Genetic conditions Flashcards

1
Q

________, meaning ‘on top of’ traditional
genetic inheritance, is a study of changes in
genetic expression or cellular phenotype caused
by mechanisms other than changes in the DNA
sequence

A

Epigenetics

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2
Q

All people carry a small number of ______genes,

which are carried asymptomatically

A

recessive

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3
Q

The background risk that any couple will bear a
child with a birth defect is about _______. This risk is
doubled for a__________) couple

A

4%

first-cousin (consanguineous

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4
Q

Although the majority of cancers are not inherited,
some people carry inherited genetic mutations
for certain cancers, notably _____, ________, ______l and others on a lesser scale,
such as prostate cancer and melanoma

A

breast and ovarian

(linked), colorectal

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5
Q

A GP caring for 1000 patients would expect to
have _____patients with a hereditary cancer
predisposition

A

15–17

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6
Q

Carrier screening is now widely used for

________, ________ and _____

A

thalassaemia, Tay–Sachs disorder and cystic fibrosis

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7
Q

Prenatal screening and testing for genetic disorders

is also a reality, especially for _______

A

Down syndrome,

fetal abnormalities and the haemoglobinopathies

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8
Q

_______ and ________ are the future
hope for targeted treatments based on a person’s
genetic profile

A

Pharmacogenetics and gene therapy

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9
Q

The _______ is a valuable pedigree chart that
usually covers at least three generations of a
family tree

A

genogram

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10
Q

__________ which is a
disorder of iron overload, is the most common serious
single gene genetic disorder in our population.

A

Hereditary haemochromatosis (HHC),

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11
Q

Iron load in pts with HHC

A

It is a common condition in which the total
body iron concentration is increased to 20–60 g
(normal 4 g).

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12
Q

The excess iron is deposited in and can
damage several organs:

  • liver: ________
  • pancreas:__________
  • skin: ________
A

—cirrhosis (10% develop cancer)

—‘bronze’ diabetes

—bronze or leaden grey colour

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13
Q

The excess iron is deposited in and can
damage several organs:

  • heart_________
  • pituitary: _________
  • joints—___________
A

—restrictive cardiomyopathy

—hypogonadism, impotence

arthralgia (especially hands),
chondrocalcinosis

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14
Q

Etiology of HHC

A

It is usually hereditary (autosomal recessive = AR)
or may be secondary to chronic haemolysis and
multiple transfusions

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15
Q

Hereditary haemochromatosis is the genetic

condition; ______ is the secondary condition

A

haemosiderosis

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16
Q

Genetic mutations for HHC

A

The two common identified specific mutations in

the HFE gene are C282Y and H63D

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17
Q

Genetic mutation high risk for HHC:

A

homozygous C282Y

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18
Q

Genetic mutation unlikely to develop clinical

HHC

A

homozygous H63D

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19
Q

Genetic mutation milder form of HHC

A

heterozygous C282Y and H63D

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20
Q

Serum markers for HHC

A

The key diagnostic sensitive markers are serum

transferrin saturation and the serum ferritin level

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21
Q

T or F, Serum Fe is a good indicator for HHC

A

F

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22
Q

An
elevated ferritin level is not diagnostic of HHC but is
the best serum marker of_____

A

iron overload.

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23
Q

Ssx of HHC:

A

May have extreme lethargy, signs of chronic
liver disease, polyuria and polydipsia, arthralgia,
erectile dysfunction, loss of libido and joint signs

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24
Q

Signs for HHC

look for hepatomegaly, _____, ______, ______, _______

A

very tanned skin,

cardiac arrhythmias, joint swelling, testicular atrophy

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25
Q

Dx of HHC;

  • Increased serum _____saturation >45%
  • Increased serum ______ level
A

transferrin

ferritin

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26
Q

Dx of HHC;

• CT or MRI—increased iron deposition in liver

• Liver biopsy (if liver function test enzymes
are abnormal or ferritin________ or
hepatomegaly). MRI may take over from biopsy
to evaluate liver status

A

> 1000 mcg/L

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27
Q

Dx of HHC

Genetic studies: HFE gene—a ______ and _____ mutation

A

C282Y and/or

H63D

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28
Q

Dx of HHC

Full blood count (FBE) and erythrocyte
sedimentation rate are_______

A

Normal

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29
Q

Mx of HHC

Weekly venesection 500 mL (250 mg iron) until
serum iron stores are normal (may take at least
2 years), then every 3–4 months to keep serum
ferritin leve______ (usually 40–80 mcg/L),
serum transferrin saturation_______, and iron
levels norm

A

l <100 mcg/L

<50%

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30
Q

Mx of HHC

_________ can be used but not as effective
as venesection

A

Desferrioxamine

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31
Q

The________, the most common human singlegene
disorders in the world, are a group of hereditary
disorders characterised by a defect in the synthesis
of one or more of the globin chains ( α or β

A

thalassaemias

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32
Q

What kind of anemia do pts with thalassemia have?

