Palliative Care Flashcards

1
Q

______ applies not only to incurable malignant
disease and HIV/AIDS but also to several other
diseases, such as end-stage organ failure (heart
failure, kidney failure, respiratory failure and hepatic
failure) and degenerative neuromuscular diseases.

A

Palliative care

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2
Q

The GP is the ideal person to manage palliative care
for a variety of reasons—

1.
2
3

A

availability, knowledge of
the patient and family, and the relevant psychosocial
influences

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3
Q

_____________ is the best policy when discussing
the answers to these questions with the patient
and family.

A

Caring honesty

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4
Q

Patients must not be made to feel isolated or be
victims of the so-called _______in
which families collude with doctors to withhold
information from the patient

A

‘conspiracy of silence’

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5
Q

The worst feeling a dying patient can sense is one
of rejection and discomfort on the part of the
______

A

doctor.

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6
Q

The Gold Standards Framework (UK)

This framework, which provides an optimal model for
palliative care by the primary care team, focuses on
seven key tasks:

A
1 optimal quality of care
2 advanced planning (including out of hours)
3 teamwork
4 symptom control
5 patient support
6 carer support
7 staff support
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7
Q

_______ is the commonest, most feared, but generally

the most treatable symptom in advanced cancer

A

Pain

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8
Q

The
principles of relief of cancer pain are:

1 Treat the cancer.
2 Raise the pain threshold:
3 _______, for
example, opioids (if necessary).

A

Add analgesics according to level of pain

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9
Q

The
principles of relief of cancer pain are:

4 _______—not all pain
responds to analgesics (refer TABLE 11.2 ).
5 Set realistic goals.
6 Organise supervision of pain control.

A

Use specific drugs for specific pain

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10
Q

The right drug, in the right dose, given at the
right time relieves _______ of the pain. Reports of
the undertreatment of cancer pain persist.

A

80–90%

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11
Q

The World Health Organization (WHO) analgesic
ladder is an appropriate guide for the management of
cancer pain:

Step 1: Mild pain
Start with basic non-opioid analgesics:
1.
2.

A

aspirin 600–900 mg (o) 4 hourly (preferred)
or
paracetamol 1 g (o) 4 hourly ± NSAID

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12
Q

Use low dose or weak opioids (according to age
and condition) or in combination with non-opioid
analgesics (consider NSAIDs. What kind of pain?

A

Step 2: Moderate pain

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13
Q

Options for moderate pain

add ________ 5 to 10 mg (o) 4 hourly (2.5 mg
in elderly)

increase in increments of 30–50% up to
15–20 mg
or

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 2.5 mg (in elderly) up to 10 mg (o)
4 hourly or CR
10 mg (o) 12 hourly
or
oxycodone 30 mg,\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 8 hourly
A

morphine

oxycodone

rectally,

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14
Q

Step 3: Severe pain

Maintain non-opioid analgesics. Larger doses of
opioids should be used and _______ is the drug of
choice

A

morphine

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15
Q

How to give Morphine in severe pain:

morphine 10–15 mg (o) 4 hourly, increasing to
________ if necessary
or
morphine CR/SR tabs or caps _______

A

30 mg

(o) 12 hourly or
once daily

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16
Q

Usual starting dose for morphine CR

A

The usual starting dose is 20–30 mg bd

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17
Q

To convert to morphine CR/SR, calculate the
daily oral dose of regular morphine and divide by
_______

A

2 to get the 12 hourly dose

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18
Q

How to give Morphine:

Starting doses are usually in the range of
_____

A

5–20 mg (average 10 mg)

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19
Q

How to give Morphine:

If analgesia is inadequate, the next dose should
be increased by ______until pain control is
achieved

A

50%

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20
Q

How to give Morphine:

____ is a problem, so treat
prophylactically with regular laxatives and
carefully monitor bowel function.

A

Constipation

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21
Q

How to give Morphine:

Order a ________ for
breakthrough pain or anticipated pain (e.g. going
to toilet

A

‘rescue dose’ (usually 5–10 mg)

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22
Q

How to give Morphine:

Order antiemetics ______

A

(e.g. haloperidol prn at first;
usually can discontinue in 1–2 weeks as tolerance
develops).

