitted by close contact with other cats and their aerosols and via fomites

48
Q

How long is the incubation period for chlamydia

A

3 to 5 days an infection may persist for months

49
Q

What are the clinical signs of chlamydia

A

Blepharospasm, Chemosis, conjunctivitis, Serous to micropurulent discharge. Sneezing, possible fever, possible vaginal discharge

50
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia

A

Antibiotics by mouth, doxycycline or Clavamox . All cats in the household need to be treated. Supportive care is needed

51
Q

What can doxycycline cause

A

Pill induced esophagitis if it sticks to the esophagus. Need to give 6 mL of water after administration. Can be given in a pill pocket

52
Q

How do you prevent chlamydia

A

Maintenance of environmental hygiene disinfection with 1:32 bleach solution, vaccines are available. It is a zoonosis

53
Q

What are spirochetes

A

Flexible spirals that has a Periplastic flagella that propels them in a rotating motion. Cause leptospirosis and Lyme disease

54
Q

What is leptospirosis

A

Bacterial disease affecting humans and animals. Caused by pathogenic serovars of the aerobic or gram-negative filamentous spirochetes leptospirosis interrogans and leptospirosis kirschneri

55
Q

Who is most commonly affected with leptospirosis

A

4-7year-old male is most commonly affected. Younger dogs are more susceptible to severe disease. More common in hounds, working dogs, herding breeds due to likely greater exposure risk.

56
Q

What about cats for leptospirosis

A

Not clinically affected nor renal carriers. Do seroconvert with exposure

57
Q

What are the risk factors for leptospirosis

A

Suburban or Rural environment. Outdoor exercises or activities. Exposure to wildlife or livestock. Exposure to moist environments or standing water. Flooding

58
Q

What are the human risk factors for leptospirosis

A

Direct contact with domestic animals. Environmental exposures such as fisheries rice fields or water sports. Exposure to wild rodents

59
Q

How many serovars are infectious for leptospirosis to dogs and cats

A

Eight causing variable degrees of renal and liver disease in dogs.

60
Q

Which are the most common serovars to cause renal and liver disease in dogs

A

Bratislava, Pomona and grippotyphosa

61
Q

Describe most leptospirosis infections

A

Asymptomatic

62
Q

What are the clinical disease forms of leptospirosis

A

Peracute which is sudden-death and rare, acute, subacute which is common and chronic which is common

63
Q

What does the disease form vary on for leptospirosis

A

Serovar, age, immune status of host

64
Q

What is the pathogenesis of leptospirosis

A

Leptospirosis enter the body by penetrating intact mucous membranes or bruised, braided or water softened skin. In 7 to 10 days leptospiremia causes dissemination to the kidney, liver, spleen, central nervous system, eyes and genital tract. Leptospirosis cause endothelial damage and vasculitis. Renal tubular epithelial cell colonization occurs in most infected dogs causing shedding for months to years postinfection if not properly treated. Hepatic disease may result from toxin induced injury

65
Q

What are the clinical science of leptospirosis

A

Fever, lethargy, anorexia, shivering, muscle tenderness, reluctance to move, lumbar pain, vomiting, PUPD, Icterus, hemorrhage

66
Q

How do you diagnose leptospirosis

A

Combination of history, GPE, routine bloodwork, serological titers, lepto demonstration by PCR.

67
Q

How do you treat leptospirosis

A

Treat bacteremia or leptospiremia by penicillin IV or by mouth. Maintain renal perfusion and urine output to minimize renal injury. Eliminate bacteria to provide prevent disease progression and shedding using doxycycline

68
Q

Describe the contagiousness of leptospirosis

A

Readily contagious and zoonotic. Through exposure to infected urine. Most widespread zoonosis worldwide, most human infections are asymptomatic or associated with mild, self-limiting flu like symptoms

69
Q

What is the prognosis for leptospirosis

A

Survival rates for patients with clinical leptospirosis is 70 to 85%. Survivors may have persistent chronic kidney and liver dysfunction

70
Q

How do you prevent leptospirosis

A

Through vaccination. Dog should be supervised to prevent direct exposure to wildlife and should not be allowed to play or drink from pools of stagnant water. Proper sanitation

71
Q

What is Lyme disease

A

Bacterial disease that infect humans, mammals, birds.

72
Q

How is Lyme disease spread

A

Through the ixodes tick

73
Q

Who is most commonly infected with Lyme disease

A

Humans dogs and cats. Young dogs most commonly affected, more common in dog breeds with outdoor activities

74
Q

When are most lime disease cases reported

A

Between May and November

75
Q

What is the risk factor for Lyme disease

A

Tick exposure in lime endemic area

76
Q

Who is the main reservoir for the Ixodes tick

A

The white footed deer Moose is the main reservoir and preferred host of larval and nymphal Ticks

77
Q

What is the pathogenesis for lime

A

Borriello multiplies in the tick. Enters the host at the end of the tick bloodmeal when it regurgitates after 48 to 72 hours of attachment. Replication in the skin at the tick bite site is followed by interstitial tissue migration. Clinical signs appear to be due to immune complexes.

78
Q

When is a persistent carrier state most likely

A

In both healthy carriers or ill patients

79
Q

What are the clinical signs of Lyme disease

A

Asymptomatic for 95% of dogs. Can cause Lyme arthritis which is warm swollen painful joints with fever. Can also cause lime nephropathy dehydration secondary to renal failure, ascites or edema, aortic thromboembolism, renal detachment.

80
Q

How do you diagnose Lyme disease

A

Strap 40 X test. All seropositive dog should be screened for protein urea, radiographs of the legs.

81
Q

How do you treat Lyme disease

A

Not recommended for nonclinical nonproteinuric seropositive carrier dogs

82
Q

How do you prevent ticks

A

K9 Advantix, bravecto, revolution. Quick tick removal, controversial vaccination

83
Q

What’s the earliest you could vaccinate a dog with DHP P

A

Eight weeks

84
Q

What’s the earliest you can vaccinated dog with leptospirosis

A

12 weeks

85
Q

What’s the earliest you can vaccinate a dog with rabies

A

Three months.

86
Q

What’s the earliest you can vaccinated dog with Bordetella internasal

A

Eight weeks

87
Q

How do you prevent fibrosarcoma in cats

A

Less frequent vaccination, keep cat indoors, use safer adjuvants

88
Q

Which form of the leukemia vaccine is recommended

A

Non-adjuvanted vaccine

Microbiology And Immunology 2 (23 decks)

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