Antenatal Care Flashcards

1
Q

Listeria infection is a problem if contracted, with fetal

mortality being _______

A

30–50%.

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2
Q
Folic acid (0.5 mg tablets) is now generally
recommended to commence about\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ preconception and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_post concepcion
A

3 months prior to conception, continuing to 12 weeks postconception

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3
Q

Rubella serology should be estimated and, if
required, immunisation_______ prior to conception
should be initiated

A

4 weeks

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4
Q

When to test for seroconversion for rubella

A

Test for seroconversion 6–8

weeks late

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5
Q

Rubella Vaccination should be avoided in early
pregnancy, and pregnancy avoided for ________after
rubella vaccination.

A

28 days

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6
Q

if vaginal bleeding: if Rh negative, send blood
sample for Rh antibodies—if absent, give one
ampoule ______ within
72 hours of first bleed

A

anti-D gammaglobulin

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7
Q

Perform the four classic techniques of palpation

(applies to later visits):

A

1 Fundal palpation
2 Lateral abdominal palpation
3 Pawlik palpation
4 Deep pelvic palpation

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8
Q

When to do Maternal serum screening (MSST)

A

(9–13 weeks, 11 is ideal):

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9
Q

MSST tests

A

— Free β -hCG

— PAPP-A

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10
Q

If MSST performed at 11 weeks and combined
with NT one week later, it enables the risk of
_____ and _________ to be defined and
compared with age-related risk

A

trisomy-21 and trisomy-18

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11
Q
Nuchal translucency (NT) ultrasound (usually
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

12–13 weeks)

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12
Q

Second trimester MSST

• performed at ________ (if desired)

A

15–16 weeks

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13
Q

Second trimester MSST

Genetic testing for recessive disorders
such as ________ and ________ can be
discussed at this time.

A

cystic fibrosis

thalassaemia

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14
Q

Recently, free fetal DNA testing has been available
in Australia and overseas. It is performed on a
maternal blood sample taken at about_______

A

10–12 weeks

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15
Q

If positive free fetal DNA testing, _______ or __________would usually be required for
confirmation

A

amniocentesis or

chorionic villus biopsy

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16
Q

A common routine schedule (if all appears normal)

  • Initial in first trimester: _______
  • Up to 28 weeks: every _______
  • Up to 36 weeks: every _____
  • 36 weeks–delivery:_____
A

8–10 weeks

4–6 weeks

2 weeks

weekly

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17
Q

Guidelines for OGTT

A

• First visit—if previous gestational diabetes or
strong family history
• About 20 weeks—as above + normal initial test
• About 26 weeks—for all other patients

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18
Q

The average number of visits is 12 but the need
for this number is being questioned, with some
authorities recommending as few as______

A

six visits

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19
Q

urinalysis (protein and sugar)—many clinics
repeat at each visit only if there is _______at
the first visit or if signs of hypertension, kidney
disease or pre-eclampsia develop.

A

proteinuria

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20
Q

Record day of first fetal movements (i.e.
‘quickening’) (ask patient to write down the dates):
• primigravida: ______
• multigravida:______

A

17–20 weeks

16–18 weeks

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21
Q

Causes of proteinuria in pregnancy

A

Urinary tract infection
Contamination from vaginal discharge
Pre-eclampsia toxaemia
Underlying chronic kidney disease

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22
Q

The uterus is a pelvic organ until the ______ of pregnancy

A

twelfth week

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23
Q

At about _______weeks it
has reached the level of the umbilicus and reaches
the xiphisternum between ________ weeks

A

20–22

36 and 40

24
Q

If the symphysis fundal height is more than ____ different
from that expected for the gestation, the cause of
this should be evaluated by ultrasound examination