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23
Q

Using morphine as a mixture with other
substances _________has no
particular advantage

A

(e.g. Brompton’s cocktail)

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24
Q

How to give Morphine:

______ is not recommended (short half-life,
toxic metabolites) and codeine and IM morphine
should be avoided

A

Pethidine

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25
Q

______is a potent synthetic opioid which is
available as a transdermal system. Effective and
good for compliance. It is the least constipating
opioid and can be used in ______

A

Fentanyl

kidney failure

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26
Q

_____ is a potent analgesic available
as oral liquid, tablets and injection and is now
widely used in palliative care.

A

Hydromorphone

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27
Q

Hydromorphone:

It facilitates oral
dosing when a high opioid dose is required and
because of its ______ may reduce
the incidence of side effects in the frail and
elderly but like oxycodone may need to be given
_______

A

short half-life (2–3 h)

4 hourly if used alone.

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28
Q

This practice involves changing from one strong
opioid to another in patients with dose-limiting side
effects. Different opioids have differences in opioid
receptor binding

A

Opioid rotation

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29
Q

How to convert PO to SC

A

• Divide oral dose morphine by 3 for equivalent
SC dose 9
e.g. 30 mg oral morphine = 10 mg SC

• 10 mg morphine SC = 150 mcg fentanyl SC or
2–3 mg hydromorphone SC

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30
Q

Indications for IV Morphine

A
  1. unable to swallow (e.g. severe oral mucositis;
    dysphagia; oesophageal obstruction)
  2. bowel obstruction
  3. severe nausea and vomiting
  4. at high oral dose (i.e. above 100–200 mg dose)
    there appears to be no additional benefit from
    further dose increments
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31
Q

When the oral and/or rectal routes are not possible
or are ineffective, a subcutaneous infusion with a
_______ can be used

A

syringe driver (pump)

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32
Q

SQ Morphine advantages:

It may avoid bolus peak effects
________ or trough effects
________ with intermittent parenteral
morphine injections.

A

(sedation, nausea or vomiting)

breakthrough pain

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33
Q

_______ is sometimes
indicated for pain below the head and neck, where
oral or parenteral opioids have been ineffective

A

Epidural or intrathecal morphine

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34
Q

Sx control: anorexia

1.
2.
3

A
metoclopramide 10 mg tds
or
corticosteroids (e.g. dexamethasone 2–8 mg
tds)
high-energy drink supplements
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35
Q

If opioids need to be maintained, the laxatives need

to be ________, not bulk-forming agents

A

peristaltic stimulants

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36
Q

Laxatives:

Aim for firm faeces with bowels open about every __________

A

third day.

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37
Q

How to use laxatives

_______ 20 mL bd
or

_______ one to two sachets, in 125 mL water,
1, 2 or 3 times daily

Rectal suppositories, microenemas or enemas
may be required (e.g. Microlax).

A

lactulose

Movicol,

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38
Q

_______ cocktail is useful for severe
constipation. With a small quantity of water melt one
tablespoon of Senokot granules in a microwave oven

A

Shaw’s (or PCU)

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39
Q

Noisy breathing and secretions:

Conservative:____________

A

repositioning to one side, reduced

parenteral fluids and nasogastric suction

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40
Q

Noisy breathing and secretions:

• __________20 mg SC, 4
hourly or 60-80 mg daily by SC infusion
or
• ________ 0.2 mg SC as a single dose followed
by 0.6-1.2 mg/24 hrs by continuous SC infusion

A

hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan)

glycopyrrolate

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41
Q

Noisy breathing and secretions:

For unconscious patient, as above, also consider:

________ 0.4 mg SC, 4 hourly or
0.8-2.4 mg/24 hrs by continuous SC infusion
or
________0.4-0.6 mg SC 4-6 hourly (be cautious of
delirium

A
  • hyoscine hydrobromide

* atropine

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42
Q

Dyspnoea

Identify the cause, such as a _______, and
treat as appropriate

A

pleural effusion

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43
Q

Morphine can be used for _______ e.g. 2.5–5 mg (o) 4 hourly, together with haloperidol or a phenothiazine for nausea.

A

intractable dyspnoea

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44
Q

Dyspnea

Use a short acting benzodiazepine e.g.
______ 0.25–5 mg sublingually if anxiety is a
component.