A

hypochromic

microcytic anaemia. α

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33
Q

______ -thalassaemia is usually seen in
people of Asian origin while______thalassaemia is seen
in certain ethnic groups from the Mediterranean,
the Middle East, South-East Asia and the Indian

A

α

β -

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34
Q

degree of alpha thalassemia:

deletion of all four genes: ________
of three genes—________, which results
in lifelong anaemia of mild-to-moderate degree;

of one or two genes—_______

A

α -thalassaemia (hydrops fetalis);

haemoglobin H disease

a symptomless carrier

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35
Q

degree of beta thalassemia

People who have two mutations (one in each β -globin
gene) have ________

• β _______—a single mutation

(heterozygous)—the carrier or trait state

_________—two mutations
(homozygous)—the person who has the disorder

A

β -thalassaemia major

-thalassaemia minor

• β -thalassaemia major

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36
Q

Patients with
thalassaemia major present with symptoms of severe
anaemia______

A

(haemolytic anaemia).

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37
Q

Without treatment,
children with thalassaemia major are lethargic and
inactive, show a ________, ________, _______, _______

A

failure to thrive or to grow normally,
and delayed puberty, hepatosplenomegaly and
jaundice.

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38
Q

Thalassemia

FBE: in most carriers the mean corpuscular
haemoglobin/mean corpuscular volume is
_________

A

low but can be normal

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39
Q

Thalassemia

__________ measures relative
amounts of normal adult haemoglobin (HbA) and
other variants (e.g. HbA 2 , HbF). This will detect
most carriers

A

Haemoglobin electrophoresis:

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40
Q

Thalassemia:

_________helps distinguish from iron
deficiency, which has a similar blood film

A

Serum ferritin level:

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41
Q

Thalassemia:

________ for mutation detection (mainly
used to detect or confirm carriers).

A

DNA analysis:

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42
Q

Thalassemia:

Treatment is based on a regular blood transfusion
schedule for anaemia. Avoid ______

A

iron supplements

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43
Q

Thalassemia:

_________ and a low-iron diet are
advisable

A

Folate supplementation

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44
Q

Thalassemia:

Excess iron is removed by _______
(e.g. desferrioxamine). ________has been used with success.

_______ may be appropriate

A

iron chelation

Allogenic bone marrow transplantation

Splenectomy

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45
Q

_______ is the result of a defect in an ion channel
protein, the transmembrane receptorfound in the membranes of cells lining the
exocrine ducts

A

Cystic fibrosis

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46
Q

CF

The defect affects the normal transport
of ________ ions, leading to a decreased sodium and
water transfer, thus causing viscid secretions that
affect the lungs, pancreas and gut

A

chloride

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47
Q

CF:

A mutation ( δ -F508) of\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the
most common of some 500 possible mutations
of the gene. This deletes a single \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_from a 1480-aminoacid chain.
A

chromosome 7

phenylalanine
residue

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48
Q

CF

Gastrointestinal: malabsorption, pale loose bulky
stools, jaundice (__________),
__________ (10% of newborn babies)
• Infertility in males ________
• Pancreatic insufficiency
• Early mortality but improving survival rates
_______

A

pancreatic effect)

meconium ileus

(atrophy of vas deferens)

(mean age now 31 years)

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49
Q

CF DX

• Screening for immunoreactive _________ in
newborns detects 75%
• Sweat test for elevated ______ and _____ levels
• DNA testing for carriers identifies only the most
common mutations (70–75%)

A

trypsin

chloride and sodium

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50
Q

There is currently no cure for cystic fibrosis;

treatment is based on correcting the_______ and minimising ________

A

nutritional deficiencies

chest infections

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51
Q
  • NF1—______

* NF2—________

A

peripheral neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen disorder)

central type, bilateral acoustic neuromas
schwannomas) (rare

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52
Q

The gene for NF1 is carried on chromosome _____

and NF2 on chromosome ______

A

17

22.

