The disturbed pt Flashcards

1
Q

Example of organic mental DO

acute organic brain syndrome ______
chronic organic brain syndrome _____

A

(delirium)

dementia

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2
Q

Psychoactive and substance use disorders
1
2
3

A
  • toxic states
  • drug dependency
  • withdrawal states
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3
Q

_____ affects 15% of people over 65 and can mimic or complicate any other illness, including delirium and dementia.

A

Depression

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4
Q

The diagnosis of dementia can be overlooked: a Scottish study showed that _____of demented patients were not diagnosed by their GP

A

80%

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5
Q

The key feature of dementia is

A

impaired memory

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6
Q
Hallucination guidelines:
—\_\_\_\_\_\_ psychoses e.g. schizophrenia
— \_\_\_\_\_: almost always organic disorder
— \_\_\_\_\_ temporal lobe epilepsy
— \_\_\_\_\_ cocaine abuse, alcohol withdrawal
A

Auditory:
Visual
Olfactory:
Tactile:

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7
Q

A term used for both senile and presenile dementia, which has characteristic pathological degenerative changes in
the brain.

A

AD

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8
Q

The mental functions of perception, thinking

and memory. It is the process of ‘knowing’.

A

cognition

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9
Q

Repeated, stereotyped and seemingly
purposeful actions that the person feels compelled to carry out but resists, realising they are irrational (most are associated with obsessions).

A

Compulsion

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10
Q

Disorientation in time, place and person. It

may be accompanied by a disturbed conscious state

A

Confusion

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11
Q

The process by which thoughts or

experiences unacceptable to the mind are repressed and converted into physical symptoms.

A

Conversion

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12
Q

also termed ‘toxic confusional state’)

A relatively acute disorder in which impaired
consciousness is associated with abnormalities of perception or mood

A

Delirium

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13
Q

Abnormal, illogical or false beliefs that are
held with absolute conviction despite evidence to the
contrary.

A

Delusions

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14
Q

An acquired, chronic and gradually

progressive deterioration of memory, intellect and personality.

A

Dementia

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15
Q

______ or early onset dementia is dementia under 65 years of age.

______refers to older patients (usually over 80 years

A

Presenile dementia

Senile dementia

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16
Q

A psychological disorder in which

unpleasant memories or emotions are split off from consciousness and the personality and buried into the unconsciousness

A

Dissociation

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17
Q

An alteration in the awareness of

the self—the person feels unreal.

A

Depersonalisation

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18
Q

Disorders of perception quite divorced

from reality

A

Hallucinations

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19
Q

False interpretations of sensory stimuli such

as mistaking people or familiar things.

A

Illusion

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20
Q

Recurrent or persistent thoughts, images

or impulses that enter the mind despite efforts to exclude them

A

Obsessions

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21
Q

The conversion of mental experiences

or states into bodily symptoms, with no physical causation.

A

Somatisation

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22
Q

The sudden onset of delirium may suggest
1
2
3

A

angina, myocardial infarction or a cerebrovascular accident

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23
Q

In the elderly in particular, fluid and electrolyte
disturbances, such as dehydration, ___________, can cause
delirium

A

hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia and hypocalcaemia

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24
Q

Sedation:

Avoid intramuscular ____ because of poor absorption.

A

diazepam

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25
Q

Be cautious of intravenous _____

(Hypnovel) in such patients because of the risk of respiratory depression

A

midazolam

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26
Q

Avoid benzodiazepines in patients with
respiratory insufficiency. ______ is an
alternative

A

Haloperidol

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27
Q

Adverse effects of sedatives:

• respiratory depression
• hypotension
________
_______

A
  • dystonic reactions, including choking

* neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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28
Q

Benzodiazepines are generally the drugs of first choice over antipsychotics in _______

A

tranquillisation

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29
Q

Oral BZD sedatives:

A

Oral medication

diazepam 5–20 mg (o), repeated every 2–6 hours (max: 120 mg/24 hours)
or
lorazepam 1–2 mg (o), repeated every 2–6 hours (max: 10 mg/24 hours

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30
Q

If sedation is not achieved with DZP and Loraz, add an antipsychotic medication e.g.

