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Anatomy & Physiology 210 > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five secondary brain vesicles?

A

Telencephalon diencephalon mesencephalon metencephalon myelencephalon

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2
Q

What structures and ventricles arise from the secondary brain vesicles?

A

Telencephalon: cerebral hemispheres. lateral ventricle.

Diencephalon: diencephalon, retina. Third ventricle.

Mesencephalon: (brainstem)midbrain. Cerebral aqueduct.

Metencephalon: pons, cerebellum. Fourth ventricle

Myelencephalon: medulla oblongata. Fourth ventricle.

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3
Q

What is the function of the pre-frontal cortex?

A

Working memory. Executive area for task management. Working memory for object recall tasks. Solving complex multitask problems.

Intellect, cognition, recall, personality.
Memory for judgment, reasoning, persistence, and conscience.

Development depends on feedback from social environment.

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4
Q

How are the sensory cortices and the associations related functionally?

A

Integrates sensory input from primary somatosensory cortex.

Determine size, texture, and relationship the parts being felt.

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5
Q

What are the four adult brain regions?

A

Cerebral hemispheres diencephalon brainstem and cerebellum

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6
Q

What is Wernicke’s area?

What functions does it serve?

What would happen to a patient with damage to this region?

A

Posterior association area.

Plays a role in recognizing patterns and faces and localizing is in space.

Involved in understanding written and spoken language.

Inability to understand or communicate.

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7
Q

What are the major functions of the thalamus?

Why is it the gateway to the cortex?

A

Sorts edits and relays information. Mediates sensation, motor activities, cortical arousal, learning, and memory.

Nuclei project and receive fibers from cerebral cortex.

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8
Q

What is the control center for autonomic functions (homeostatic control center)?

A

Hypothalamus

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9
Q

What is a major regulator for emotional responses?

A

Hypothalamus

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10
Q

What is the principal function of the midbrain?

A

Nuclei that control cranial nerves three and four.
Visual reflex centers (sup col) and auditory relay centers (inf col)

motor regulation (substantia nigra)

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11
Q

What is the main functions of the pons?

A

Relay center

Connect higher brain centers to the spinal cord.
Relay impulses between motor cortex and cerebellum.
(Some nuclei of reticular formation. Nuclei help maintain normal rhythm of breathing.)

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12
Q

What is the main function of the medulla oblongata?

A

Crossing of the pyramids (crossover of corticospinal tract).

Relay sensory information from muscles and joints to cerebellum. Cranial nerves 8,10,12.
Mediates responses that maintain equilibrium.
(Autonomic, cardiovascular and respiratory centers)

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13
Q

Is the limbic system? What does it control?

A

Emotional or affective brain. Puts emotional responses to odors.

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14
Q

Is the principal functions of Amygdala?

A

Recognizes angry or fearful facial expressions, assesses danger, and elicits the fear response.

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15
Q

What is the RAS?

What does it do and why is it important?

A

Sends impulses to the cerebral cortex to keep it conscious and alert.

Filters out repetitive and weak stimuli.

Severe injury results in permanent unconsciousness, coma.

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16
Q

What are the four principal EEG brain waves?

Which are predominant when awake and alert, awake but not thinking, and when deeply asleep?

A

Alpha waves – regular and rhythmic, awake but not thinking.

Beta waves – rhythmic, less regular waves occurring when awake and mentally alert.

Theta waves – more irregular (common in children)

Delta waves – high amplitude wave seen and deep sleep.

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17
Q

What is narcolepsy? What structure wind damage causes this disorder?

A

Lapsing abruptly into sleep from the awake state.

Hypothalamus times the sleep cycle

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18
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A

Temporary cessation of breathing during sleep.

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19
Q

What are the factors that affect transfer from STM to LTM?

A

Emotional state – best if alert, motivated, surprise, and arousal.

Rehearsal – repetition and practice

association – tying new information with all memories

automatic memory – subconscious information stored in LTM

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20
Q

What are the three meningeal membranes?

A

Dura mater

Arachnoid mater

Pia mater

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21
Q

What are the three membrane and sub meningeal spaces in order from superficial to deep?

A 
Epidural space
Dura mater
Subdural space
Arachnoid mater
Sub arachnoid space
Pia mater
Bring tissue
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22
Q

What is a CVA? TIA?

A

Cva: stroke. Blood circulation is blocked and brain tissue dies.

Tia: temporary episodes of reversible cerebral ischemia

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23
Q

What is the blood brain barrier?

What substances does it keep out, what substances does it let in?

A

Separates neurons from some blood-borne substances.