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53
Q

General rule for NF

• One-third _____ only have skin stigmata
• One-third _______ mainly cosmetic
• One-third significant problems (e.g. neurological
tumours)

A

asymptomatic,

minor problems,

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54
Q

_______ is a progressive proximal muscle weakness disorder

with replacement of muscle by connective tissue.

A

DMD

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55
Q

_______is a less severe variant of DMD

A

Becker

muscular dystrophy

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56
Q

DMD is an X-linked recessive condition.

It is caused by a mutation in the gene coding for ________, a protein found inside the muscle cell membrane.

A

dystrophin

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57
Q

SSx of pts with dmd

• Usually diagnosed from_______ years
• Weakness in hip and shoulder girdles
• Walking problems: delayed onset or starting in
boys aged _________
• Waddling gait, falls, difficulty standing and
climbing stairs
_________of muscles, especially calves

A

2–5

3–7

• Pseudohypertrophy

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58
Q

SSx of pts with dmd

• Most in wheelchair by age ______
• ± Intellectual retardation
• Most die of _________ by age 25
___________: patient uses ‘trick’ method by using
hands to climb up his or her legs when rising to
an erect position from the floor

A

10–12

respiratory problems

• Gowers sign

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59
Q

dx of dmd

  • Elevated _______ level
  • Electromyography
  • Direct _______ gene testing
  • Muscle biops
A

serum creatinine kinase

dystrophin

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60
Q

Dx

Typically presents 20–30 years as myotonia
(tonic muscle spasm)
• Muscle weakness esp. hands, legs, face, neck
• Slow relaxation of hand grip
• ‘Hatchet face’—long haggard look with atrophy
of facial muscles

A

MD

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61
Q

• Inherited as an AD disorder.
• The responsible mutant gene has been located on
the short arm of chromosome 4.

A

Huntington disease

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62
Q

________ is another psychological disorder
that has a hereditary basis through an autosomal
dominant gene with variable expression (penetrance

A

Tourette syndrome

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63
Q

Other inherited conditions that can cause
haemolytic anaemia are those with a red cell membrane
defect and include ______,_________,_________

A

hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary

elliptocytosis and hereditary stomatocytosis.

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64
Q

Sickle cell disorders: The most important abnormality in the haemoglobin (Hb) chain is sickle cell haemoglobin (HbS), which results from a single base mutation of adenine to thymine leading to a substitution of valine for
glutamine at __________

A

position 6 on the β -globin chain

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65
Q

This varies from being mild or asymptomatic to a
severe haemolytic anaemia and recurrent painful
crises. It may present in children with anaemia and
mild jaundice

A

Sickle cell anemia

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66
Q

What is this phenomenon?

• bone pain (usually limb bones)
• abdominal pain
• chest—pleuritic pain
• kidney—haematuria
• spleen—painful infarcts
• precipitated by cold, hypoxia, dehydration or
infection
A

Sickle cell crisis

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67
Q

________is needed to confirm the

diagnosis of sickle cell crisis

A

Hb electrophoresis

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68
Q

Sickle cell crisis

Long-term problems include

A

chronic leg ulcers,
susceptibility to infection, aseptic necrosis of bone
(especially head of femur), blindness and chronic
kidney disease.

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69
Q

People with this usually have no symptoms unless
they are exposed to prolonged hypoxia, such as
anaesthesia and flying in non-pressurised aircraft.

A

sickle cell trait

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70
Q

sickle cell trait

The disorder is protective against ____

A

malaria.

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71
Q

This is the commonest cause of inherited haemolytic
anaemia in northern Europeans. It is an autosomal
dominant disorder of variable severity, although in
25% of patients neither parent is affected,

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

72
Q

The
common significant bleeding disorders are:

• haemophilia A (_______deficiency)—X-linked
recessive
• haemophilia B (_______ deficiency)—X-linked
recessive
• ____________ (deficiency of factor
VIII:C + defective platelet factor)—autosomal
dominant
Others to consider are:

  • hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia _______
  • inherited thrombocytopen
A

factor VIII

factor IX

von Willebrand disease

(Osler–
Weber–Rendu disease)

73
Q

This should be considered in patients with a past and/

or family history of DVT or other thrombotic episodes

A

Thrombophilia

74
Q

Examples of inherited thrombophilia

A
• factor V Leiden gene mutation (activated protein
C resistance)
• prothrombin gene mutation
• protein C deficiency
• protein S deficiency
• antithrombin deficiency
75
Q

In _______the most common factor in this
group, there is a 35-fold increased risk of thrombosis
for those taking the OCP.