A

olanzapine 5–10 mg initially or

risperidone 0.5–1 mg initially

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31
Q

______is similar to

haloperidol but more sedating

A

Droperidol

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32
Q

SE with Droperidol

A

potentially fatal laryngeal dystonia with high

doses

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33
Q

How to manage acute dystonia with Droperidol

A

benztropine 2 mg IM.)

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34
Q

Diagnosis of delirium requires evidence of:
A________

B________

C A change in cognition:
• perceptual disturbance
• incoherent speech
• disorientation
• memory impairment/deficit

D A & C not better explained by another disorder

E Evidence of a cause

A

A Disturbance of consciousness, attention and
awareness
B Clinical features appearing over a short period

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35
Q

Delirium cause

Features include hyperactivity, marked thought disorder, vivid visual
hallucinations and very disturbed behaviour

A

Anticholinergic delirium

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36
Q

Consider alcohol withdrawal and give a trial of_______when the cause of delirium is unknown

A

thiamine

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37
Q

Delirium Mx:

For psychotic behaviour

1

2

A

haloperidol 0.5 mg (o) as a single dose
or
olanzapine 2.5–10 mg (o) daily in 1 or 2 doses

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38
Q

Delirium Mx:

If oral administration is not possible or when
parenteral medication is required (cover with
benztropine 2 mg (o) or IM):

A

haloperidol 0.5 mg IM as single dose
or
olanzapine 2.5 mg IM as single dose

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39
Q

Delirium Mx:

For anticholinergic delirium:

A

tacrine hydrochloride 15–30 mg with caution by

slow IV injection (an antidote

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40
Q

______ is the presence of the mental state where appreciation of reality is impaired as evidenced by the presence of typical psychotic symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, mood disturbance and
bizarre behaviour

A

Acute psychosis

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41
Q

DSM for Schiz

Two or more of following, each present for a
significant portion of time during a one-month period
1
2
3
4
5

A
1 delusions
2 hallucinations
3 disorganised speech
4 grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviour
5 negative symptoms e.g. flat effect
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42
Q

refers to a group of severe psychiatric illnesses characterised by severe disturbances of emotion, language, perception, thought processes, volition and motor activity

A

Schizophrenia

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43
Q

Positive Sx of Schiz

A

— delusions
— hallucinations
— thought disorder
— disorganised speech and behaviour

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44
Q

Negtaive Sx of Schiz

A
— flat affect
— poverty of thought
— lack of motivation
— social withdrawal
— reduced speech output
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45
Q

Cognitive Sx of Schiz

A

— distractibility
— impaired working memory
— impaired executive function (e.g. planning)
— impaired insight

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46
Q

Mood DO of Schiz

A

— mania (elevation)

— depression

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47
Q

Drugs associated with Schiz

A
  • amphetamines
  • hallucinogens (e.g. LSD)
  • marijuana
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48
Q

How to start of antipsychotic in Schiz

A

Start with a low dose and titrate upwards at a rate and to a level that is optimal for the
patient. Patients with a first psychotic episode may respond to lower than usual doses.

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49
Q
First line of anti psychotics
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
A
amisulpride 100 mg nocte
asenapine 5 mg sublingual bd
aripiprazole 10 mg once daily
olanzapine 5 mg nocte
paliperidone 3 mg once daily
quetiapine 50 mg bd → 200 mg bd (by day 5)
risperidone 0.5–1 mg nocte → 2 mg nocte
sertindole 4 mg (o) once daily
ziprasidone 40 mg bd → 80 mg bd
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50
Q

Options If no response after 4–6 weeks

A

• an alternative second-generation agent
or
• a first-generation antipsychotic such as:

chlorpromazine 200 mg once daily → 500 mg

haloperidol 1.5 mg once daily → 7.5 mg
trifluoperazine 2 mg bd

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51
Q

What parenteral medication to be given in acute care?