A

lorazepam

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45
Q

Terminal distress/restlessness:

1st choice:

_______

0.5 mg SC bolus or 0.25–0.5 mg (o) 12 hourly
(drops SL) (3 drops = 0.3 mg) or tabs 7
1–4 mg over 24 hours in SC syringe driver

_________ 2.5–5 mg SC 1–3 hourly prn or
2.5–10 mg sublingual or intranasal
(or 15 mg/day by SC) infusion

A

clonazepam

midazolam

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46
Q

Terminal distress/restlessness:

If very severe: add _____ as SC infusion or
(with care because of fitting) haloperidol

A

phenobarbitone

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47
Q

Options for nausea and vomiting:

If due to Morphine:

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 1.5–5 mg daily 1
(can be reduced after 10 days)
o r
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_10–20 mg (o) or SC 6 hrly
or
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (Stemetil)
5–10 mg (o) qid
or
25 mg rectally bd
A

haloperidol

metoclopramide

prochlorperazine

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48
Q

Alternatives for nausea and vomiting due to Morphine:

A

Alternatives: promethazine, cyclizine

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49
Q

Nausea and vomiting:

If due to poor gastric emptying, use a prokinetic
agent: _____

A

metoclopramide or cisapride or domperidone

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50
Q

Consider _____ and _____ for nausea
and vomiting induced by cytotoxic chemotherapy and
radiotherapy

A

ondansetron or tropisetron

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51
Q

Wound dressings

To reduce pain, apply a mixture of 10 mg/mL _______

A

topical

morphine with 8 g/mL Intrasite hydrogel

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52
Q

Cerebral metastases

Common symptoms are headache and nausea.
Consider __________ (e.g. dexamethasone
4–16 mg daily). Analgesics and antiemetics such as
haloperidol are effective

A

corticosteroid therapy

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53
Q

Hiccoughs 7, 8

Try a starting dose of

_____ 0.25–1 mg (o) bd
or
______ 2.5 mg bd

A

clonazepam

haloperidol

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54
Q

Depression

\_\_\_\_\_\_ 30 mg (o) daily, helpful for nighttime
sedation and appetite.
• consider \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
5 mg (o) bd since evidence indicates an
improvement in symptoms
A

• mirtazapine

methylphenidate (psychostimulant)

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55
Q

Weakness and weight loss

This problem may be assisted by a high-calorie and
high-protein diet. Otherwise consider _________

A

total parenteral nutrition.

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56
Q

Delirium

Determine the cause, including adverse opioid

effect. Investigations include FBE, MCU, CXR, pulse
oximetry. Consider treatment with _____ and ____

A

olanzapine and

haloperidol

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57
Q

Consider _______ in the presence of
drowsiness, confusion, twitching and abdominal
pain.

A

hypercalcaemia

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58
Q

Hypercalcemia:

It may be a ______ effect of myeloma
and cancers (particularly lung and breast). It carries a
poor prognosis—monitor serum calcium_____

A

paraneoplastic

> 3 mmol/L.

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59
Q

The commonest malignancy is________. Other important malignancies include: lymphomas, cerebral tumours, bone
tumours and solid tumours

A

acute lymphatic

leukaemia

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60
Q

Palliative care in children:

_______is the most commonly used opioid for
pain although fentanyl and hydromorphone are
now widely used

A

Morphine

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61
Q

Special problems for palliative care in children

A

Adverse reactions to tranquillisers,
corticosteroids, anti-emetics and aspirin are a
special problem

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62
Q

It should be an uncommon experience to be confronted
with a request for the use of ________, especially as
the media clichés of ‘ extreme suffering’ and ‘agonising
death’ are uncommonly encountered in the context
of attentive whole-person continuing care

A

euthanasia

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63
Q

Origin of pain:

  1. Skin mucosa Bones and joints Pleura and peritoneum

symptoms?

A

1 Somatic

Localised stinging or burning
Dull ache
± Pain on movement

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64
Q

Origin of pain:

Solid or hollow organs

A

Visceral

Deep, diffuse pain
Poorly localised
± Colic
± Nausea and vomiting

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65
Q

Origin of pain:

Skeletal muscle
Smooth muscle

Symptoms

A

Muscle spasm

Pain worse on movement
Severe colic
Tenesmus

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66
Q

Types of nocicieptive pain

symptoms

A

Somatic, visceral and muscle spasm

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67
Q

Types of neuropathic pain

A

Neuropathic and central pain

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68
Q

Origin of pain

Nerve compression or peripheral nerve
damage

A

Prolapse IV disc
Limb amputation
Peripheral neuropathies
Post-herpetic neuralgia

69
Q

Symptoms of central pain

A

Various pain syndromes (see text)

± Trophic changes

70
Q

Pain can be subcategorised as:

A
  • acute pain
  • cancer/palliative pain
  • chronic non-cancer pain
71
Q

Acute pain is pain of recent onset and short duration
that usually has an obvious cause and a predictable
duration. It is usually _____ sensitive. It is often due
to ______ (e.g. postoperative pain).