A

factor V Leiden,

76
Q

In DS

95% have extra chromosome of ______ origin
trisomy 21

A

maternal

77
Q

Mech of mutation in DS

A

Remainder due to either unbalances,

translocations or mosaicism

78
Q

Dx tests for DS

Prenatal screening tests include early ______and maternal serum screening in first trimester________

A

ultrasound (nuchal lucency)

(serum maternal and
fetal DNA)

79
Q

In DS,

__________sampling on amniocytes for pregnancies at risk
is available.

A

Karyotyping of chorionic villus

80
Q

Associated DO in DS

A
• Seizures (usually later onset)
• Impaired hearing
• Leukaemia
• Hypothyroidism
• Congenital anomalies (e.g. heart, duodenal
atresia, Hirschsprung, TOF)
• Alzheimer-like dementia (fourth–fifth decade)
• Atlantoaxial instability
• Coeliac disease
• Diabetes
81
Q

Whats the Dx

These include:
• incidence 1 in 2000 live births (approx.)
• microcephaly
• facial abnormalities e.g. cleft lip/palate
• malformations of major organs
• malformations of hands and feet—clenched hand
posture
• neural tube defect

A

Edward/Trisomy 18

82
Q

About Trisomy 18

Prognosis is poor—about one-third die in first
month,_____________– live beyond 12 months

A

<10% live beyond 12 months

83
Q
Clinical features
These include:
• incidence 1 in 7000 (approx.)
• microcephaly
• brain and heart malformation
• cleft lip/palate
• polydactyly
• neural tube defec
A

Patau/Trisomy 13

84
Q

Patau/Trisomy 13 progonis

A

Prognosis is poor—50% die within first month.

85
Q

presents as a classic physical phenotype with
large prominent ears, long narrow face, macroorchidism
and intellectual disability. It is the most
common inherited cause known of developmental
disability and should always be considered.

A

Fragile X syndrome (FXS) 14

86
Q

What is the cause of FXS

A

The cause
is the result of an increase in the size of a trinucleotide
repeat in the FMR-I gene on the X chromosome
(the number of sequences determines carrier or
full mutant status).

87
Q

Any individual with significant

_____________–should be tested for FXS.

A

development delay

88
Q

FXS

  • Up to 1 in 300 females may be _________
  • Family history of __________
  • Affects all ethnic groups
  • __________may appear normal but may be affected
A

carriers

intellectual disability

Females

89
Q

Dx of FXS

A

• Cytogenetic testing (karyotyping)
• DNA test (specific for full mutation as well as
carriers)

90
Q

Associated DO with FXS

A
• Intellectual disability (IQ <70)
• Autism or autistic-like behaviour
• Attention deficit in 10% (with or without
hyperactivity)
• Seizures (20%)
• Connective tissue abnormalities
• Learning disability and speech delay
• Coordination difficulty
91
Q

This uncommon disorder (1 in 10 000 to 15 000)
has classic features, especially a bizarre appetite and
eating habits, of which the GP should be aware. It is
probable that there are many undiagnosed cases in
the communit

A

Prader Willi

92
Q

Chromosomal abn with PWS

A

Chrom 5

93
Q

PWS

Hypotonic infants with weak suction and failure
to thrive, then voracious appetite causing _________

A

morbid

obesity

94
Q

(idiopathic hypercalcaemia or

elfin face syndrome

A

Williams

95
Q

Chrom abn in Williams

A

7

96
Q

Triad of Williams

A

elfin ’ face + intellectual disability +

aortic stenosis

97
Q

This is a systemic connective tissue disorder
characterised by abnormalities of the skeletal,
cardiovascular and ocular systems. It has variable
expressions and is a potentially lethal disorder. If
untreated, death in the 30s and 40s is common

A

Marfan syndrome

98
Q

Triad of Marfans

A

tall stature + dislocated lens and

myopia + aortic root dilatation

99
Q

Genetic profile of Marfans

  • Mutations in the ___________on chromosome 15
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Prevalence about ________
  • No specific laboratory test to date
A

fibrillin gene

5 per 100 000

100
Q

Signs of Marfan

• Disproportionally tall and thin
• Long digits—\_\_\_\_\_\_
• Kyphoscoliosis
• Joint laxity (e.g.\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
• Myopia and ectopic ocular lens
• High arched palate
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

_______

A

arachnodactyly

genu recurvatum)

  • Aortic dilatation and dissection
  • Mitral valve prolapse
101
Q

This is an autosomal dominant disorder due
to mutations in one of two genes located on
chromosomes 9 and 16. A feature is tube-like growths
that affect multiple systems including the brain.