A

haloperidol 2.5–10 mg IM, initially, up to
20 mg in 24 hours, depending on the response

or

olanzapine 5–10 mg IM initially (do not use
with benzodiapines concurrently)

52
Q

_______ is not recommended for
long-term use because of photosensitivity
reactions

A

Chlorpromazine

53
Q

Schiz Tx

Use ______ preparations if compliance is a
problem

A

depot

54
Q

Schiz Tx

________ may help the agitated patient, especially if catatonic.

A

ECT

55
Q

Movement disorders from antipsychotic
medication

  • Usually bizarre muscle spasms affect face, neck, tongue and trunk
  • Oculogyric crises, opisthotonos and laryngeal spasm

What movement DO

A

Acute dystonias

56
Q

Tx of acute dystonia

A

benztropine 1–2 mg IV or IM

57
Q

Movement disorders from antipsychotic
medication

  • Subjective motor restlessness of feet and legs
  • Generally later onset in course of treatment
A

Akathisia

58
Q

MX of Akathisia

A

can use oral propranolol, diazepam or

benztropine as a short-term measure

59
Q

_______is a syndrome of abnormal

involuntary movements of the face, mouth, tongue, trunk and limbs

A

Tardive dyskinesia

60
Q

Antipsychotics Tx

high temperature, muscle rigidity,
altered consciousness.

A

Neuroleptic (antipsychotic) malignant

syndrome

61
Q

Management of NMS

A

bromocriptine 2.5 mg (o) bd, gradually increasing to 5 mg (o) tds
and
dantrolene 50 mg IV every 12 hours for up to
7 doses

62
Q

Various psychotrophic agents, particularly the
________ are prone to cause the adverse effect of prolongation of the QT interval with potential
severe outcomes

A

phenothiazines,

63
Q

__________– disorder has one fully fledged manic or

mixed episode and usually depressive episodes.

A

Bipolar I

64
Q

_________-disorder is defined as a major depressive
episode with at least one hypomanic episode but no
classic manic episodes

A

Bipolar II

65
Q

T or F

The symptoms of mania may appear abruptly.

A

T

66
Q

Ineherent features of mania

A
• reckless behaviour, overspending
• hasty decisions (e.g. job resignation, hasty marriages)
• impaired judgment
• increased sexual drive and activity
• poor insight into the problem
• variable psychotic symptoms—paranoia,
delusions, auditory hallucinations
67
Q

____________-is the term used to describe the
symptoms of mania that are similar to but less severe
(without criterion C) and of shorter duration

A

‘Hypomania’

68
Q

Management of acute mania

A

This is a medical emergency requiring hospitalisation
for protection of both family and patient.
Involuntary admission is usually necessary

69
Q

MX of acute mania

Most effective?

A

A recent metaanalysis
indicates that antipsychotics are the most
efficacious drugs.

70
Q

First line of drugs for acute mania

A

First line:
olanzapine 5 mg (o) nocte initially
or
risperidone 0.5–1 mg (o) nocte initially

71
Q

2nd line of drugs for acute mania

A

haloperidol or other first-generation
antipsychotic
or
lithium carbonate 750–1000 mg (o) daily in 2 or 3
divided doses increasing according to serum levels
or
sodium valproate 200–400 mg (o) bd initially
or
carbamazepine 100–200 mg (o) bd initially

72
Q

Failure to respond to treatment

• combine drugs e.g. second-degree
antipsychotic + lithium
• _________ is of proven benefit for recalcitrant patients

A

ECT

73
Q

When to start prophylaxis for recurrent BPD

A

consider medication if two or more episodes of either

mania or depression in the previous 4 years

74
Q

Recurrrence rate of BPD

A

90%

75
Q

Recommended prophylactic agents for BPD

A
lithium 125–500 mg (o) bd then adjusted
or
second-generation antipsychotic agent
or (if depression prominent)
lamotrigine or carbamazine or sodium valproate
76
Q

A US study recommended ______- as the

prime mood stabiliser

A

lithium

77
Q

SE of Lithium

A

— a fine tremor
— muscle weakness
— weight gain
— gastrointestinal symptoms

78
Q

Mx of BPD Depression

A

lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, quetiapine,
lamotrigine or olanzapine
plus
an antidepressant (e.g. SSRI, SNRI or MAOI

79
Q

Antidepressants are usually withdrawn within 1–2

months because of a propensity to precipitate ______–

A

mania.