A

opioid

nociception

72
Q

_____ may be defined as pain present for
a period greater than 3 months or pain present for
4 weeks more than the expected time of recovery.

A

Chronic pain

73
Q

example of unidimensional scale for pain

A

VAS

74
Q

Examples of multidimensional scale for pain

A

McGill Pain Questionnaire
Pain Disability Index
Form 36 Health Survey (SF-36)
• Oswestry low-back pain questionnaire

75
Q

The pain threshold can be lowered by factors

such as :

A

fatigue, anger, depression, loneliness,

home or work environment

76
Q

______ is treated with antidepressants,
antiepileptics and membrane stabilisers. Agents
used to treat muscle pain are ____ and ______

A

Neurogenic pain

muscle relaxants and
baclofen

77
Q

_______ has minimal anti-inflammatory activity
but moderate analgesic (equipotent with aspirin) and
antipyretic properties

A

Paracetamol

78
Q

Half life of paracetamol

A

4 hrs

79
Q

________has both analgesic and anti-inflammatory
activity and is a very effective drug in adults for mild to
moderate acute pain.

A

Aspirin

80
Q

Commonly used agents for severe pain are the
weaker opioids—

stronger ones—

A

codeine, oxycodone, buprenorphine, tramadol

morphine,
fentanyl, hydromorphone and methadone

81
Q

what is the 5A assessment for pain

A

analgesic effect, activity, affect, abnormal

behaviour, adverse effects.

82
Q

______, which is methylmorphine, is metabolised to

morphine

A

Codeine

83
Q

Controlled trials have shown codeine 32 mg

to be no more effective than ____

A

aspirin 600 mg

84
Q

Codeine is best avoided because of its variable metabolism secondary to ______

A

cytochrome CYP 2D6 polymorphism

85
Q

_________ is a synthetic opioid that is very effective
orally. It is useful for moderate pain in bridging the gap
between the simple analgesics and strong opioids

A

Oxycodone

86
Q

Oxycodone

The oral form has a duration of action of _____

A

4 hours.

87
Q

True of false, oxycodone is equianalgesic to morphine.

A

T

88
Q

How to give oxycodone

A
Usual dosage:
10 mg (o) 4 hourly (max. 60 mg/day),
controlled release, (various strengths) 12 hourly
30 mg rectally (8–12 hourly [Prolodone]
89
Q

This controversial drug is structurally related to
methadone. Adverse effects include serious cardiac
disorders, dysphoria, confusion, lightheadedness and
constipation.

A

Dextropropoxyphene

90
Q

Dextropropoxyphene

Caution when taken in overdose, especially
with ____

Continuous use should be discouraged,
particularly in_____and _____

Avoid prescribing it for _____

A

alcohol.

elderly patients and those with cardiac
disease.

new patients

91
Q

______ is the most effective and ‘gold standard’
opioid for the relief of moderate to severe pain and
cancer pain

A

Morphine

92
Q

T or F

injections are more effective than oral
administration in achieving pain relief

A

F

93
Q

_____ is an effective oral analgesic with a long
but variable half-life; it is given, preferably, once or
at most twice a day

A

Methadone

94
Q

Methadone:

It should not be used in ___ patients or those with
_____

A

elderly

kidney dysfunction

95
Q

Methadone:

Its place is in management of
opioid dependency but it needs to be used with care
because of the ______ and _____

A

risk of respiratory depression and

accumulation.

96
Q

_____ is a synthetic opioid with a short

duration of action

A

Pethidine

97
Q

Pethidine

problematic adverse effect is
accumulation of its toxic metabolite (norpethidine),
which can cause ______ and ____

A

myoclonic and general seizures

98
Q

T or F

Pethidine

It has no place in the management of chronic pain,
whether cancer or non-cancer

A

t

99
Q

________ is a very potent synthetic opioid which can
be administered IV, IM, SC, intranasal (children),
transdermal or by the epidural route

A

Fentanyl

100
Q

The conversion
factor is: 10 mg (SC) morphine = ______
fentanyl.