A

TS

102
Q

Triad of TS

A

facial rash + intellectual disability +

seizures

103
Q

This is an AD disorder with mutation of chromosome
11. It has been described as a male Turner syndrome
but affects both sexes

A

Noonan syndrome

104
Q

Triad for Noonan

A

facies + short stature + pulmonary

stenosis

105
Q

Characteristic facies of Noonan

A

down-slanting palpebral

fissures, widespread eyes, low-set ears ± ptosis

106
Q

Other features of Noonan

A
  • Short stature
  • Pulmonary valve stenosis
  • Webbed neck
  • Failure to thrive, usually mild
  • Abnormalities of cardiac conduction and rhythm
  • ± Intellectual disability
107
Q
What is the dx?Hand flapping
• ‘Puppet’-like ataxia
• Frequent laughter/smiling
• Microcephaly by age 2 years
• Developmental delay
• Speech impairment
• Seizures
• Cannot live independently
A

Angelman

108
Q

Chromosomal abn with AngelMan

A

chrom 15

109
Q

Tx with AngelMan

A

Treatment with minocycline is promising

110
Q

Sporadic mutation of LMA gene that codes for a

protein leads to early cell death.

A

Progeria

111
Q

Feature of Progeria

__________—manifests in early childhood
causing premature death (median age 12 years)

A

Accelerated ageing

112
Q

COD in patients with Progeria

A

vascular

113
Q

This is due to an extra X chromosome, resulting in a

male phenotype and occurring in 1 in 800 live births

A

Klinefelter

114
Q

Triad of Klinefelter

A

lanky men + small testes + infertility

115
Q

Genetic profile of Klinefelter

  • XXY genotype
  • The extra X chromosome is usually of ________
  • About 30 or more variants of the disorder
A

maternal origin

116
Q

key feautures of Klinefelter

A

Marked variation but usually:
• tall men with long limbs
• small firm testes ≤2 cm
• infertility (azoospermia

117
Q

Tx of Klinefelter

A

• Transdermal testosterone

118
Q

This is due to only one X chromosome, occurring in
1 in 4000 live female newborns; 99% of conceptions
are miscarried

A
Turner syndrome (gonadal
dysgenesis
119
Q

Triad of Turner

A

short stature + webbed neck + facies

120
Q
Genetic profile of Turner
• 45 chromosomes of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_(typical
Turner’s karyotype in 50% of cases)
• Many are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (e.g. 45X/46XX chromosomes)
• Phenotypes vary
A

XO karyotype

mosaics

121
Q

Clinical features of typical XO karyotype

  • Short stature—average adult height 143 cm
  • Primary _____ in XO patient; ____
  • Webbing of neck
  • Typical facies: ______________
  • Lymphoedema of extremities
  • Cardiac defects (e.g. ____________)
A

amenorrhoea

infertility

micrognathia, low hairline

coarctation of aorta

122
Q

Tx of Turners

A

Hormone-based (e.g. growth hormone, hormone

replacement therapy)

123
Q

Conditions of Intersex state

A
  • mixed gonadal dysgenesis
  • ovotesticular disorder DSD
  • 46, XX DSD (androgenised females)
  • 46, XY DSD (underandrogenised males)
124
Q

androgen or inadequate response to
androgen, which includes the ‘androgen insensitivity
syndrome’.