80
Q

_______patients usually recover but proceed to

have further episodes of depression or mania

A

Bipolar I

81
Q

________-is characterised by a
preoccupation with the belief that some aspect
of physical appearance is abnormal, unattractive
or diseased

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

82
Q

How to Mx body dysmorphic DO

A

Patients may be helped by counselling and

psychotherapy including CBT

83
Q

depression can be confused with dementia

or a psychosis, particularly if the following are present

A
  • psychomotor agitation
  • psychomotor retardation
  • delusions
  • hallucinations
84
Q

Questions to ask in assessment of depression

A
Is it primary?
Is it part of BPD?
IS it secondary to an illness?
is pt psychotic?
is pt at risk for suicide?
85
Q

Barbiturate withdrawal is a very serious,
life-threatening problem and may be encountered
in elderly people undergoing longstanding____

A

hypnotic

withdrawal.

86
Q

Sx of Barbiturate dependence

A

Symptoms include anxiety, tremor,

extreme irritability, twitching, seizures and delirium.

87
Q

Withdrawal Sx for BZD dependence

A

include anxiety, restlessness, irritability, palpitation
and muscle aches and pains, but delirium and
seizures are uncommon except with very high
doses.

88
Q

What is the dx

Clinical features:
• short attention span
• distractibility
• overactivity
• impulsiveness
• antisocial behaviour
A

ADHD

89
Q
Mania is seldom diagnosed before puberty.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_may present (uncommonly) with
symptoms of mania or hypomania.
A

Adolescents

90
Q

Schiz in children

A

Schizophrenia is rare before puberty. The criteria for
diagnosis are similar to adults:
• delusion
• thought disorder
• hallucinations
• 6 months or more of deterioration in functioning

91
Q

Aggression and irritability can be a feature, especially

during adolescence

A

Autism

92
Q

______ has been defined as a ‘propensity to
cause serious physical injury or lasting psychological
harm to others’ and, in the context of the mentally
abnormal, ‘the relative probability of their committing
a violent crime

A

Dangerousness

93
Q
RF fo violent conduct
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
A
  1. Schizophrenic psychoses
  2. Morbid jealousy
  3. Antisocial personality disorder
  4. Mood disorder:
  5. Episodic discontrol syndrome
  6. Intellectual disability combined with personality
    disorder and behavioural disturbances
  7. Alcohol abuse or dependency
  8. Amphetamine or benzodiazepine abuse
94
Q

In Australia suicide is the second most common
cause of death between the ages of _________–. Children as young as 5 years of age have
committed suicide.

A

11 and 25 years

95
Q

RF for suicide

1 Psychiatric disorders:
a
b
c

2 Personality traits:
• impulsiveness and aggression

A

• affective disorder and alcohol abuse in adults
• schizophrenia
• depression and conduct disorder in young
people

96
Q

RF for suicide

Environmental and psychosocial factors:
a
b
c

A
  • poor social supports
  • chronic medical illness (e.g. AIDS)
  • significant loss
97
Q

RF for suicide

4 Family history and genetics (both nature and
nurture):
a
b

5 Biological factors:
a

A
  • emulation of relatives
  • specific ethnic groups in custody

• possible serotonin deficiency

98
Q

_________ is attempted suicide; in many cases

patients are drawing attention to themselves as a ‘plea for help

A

Parasuicide

99
Q

In practice the personality disorders of most
concern are those that present with __________, either verbal or physical, particularly if a suicide or homicide threat is involved

A

hostility

100
Q

Characterisitics of personality DO

A

• lack of confidence and low self-esteem
• long history from childhood
• difficulties with interpersonal relationships and
society
• recurrent maladaptive behaviour
• relatively fixed, inflexible and stylised reaction to
stress

101
Q

Main cluster of personality DO
1
2
3

A
  1. Withdrawn
  2. Antisocial
  3. Dependent
102
Q

Withdrawn Personality DO subtypes

A

Paranoid
Schizoid
Schizotypal

103
Q

Antisocial personality DO subtype

A

psychopathic)
Histrionic (hysterical)
Narcissistic (‘prima donna’)
Borderline (‘hell-raiser