A

150–200 mcg (SC)

101
Q

This is structurally similar to morphine but five times
more potent. It is available for oral, parenteral and
intraspinal use in moderate to severe pain

A

Hydromorphone

102
Q

Usual dose of hydroxymorphone

A

2–4 mg (o) every 4 hours
1–2 mg IM, SC or IV (slow) every 4–6 hours
4–8 mg daily of SR (sustained release

103
Q

_____ is an atypical analgesic with both opioid
and non-opioid features. Its use is suitable for mild to
moderate mixed nociceptive and neuropathic pain

A

Tramadol

104
Q

SE of Tramadol

______
dizziness, vertigo, nausea, vomiting, constipation,
headache, somnolence, tremor, confusion and
_________

A

serotonin effect,

hypersensitivity reactions

105
Q

This is a partial agonist opioid derived from the opium

alkaloid thebaine. It is useful in pain management

A

Buprenorphine

106
Q

Buprenorphine

_________(0.2 mg, 0.4 mg, 2 mg, 8 mg)
are used for acute, chronic and cancer pain

A

Sublingual preparations

107
Q

Components of combined analgesic

A

They usually consist of
a simple analgesic such as paracetamol or aspirin
combined with an opioid analgesic (usually codeine

108
Q

Important concept of combined analgesic

A

The analgesics have an additive effect because

they act at different receptor sites. The

109
Q

This is a volatile anaesthetic agent that is administered
as inhalational analgesia with the Penthrox Inhaler in
emergency situations such as at the roadside

A

Methoxyflurane

110
Q

Methoxyflurane:

It provides pain relief after
_________ breaths and it continues for several minutes

A

8–10

111
Q

Prescribing guidelines for opioids

SR ______ is more ‘likeable’ for patient.

TD _________ is often a good starting
agent.

A

oxycodone

buprenorphine

112
Q

Prescribing guidelines for opioids

_____is useful but has a potential serotonin
adverse effect and ceiling effect.
_______ is potent and its use questionable

A

Tramadol

• Fentanyl

113
Q

Prescribing guidelines for opioids

• Do not initiate with _______
• Hydromorphone is very complex—best for
palliative care.

A

hydromorphone or fentanyl.

114
Q

Prescribing guidelines for opioids

_______has complex kinetics so avoid
initiating unless well informed.

At least 80% of total daily opioid should be given
as an _______

Use_______ as a guide to
consolidate SR doses

A

Methadone

SR formulation.

immediate release (IR)

115
Q

Prescribing guidelines for opioids

Avoid _______—use co-analgesics to
limit dose and side effects.
• Do not use hydromorphone or transdermal
fentanyl as first-line opioids in ______

A

IR-only regimens

opioid-naive
patients with chronic pain.

116
Q

Prescribing guidelines for opioids

  • Ensure that the pain syndrome is ______
  • Good record keeping is mandatory.
  • Beware of drug escalation
A

opioid sensitive.

117
Q

T or F

Guiding principles for pain relief in children:

If a child complains of pain, they are serious and
it is organic until proved otherwise

A

T

118
Q

The three most commonly used analgesics in children

are _______, ______ ________

A

paracetamol, NSAIDs and opioids

119
Q

The analgesic hierarchy in children

  1. Paracetamol
  2. NSAID (ibuprofen, naproxen)
  3. Combination oral therapy:
  4. Parenteral opioid:
    • bolus IM, IV; infusion; PCA
  5. Combination parenteral therapy:
A
  1. NSAID (ibuprofen, naproxen)
  2. • paracetamol/codeine mixes
    • alternate: NSAID/paracetamol
  3. NSAID/opioid/ketamine
    • adjuvant clonidine
120
Q

Paracetamol (acetaminophen) in children

This is generally safe and effective even in asthmatics
in therapeutic doses. It is rapidly absorbed orally
within ______ and well absorbed _______

A

30 minutes

rectally

121
Q

Paracetamol in children

Hepatotoxicity is rare and does not usually occur
in doses below______ but acute paracetamol
overdose _________ is a potentially
life-threatening event

A

150 mg/kg/day

single doses of >100 mg/kg

122
Q

Aspirin in children is not in common use in children and should not be used <16 years since it has been associated
with _____

A

Reye syndrome

123
Q

_______ have a proven safety and efficacy in children for
mild to moderate pain and can be used in conjunction
with paracetamol and opioids such as codeine and
morphin

A

NSAIDs

124
Q

advantage of NSAID

A

opioid-sparing effect

125
Q

CI to NSAID

A

hypersensitivity,
severe asthma (especially if aspirin sensitive), bleeding
diatheses, nasal polyposis and peptic ulcer disease.