A

• 46, XY DSD (underandrogenised males)

125
Q

This important syndrome is caused by the teratogenic
effects of alcohol (not a chromosomal abnormality)
and is estimated to involve 2 in 1000 live births

A

FAS

126
Q

Triad of FAS

A

abnormal facies + growth retardation +

microcephaly

127
Q

Clinical features of FAS

A
  • Markedly underweight until puberty
  • Learning difficulties
  • Microcephaly
128
Q

Characteristic facies of FAS

A

— shortened palpebral fissures*
— long, smooth featureless philtrum*
— thin upper lip*
— upturned nose

129
Q

a common disorder affecting
over 400 million people worldwide. It is the most
common red-cell enzyme defect that causes episodic
haemolytic anaemia because of the decreased ability
of red blood cells to cope with oxidative stresses

A

Glucose-6-phosphate

dehydrogenase deficiency

130
Q

Mode of Inheritance G6PD

A

It is
an X-linked recessive inherited disorder with a high
prevalence among people of African, Mediterranean
or Asian ancestry

131
Q

______infants at risk should be

observed after delivery (at least 5 days)

A

neonatal jaundice—

132
Q

G6PD

triggered by
antioxidants and infections, and drugs, especially
antimalarials, sulphonamides, nitrofurantoin,
quinolones, traditional medicines, vitamins C
and K, high dose aspirin, fava (broad) beans and
naphthalene (e.g. moth bal

A

episodic acute haemolytic anaemia

133
Q

dx of g6pd

A

Diagnosis is by G-6-PD assay and a blood film

during an attack.

134
Q

a deficiency of
the lysosomal enzyme glucocerebrosidase, leads to
anaemia and thrombocytopenia as a result primarily of hypersplenism.

A

Gaucher disease

135
Q

Ssx of Gaucher disease

A

There is chronic bone pain and
‘crises’ of bone pain. Consider it in children with
fatigue, bone pain, delayed growth, epistaxis, easy
bruising and hepatosplenomegaly

136
Q

Tx of gaucher

A

Replacement

enzyme therapy is available.

137
Q

inborn error of metabolism in
which the body is unable to metabolise galactose to
glucose

A

Galactosaemia 9

138
Q

enzyme deficiencies in Galactosaemia

________ and ____________, which
causes the classic syndrome.

A

galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

139
Q

As lactose is the major source of
galactose, the infant becomes _______ and __________within a few days or weeks of taking breast milk or
lactose-containing formula

A

anorexic and jaundiced

140
Q

T or F,

galactossemia can be fatal

A

T

141
Q

galactossemia

Management is with a _____________-

A

galactose (mainly lactose)-free

formula such as soy with added calcium and vitamins

142
Q

the amino acid, phenylalanine, is caused by a deficiency
of phenylalanine hydroxylase activity, leading to an
elevation of plasma phenylalanine, which if untreated
can cause intellectual disability (often very severe)
and other neurological symptoms, such as seizures.

A

PKU

143
Q

Test for PKU

A

Neonatal screening for high blood phenylalanine

levels (the Guthrie test) is performed routinely.

144
Q

Different forms of Porphyria

The three most common porphyrias are_______-, _______ and _______–,
which are caused by deficiencies of the third, fifth and
eighth enzymes, respectively, of the haem biosynthesis
pathway.

A

acute
intermittent porphyria, porphyria cutanea tarda
(the commonest) and erythropoietic protoporphyria

145
Q

This autosomal dominant disorder is the most serious
of the porphyrias although it remains clinically silent
in the majority of patients who carry the trait

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

146
Q

Enzyme deficiency of AIP

A

porphobilinogen (PBG) deaminase

147
Q

Ssx of AIP

  • Usually young women (teens or 20s)
  • Recurrent _____________r
  • Acute __________
A

psychiatric illnesses, abnormal behaviour

peripheral or nervous system dysfunction
(e.g. peripheral neuropathy, hypotonia

148
Q

Triggers of AIP

A

antiepileptics,

alcohol, sulphonamides, barbiturates

149
Q

Dx of AIP

• Urine________ and ________during ‘attack’
• Erythrocyte PBG deaminase testing to screen
relatives

A

PBGs (high) and serum sodium (very low)

150
Q

Tx for AIP

A
  • Avoid ‘unsafe’ drugs

* High-carbohydrate diet, glucose for attack

151
Q

This is a group of inherited disorders caused by
a deficiency of one or more enzymes involved in
glycogen breakdown, leading to the deposition of
abnormal amounts of glycogen in tissues, especially
the liver

A

Glycogen storage disease (liver

glycogenoses

152
Q

Best known glycogen strorage disease

A

The best-known type is 1A (von Gierke
disorder), an autosomal recessive disorder due to
deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase (G-6-P

153
Q

facies of glycogen storage disease

A

Children have characteristic
morphological features—short, doll-like facies with
fat cheeks, thin extremities and large abdomen
(hepatomegaly).

