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Y2 MSK > Trauma > Flashcards

Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

when is an open reduction of a dislocation indicated

A

if soft tissue in way or late presentation

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2
Q

what is necessary following a closed joint reduction

A

assess neurovascular status and XR to confirm reduction

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3
Q

what are the common causes of joint replacements failing

A

loosening in high inflam/stress or pseduotumour

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4
Q

what is the infection risk in joint replacements

A

1-2%

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5
Q

what is the management of fulminant infection of a joint replacement diagnosed <3wk after surgery

A

washout & debride, 6wk IV ABx, salvage

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6
Q

what process is occurring in fulminant infections of joint replacements diagnosed >3wk after surgery

A

biofilm

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7
Q

what is the management of fulminant infection of a joint replacement diagnosed >3wk after surgery

A

no joint 6wk + ABx, revision;

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8
Q

what is a resection arthroplasty

A

bone/cartilage removal on 1/both joint sides

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9
Q

give an example of a resection arthroplasty and when its indicated

A

Keller’s procedure; hallux valgus

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10
Q

what is arthrodesis

A

artificial induction of joint ossification between 2 bones

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11
Q

give an example of an indication of osteotomy

A

redistributing load for knee OA in a young patient

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12
Q

what are the 3 grades of ligament rupture

A

1 sprain
2 partial tear
3 complete tear

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13
Q

what is the management of a sprain

A

RICE, early ROM

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14
Q

what cancers commonly metastasise to bone

A

lung, kidney, breast, prostate

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15
Q

give examples of surgeries which use primary bone healing

A

plate/screws

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16
Q

give examples of surgeries which use secondary bone healing

A

ex-fix

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17
Q

what is the management of intra-articular fractures and why

A

IM nail since > post traumatic OA risk

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18
Q

what is enthesopathy

A

tendon origin or the insertion into bone inflam

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19
Q

what is tenosynovitis

A

tendon sheath inflam

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20
Q

what is tendonitis

A

tendon inflam

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21
Q

what is tendinopathy

A

disease of a tendon

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22
Q

what is tendonosis

A

chronic tendon injury & tendon ECM damage

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23
Q

what is a sprain

A

some ligament/tendon fibres tear on rapid resisted contraction

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24
Q

what is the management of an achilles tear

A

conservative

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25
Q

what is the management of a patellar or quadriceps tendon tear

A

surgical repair

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26
Q

what is the management of a meniscal tear

A

arthroscopic removal if pain doesn’t settle or if locking/catching

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27
Q

what is the management of a rotator cuff tear

A

conservative

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28
Q

what is the management of a acetabulum/glenoid tear

A

resect or repair

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29
Q

what is the management of a biceps tendon tear

A

conservative

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30
Q

what is the management of a tibialis posterior tear

A

tendon transfer

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31
Q

what is the management of extensor pollicis longus tendon tear

A

tendon transfer

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32
Q

what technique can be used for limb length discrepancies

A

external fixation

33
Q

what drugs should be given for open fractures

A

anti-tetanus thing and prophylactic antibiotics

34
Q

what terms are used to describe the alignment of a fracture

A

displaced and angulated

35
Q

how do you describe displacement of a fracture

A

according to distal fragment

36
Q

what a tomogram

A

ct

37
Q

which suspected fractures require ct

A

vertebrae, pelvis, calcaneus, glenoid

38
Q

what suspected fractures require mri

A

hip and scaphoid

39
Q

what suspected fractures requires more than 2 xr views

A

cervical spine: AP, lateral, odontoid peg

scaphoid: AP, lateral, oblique X2

40
Q

what part of long bones can be a fracture mimic

A

physis

41
Q

management of diaphyseal fracture

A

immobilize above & below joint

42
Q

management of metaphyseal fracture

A

immobilize adjacent joint

43
Q

what kills you in the golden hour after major trauma

A

airway compromise, head/chest injury, organ rupture, blood loss

44
Q

what are the early local fracture complications

A

compartment synd, vascular injury, ischaemia, nerve injury, skin necrosis

45
Q

what are the early systemic fracture complications

A

hypovolaemia, fat embolism, ARDS, SIRS, MODS, acute renal failure, death

46
Q

what are the late local fracture complications

A

LOF, OA, nonunion, CRPS, AVN, Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture, malunion, infection, DVT

47
Q

what are the late systemic fracture complications

A

PE

48
Q

management of DVT

A

LMWH

49
Q

what age are avulsion fractures commonest

A

children

50
Q

what is an avulsion fracture

A

tendon/ligament rips off fragment

51
Q

what are avulsion fracture mimics

A

accessory ossification, completely corticated bone sesamoid, old non-united #

52
Q

what is a transverse fracture

A

horizontal through long bone

53
Q

injury mechanism causing spiral fractures

A

torsion/rotation

54
Q

management of spiral fracture

A

screw

55
Q

injury mechanism of oblique fractures

A

fall from height/deceleration

56
Q

management of oblique fracture

A

screw

57
Q

what is a comminuted fracture

A

3+ fragments

58
Q

what is the mechanism of comminuted fractures

A

high energy or poor bone

59
Q

risk in comminuted fractures

A

compartment synd

60
Q

management of comminuted fractures

A

IM nail

61
Q

what is a segmental fracture

A

2 separate fractures of one bone

62
Q

management of segmental fracture

A

stabilisation by long rod/plate

63
Q

what is an impaction fracture

A

fragment driven in another

64
Q

give 4 examples of bony rigns

A

spinal canal, pelvis, forearm, leg

65
Q

what is a greenstick fracture

A

incomplete # of children’s softer bone, opposite cortex ruptured

66
Q

what is the management of a greenstick fracture

A

POP

67
Q

what is a buckle fracture

A

bend of child’s soft bone, opposite cortex intact

68
Q

what is the management of a buckle fracture

A

3wk splint

69
Q

what is another name for a buckle fracture

A

torus fracture

70
Q

what bone are buckle fractures often of

A

radius

71
Q

what is a salter harris fracture and what age do they occur

A

epiphyseal growth plate, children

72
Q

what is a type I salter harris fracture

A

complete physeal #+- displacement

73
Q

what is a type II salter harris fracture

A

physeal# though metaphysis, producing metaphysis chip

74
Q

what is a type III salter harris fracture

A

physeal# though epiphysis

75
Q

what is a type IV salter harris fracture

A

physeal+ epiphyseal+ metaphyseal

76
Q

what is a type V salter harris fracture

A

growth plate compression#

77
Q

what is the commonest salter harris fracture

A

II

78
Q

which salter harris fractures are intra-articular

A

III and IV

Y2 MSK (20 decks)

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