126
Q

Usual doses of NSAID in children

__________ 5–10 mg/kg (o) 6–8 hourly (max.
40 mg/kg/day)
_______ 5–10 mg/kg (o) 12–24 hourly (max.
1 g/day)
______1 mg/kg (o) 8 hourly (max. 150 mg/day)

_________ 1.5–3 mg/kg (o) bd

A
  • ibuprofen:
  • naproxen:
  • diclofenac:
  • celecoxib
127
Q

Doses of opioid analgesics in children:

  1. ________Usual dosage: • 0.5–1 mg/kg (o), 4–6 hourly prn (max. 3 mg/kg/ day)
  2. ______Immediate release: • 0.2–0.4 mg/kg (o) 4 hourly prn
A

Codeine

Morphine

128
Q

Fentanyl citrate in children can be administered orally
(transmucosal) as ______transcutaneously as
_______, or intranasally via a mucosal atomiser
device (for painful procedures).

A

‘lollipops’,

‘patches’

129
Q

These are the most powerful parenteral analgesics for
children in severe pain and can be administered in
intermittent boluses (IM, IV or SC) or by continuous
infusion (IV or SC).

A

Parenteral opioids

130
Q

T or F

Infants under 12 months are
more sensitive and need careful monitoring (e.g.
pulse oximetry).

A

T

131
Q

T or F

As a general
rule, most elderly patients are not sensitive to
opioid analgesics and to aspirin and other NSAIDs but
there may be considerable individual differences in
tolerance

A

F (more sensitive)

132
Q

Patients over _____years should receive lower
initial doses of opioid analgesics with subsequent
doses being titrated according to the patient’s needs

A

65

133
Q

MOA of NSAIDs

A

They inhibit synthesis of
prostaglandins by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase (COX)
present in COX-1 and COX-2. They are very effective
against nociceptive pain

134
Q

Of particular concern, however, is the widespread use
of NSAIDs for common problems such as_____
when the main cause is dysfunctional or mechanical
without evidence of inflammation

A

back pain

135
Q

Both _________
are more effective for the spondyloarthropathies and
gout.

A

indomethacin and phenylbutazone

136
Q

NSAIDs with short half-lives include :

A

aspirin,
diclofenac, tiaprofenic acid, ketoprofen, ibuprofen
and indomethacin.

137
Q

MOA of NSAIDs

Non-selective inhibitors of COX-1
and COX-2, mainly in CNS

A

Paracetamol

138
Q

Non-selective inhibitors of COX-1
and COX-2, acting in both CNS
and periphery

A

Aspirin
Ketorolac
Other NSAIDs

139
Q

Specific inhibitors of COX-2

A

Celecoxib
Etoricoxib
Meloxicam
Paracoxib

140
Q

Preferential inhibitors of COX-2

over COX-1

A

Meloxicam

141
Q
Persons at higher risk from NSAID-induced
side effects (after Ryan)1

Definite

A
Age >65 years
Prior ulcer disease or complication
High-dose, multiple NSAIDs
Concomitant corticosteroid therapy
Duration of ther
142
Q

Persons at higher risk from NSAID-induced
side effects:

Possible

A
Conditions necessitating NSAID treatment (e.g. RA)
Female sex
Ischaemic heart disease/hypertension
Kidney impairment
Smoking
Alcohol excess
143
Q

T or F

There is evidence that peptic ulcers that develop
in patients taking NSAIDs heal faster if the NSAID is
dropped

A

t

144
Q

trials have indicated that the efficacy of using H 2 -receptor
antagonists for preventing NSAID gastrointestinal
complications is low to absent.trials
have indicated that the efficacy of using H 2 -receptor
antagonists for preventing NSAID gastrointestinal
complications is low to absent.