104
Q

Dependent personality DO subtype

A

Avoidant (anxious)
Dependent
Obsessional (obsessive–
compulsive)

105
Q

Suspicious, oversensitive, argumentative, defensive,

hyperalert, cold and humourless

A

Paranoid

106
Q

Shy, emotionally cold, introverted, detached, avoids close relationships

A

Schizoid

107
Q

Odd and eccentric, sensitive, suspicious and
superstitious, socially isolated, odd speech, thinking and
behaviour. Falls short of criteria for schizophrenia

A

Schizotypal

108
Q

Impulsive, insensitive, selfish, callous, superficial charm,
lack of guilt, low frustration level, doesn’t learn from
experience, relationship problems (e.g. promiscuous),
reckless disregard for safety of self and others

A

Antisocial (sociopathic,

psychopathic)

109
Q

Self-dramatic, egocentric, immature, vain, dependent,
manipulative, easily bored, emotional scenes,
inconsiderate, seductive, craves attention and excitement

A

Histrionic (hysterical)

110
Q

Morbid self-admiration, exhibitionist, insensitive, craves
and demands attention, exploits others, preoccupied
with power, lacks interest in and empathy with others,
bullying, insightless

A

Narcissistic (‘prima donna’)

111
Q

Confused self-image/identity, impulsive, reckless,
emptiness, ‘all or nothing’ relationships—unstable and
intense, damaging reckless behaviour, full of anger and
guilt, lacks self-control, uncontrolled gambling,
spending etc

A

Borderline (‘hell-raiser’)

112
Q

Anxious, self-conscious, fears rejection, timid and cautious,
low self-esteem, overreacts to rejection and failure

A

Avoidant (anxious)

113
Q

Passive, weak willed, lacks vigour, lacks self-reliance and
confidence, overaccepting, avoids responsibility, seeks
support

A

Dependent

114
Q

Rigid, perfectionist, pedantic, indecisive, egocentric,

preoccupied with orderliness and control

A

Obsessional (obsessive–

compulsive

115
Q

Procrastinates, childishly stubborn, dawdles, sulks,
argumentative, clings, deliberately inefficient and
hypercritical of authority figures

A

Passive–aggressive

116
Q

Health-conscious, disease fearing, symptom

preoccupation

A

Hypochondrial

117
Q

Pessimistic, anergic, low self-esteem, gloomy, chronic

mild depression

A

Depressive (dysthymic,

cyclothymic

118
Q

The medical/psychiatric significance of personality DO

A

• maladaptive relationships with GPs and society
• problem of sexually dysfunctional lives
• risk of substance abuse and self-destructive
behaviour
• prone to depression and anxiety (usually low
grade)
• susceptible to ‘breakdown’ under stress

119
Q

__________ is the result of a genetic template and
the continuing interaction of the person with outside
influences (peer pressures, family interactions,
influential events) and personal drives in seeking an
identity

A

Personality

120
Q

________-tend to come to the attention
of GPs more frequently, with some individuals
representing ‘heart-sink’ patients because of
demanding, angry or aggressive behaviour.

A

The antisocial personality disorders (ASPD) group

1–2% of population

121
Q

The
____________are typically withdrawn, suspicious
and socially isolated but fall short of a true psychotic
syndrome

A

withdrawn group

122
Q

Problem with the withdrawn group

A

GPs have problems communicating with

them because they are often suspicious

123
Q

In the ___________, which
may overlap with an anxiety state, the main features
are nervousness, timidity, emotional dependence
and fear of criticism and rejection

A

dependent and inhibited groups

124
Q

They are frequent
attenders (the ‘fat file’ syndrome) and are often
accompanied by friends and relatives because of their
insecurity.

A

dependent and inhibited groups

125
Q

The _____- and _______-disorders
in particular respond well to specific types of
psychotherapeutic intervention

A

borderline and narcissistic

126
Q

The mood disorders are divided into ____ and_____

A

depressive

disorders and bipolar disorders