154
Q

glycogen storage disease

Diagnosis is by abnormal _______ and _______levels, liver biopsy and recently by gene analysis for
the G-6-P gene

A

plasma lactate and lipid

155
Q

Treatment is aimed to prevent ________ and ______via frequent carbohydrate
feedings, such as uncooked cornstarch and
overnight nasogastric glucose infusion.

A

hypoglycaemia

and lactic acidosis

156
Q

an AR disorder caused
by a total deficiency of hexosaminidase A resulting in
an accumulation of gangliosides in the brain

A

Tay–Sachs disease

157
Q

Tay Sac

The______-form is fatal by age 3 or 4 with early
progressive loss of motor skills, dementia, blindness,
macrocephaly and cherry-red retinal spots.

A

infantile

158
Q

Tay Sac

The
________form presents with dementia and
ataxia, with death at age 10–15. The adult form has
progression of neurological symptoms following
clumsiness in childhood and motor weakness in
adolescence.

A

juvenile onset

159
Q

Examples of SINGLE GENE CARDIAC DISORDERS

A

cardiomyopathies
• arrhythmia syndromes e.g. long QT syndrome
• sudden cardiac death families

160
Q

This is an autosomal dominant condition with
predisposition to ventricular arrhythmias, syncopal/
fainting spells and sudden death, particularly
during exercise

A

Congenital long QT syndrome

161
Q

Dx of Congenital long QT syndrome

A

Confirm or exclude by ECG when

suspected—interval 0.5–0.7 seconds

162
Q

Mx of Congenital long QT syndrome

A

Management
includes sports restrictions, β -blockers and
pacemaker or AICD.

163
Q

This is an AD disorder with several genetic mutations.
It is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death
among athletes

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

164
Q

identified by elevated cholesterol, corneal arcus juvenalis, tendon xanthomas
in the patient or their first- and second-degree relatives
and also by a DNA mutation

A

familial

hypercholesterolaemia

165
Q

The three most significant familial cancer
inherited susceptibility syndromes are:
• hereditary breast–ovarian cancer syndrome
_________
• ________
________

A

( BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes)
hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
(HNPCC)
• familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP

166
Q

Male breast cancer (6% in males with _______-

A

BRCA2 gene

mutation

167
Q

Risk indicators for familial breast–

ovarian cancer

A

• Two first-degree or second-degree relatives on
one side of the family with cancer
• Individuals with age of onset of cancer <50 years
• Individuals with bilateral or multifocal breast
cancer
• Individuals with ovarian cancer
• Breast cancer in a male relative
• Jewish ancestry

168
Q
• Caused by a defect in one of the genes
responsible for DNA mismatch repair
• Affects 1 in 1000 individuals
• Autosomal dominant
• Early age of onset
A
Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis
colorectal cancer)
169
Q

CA risk for Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis

colorectal cancer)

A

Increased risk of certain extracolonic cancers,
including endometrial, stomach, ovary and
kidney tract cancers

170
Q

Mutation in FAP

A

Caused by a mutation in the APC gene

171
Q

In FAP

• Eventually almost 100% of cases develop colon
cancer without_____
• Median age of diagnosis ______

A

prophylactic colectomy

40 years

172
Q

risk of CA in FAP

A

thyroid, cerebral

173
Q

Relatives at risk for FAP

A

• Three or more close relatives with bowel cancer

• Two or more close relatives with bowel cancer
and:
— more than one bowel cancer in same relative
— onset of bowel cancer before 50 years
— a relative with endometrial cancer or ovarian
cancer

174
Q
Other cancers where family history is
significant
• Melanoma: an inherited mutation in certain
genes \_\_\_\_\_\_ is considered to be
involved in up to 5% of melanomas.
A

(e.g. BRAF gene)

175
Q

Approximately 2% of births are associated with
congenital abnormalities, of which 1 in 7 are
chromosomal, the most common of which is________

A

Down

syndrome (trisomy 21)

176
Q

Screening for DS

divided into two types: 5

1 screening tests (maternal serum screening/
MSST; ________

2 diagnostic tests _____

A

free fetal DNA at 10–12 weeks gestation; nuchal transparency ultrasound)

(chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis

177
Q

Screening for DS

The most reliable method is ______
by these last means but there is a significant risk of
miscarriage (1 in 100 for chorionic villus sampling
and 1 in 200 for amniocentesis).

A

obtaining fetal tissue