A

T

145
Q

An anti-inflammatory dose of _________ should
be considered as part of long-term treatment to
minimise NSAID use

A

fish oil

146
Q

These both
act as rate-limiting enzymes in prostaglandins and
thromboxane synthesis

A

cyclo-oxygenase 1

COX-1) and cyclo-oxygenase 2 (COX-2

147
Q

The______ are a group of NSAIDs synthesised
to inhibit COX-2 specifically. They are on a par
as an analgesic with the COX-1 inhibitors

A

coxibs

148
Q

The cardiovascular problems,
including increased blood pressure, thrombosis (fatal
myocardial infarction and stroke), and impairment of
kidney function experienced with________indicate
the potential problems of these agents

A

rofecoxib

149
Q

NSAIDs with short half-lives __________may be safer in the elderly and all NSAIDs
should be used in reduced dosage

A

(e.g. ibuprofen and

diclofenac)

150
Q

Prescribing NSAIDs:

Intermittent courses for 14 days can work well in chronic
conditions, remembering that it takes about
______days for NSAIDs to achieve maximal
effectiveness.

______ is usually first choice

A

10

Ibuprofen

151
Q

_______ can be defined as pain associated

with injury, disease or surgical section of the peripheral or central nervous system

A

Neuropathic pain

152
Q

Neuropathic pain:

It is a common
(affects about _______ of the population) although underidentified
condition.

A

1%

153
Q

Neuropathic pain:

For initial pain relief, use ________

A

aspirin or paracetamol

or a NSAID

154
Q

Adjuvants for neuropathic pain:

A

tricyclic antidepressants [TCAs] and anti-epileptics)

or parenterally, such as lignocaine or ketamine

155
Q

TCAs:

_____10–25 mg (o) nocte increasing every
7 days to 75–100 mg max.

Consider another TCA (e.g. _____ and _____

A

amitriptyline

nortriptyline or doxepin

156
Q

SNRIs
_______(consider for peripheral diabetic
neuropathy) 30 mg (o) daily (to max. 60 mg)

A

duloxetine

157
Q

AED for Neuropathic pain:

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 50–100 mg (o) bd initially
increasing to 400 mg bd max.
or
\_\_\_\_\_\_ 100–300 mg (o) daily (nocte)
initially, increasing as tolerated to three times
daily (max. 2400 mg)
A

carbamazepine

gabapentin

158
Q

Test dose for gabapentin

A

100 mg (o) at night

159
Q

_____________ have been used for the central
desensitisation of chronic neuropathic pain but
evidence of benefit is limited

A

Ketamine infusions

160
Q

• _______s may be better for constant burning pain.
• ________ may be better for sharp shooting
pain.
_________ is the drug of choice for
trigeminal neuralgia.
______ are much smaller than those for
treating depression.

A

TCA
Anti-epileptics

  • Carbamazepine
  • Doses of TCAs
161
Q

Level 1 evidence shows that about ________
of patients have a significant response to
carbamezepine.

A

70%

162
Q

The newer anti-epileptic ________has proven
efficacy for diabetic neuropathy 20 and postherpetic
neuralgia.

A

gabapentin

163
Q

DPN:

Pain in the feet and legs is
found in 11.6% of people with _____ and in
31.2% of people with _______

A

type 1 diabetes

type 2 diabetes

164
Q

The classic complaint is burning in the feet with
possible associated aching, cramping and tingling
sensations.

A

DPN

165
Q

Non-diabetic causes of painful neuropathy

can include deficiency states associated with

A

alcoholism and vitamin B12 deficiency, uraemia and
ischaemic neuropathy associated with peripheral
vascular disease

166
Q

the patient complains of severe
and distressing pain that has the qualities of pain
arising from a physical (somatic) cause, but which
cannot be attributed to objectively demonstrable
organic pathology

A

somatoform pain, which is sometimes referred to

as psychogenic pain

167
Q

DDx for somatoform pain disorder

A

Differential diagnoses include occult organic pain,
depression, substance abuse, malingering and rare
disorders such as sickle cell anaemia and porphyria

168
Q

Tx for somatoform pain disorder

A

Psychological
treatments are directed towards helping the patient
to cope and ‘live with the pain’. The

169
Q

Tx for somatoform pain disorder

A

Referral for CBT or similar psychotherapies

or to a pain clinic are options.