25
______ and ________ helps prevent constipation of | pregnancy
Bran with cereal
26
It is usual to gain about ______ during pregnancy
12 kg
27
Smoking, alcohol and other drugs 1 standard drink of ______ • 1 cup of _____ or 2 cups of tea
alcohol | coffee
28
There is convincing evidence that promotion of smoking cessation programs during pregnancy is effective, with improved outcomes, including reduction in_______ and _______
preterm birth rates and low birthweight rate
29
Mothers taking illicit drugs, especially opioids and amphetamines, require identification, counselling, treatment and surveillance for the __________
neonatal abstinence syndrome in the newborn child
30
Coitus should be encouraged during pregnancy but | with appropriate care, especially in the _______
4 weeks before | delivery
31
They should avoid international air travel after ______ weeks and travel after 34 weeks is usually not permitted.
28
32
Normal weight gain is minimal in the first 20 weeks, resulting in a _____weight gain in the first half of pregnancy
3 kg
33
From 20 weeks onwards there is an average weight gain of _____ kg per week. From 36 weeks the weight gain usually levels off.
0.5
34
if the movements drop to fewer than ______ per day, the patient should be referred to hospital for fetal monitoring
10
35
Possible exposure to rubella If her immune status is unknown, perform a _______ and repeat titres in 2–3 weeks
rubella IgG titre and IgM and repeat the IgG and IgM
36
Vaginal bleeding <6 weeks: Do _________ (ultrasound usually unhelpful).
serial quantitative HCG levels, | which should double every 2 days
37
Vaginal bleeding 6–8 weeks:________
Ultrasound will define an intrauterine | pregnancy and exclude an ectopic.
38
Vaginal bleeding >8 weeks: Normal ultrasound is reassuring since miscarriage rate is only ________ unless the amount of intrauterine blood is large
3%
39
T or F Rest is not necessary for threatened miscarriage
T
40
A small bleed between 18–24 weeks indicates possible ________ and warrants a speculum or vaginal examination plus fetal assessment
cervical ‘weakness’
41
Be aware that an incomplete abortion can cause | ___________
cervical shock (pelvic pain and fainting).
42
If a threatened miscarriage occurs, check the blood | group and test for________
rhesus antibodies in maternal | serum.
43
``` If the mother is Rh-negative and no antibodies are detected, give one ampoule of __________ intramuscularly if the woman actually miscarries (not for threatened abortion). ```
anti-D | gammaglobulin
44
Medication for Nausea and vomiting during pregnancy
— pyridoxine 25–50 mg bd or tds | — if still ineffective add metoclopramide 10 mg tds
45
This is severe vomiting in pregnancy, which may result in severe fluid and electrolyte depletion. It occurs in about 1 in 100 pregnancies
Hyperemesis gravidarum
46
Hyperemesis gravidarum association
* Normal complication * Hydatidiform mole * Multiple pregnancy * Urinary infection
47
________ is the basis of the cramps
Prolonged plantar | flexion
48
There is no evidence that __________ help cramps during pregnancy
calcium supplements
49
Painful haemorrhoids may be eased by the application of __________or perhaps haemorrhoidal ointments containing local anaesthetic
packs soaked in warm saline
50
Exercise guidelines during pregnancy
• avoid overheating and dehydration • allow for a long warm-up before exercise and a long cool-down • choose low-impact or water exercise
51
If desperate for CTS, what to do?
an injection of corticosteroid into the carpal tunnel can be very effective (check drug category for risk relative to dates
52
Cause of hypotension during pregnancy
This is due to increased peripheral circulation and | venous pooling
53
Generalised itching (pruritus gravidarum) is usually associated with ________ due to oestrogen sensitivity in the third trimester
cholestasis
54
Obesity is associated with increased obstetric | morbidity, including_____ and ______
difficult labour and potential | anaesthetic risks
55
T or F Iron is not routinely recommended for pregnant women who are healthy, following an optimal diet and have a normal blood test
T
56
_________ is essential for the developing fetus and if deficiency is known or suspected (e.g. vegetarian/ vegan diet)
Vitamin B12
57
It is recommended, for pregnant and lactating women and those planning a pregnancy, to take _______of supplementary iodine as soon as possible by using iodised salt for cooking and a multivitamin that includes iodine
150 | mcg