Allows nutrients to move by facilitated diffusion.
Allows any fat soluble substances to pass, including alcohol, nicotine, and anesthetics.

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24
Q

What is cerebral palsy? What is its cause?

A

Lack of oxygen during delivery.

Poor control of voluntary muscles, crippling spasticity, speech and vision difficulties, retardation, seizures.

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25
Q

What is anencephaly?

Microcephaly? Spina bifida?

A

Anen-missing part of cerebrum or brainstem vegetative

Micro-formation of small brain

SB-incomplete formation of vertebral arches

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26
Q

What is the spinal cord location?

What is the cauda equina?

A

Begins at the foramen magnum and ends at the conus medullaris L1

CE-The collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal.

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27
Q

What are the meningeal layers superficial to deep of the spinal cord.

A

Spinal dura mater

Arachnoid mater

Pia mater

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28
Q

What are the three horn of the spinal cord, what type of neurons are found in each?

A

Dorsal horn’s – enter neurons that receives somatic and visceral sensory input.
Ventral horn - somatic motor neurons whose axons exit cord via the ventral roots.
Lateral horns (thoracic lumbar) – sympathetic neurons (visceral motor fibers)

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29
Q

What is the dorsal root ganglia?

A

Contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.

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30
Q

What information is carried in ascending pathways?

A
  • Carry sensory afferent information

First order neuron – receptors to spinal cord.

Second order neuron – spinal cord to thalamus/cerebellum

Third order neurons – thalamus/cerebellum to cerebrum (Samatosensory cortex)

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31
Q

What information is carried in the spinothalamic tract? What are symptoms of damage to distract?

A

Nonspecific pathway for pain, temperature, and crude touch.

Contralateral numbness of legs

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32
Q

What information is carried in the spinocerebellar tract?

What are the symptoms of damage to this tract?

A

Conveys proprioception from muscle stretch to cerebellum.

Ipsilateral loss of leg location

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33
Q

What information is carried in descending pathways?

A

Motor efferent impulses from the brain to spinal cord.

involves upper (pyramidal cells) and lower (ventral horn) motor neurons

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34
Q

What information is carried in the lateral corticospinal tract?

What are symptoms of damage to this tract?

A

Control skilled voluntary movements. Ipsilateral paralysis of leg

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35
Q

What information is carried in the ventral corticospinal tract?

What are symptoms of damage to this tract?

A

Controls skilled voluntary movements.

Contralateral paralysis of leg.

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36
Q

What are the ascending spinal tracts?

What are the descending spinal tracts?

A

Ascending (sensory: numbness):
spinalthalamic (crossover)
Spinocerebellar (same)
Lemniscal (same)

Descending (motor: paralysis):
Ventral corticospinal (crossover)
Lateral corticospinal (same)
Rubrospinal (same)

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37
Q

Where would the transection occur for quadriplegia and paraplegia?

A

Quad-cervical region

Para-T1 and L1

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38
Q

What is epineurium, perineurium, and endoneurium?

A 
Connective tissue coverings.
Superficial to deep:
Epi
Peri
Endo
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39
Q

Why is death of cell bodies problematic in the nervous system? How is that different from damage to an Axon?

A

Death of a cell body is death to nerve.
Mature neuron amitotic.
If cell body is in tact, axon will regenerate.

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40
Q

How many spinal nerves are there? How are they divided/named?

A 
31 pairs
According to their point of issue from the spinal cord.
8 cervical (c1-c8)
12 Thor (t1-t12)
5 lum (l1-l5)
5sacral (s1-s5)
1 coccygeal (c0)
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41
Q

What fibers travel through the dorsal and ventral roots?

A

Ventral: motor fibers

dorsal: sensory fibers

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42
Q

What are the four nerve plexus?

What’s spinal roots contribute to each?

A

Cervical: ventral rami C1-4

brachial: VR C5-T1
lumbar: VR L1-4
sacral: L4-S4

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43
Q

What Plexus gives rise to the phrenic nerve? Spinal fibers?

A

Cervical

c3-5

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44
Q

What plexus gives rise to the axillary, musculocutaneous, median, ulnar, and radial nerve?

A

Brachial plexus

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45
Q

What plexus gives rise to the femoral and obturator nerve?

A

Lumbar plexus

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46
Q

What plexus gives rise to the sciatic nerve?

A

Sacral plexus

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47
Q

What are muscle spindles? What do they monitor?

A

Inform the nervous system of length of the muscle.

Reacts to muscle stretch and proceed to contract the agonist while relaxing the antagonist.
Stretch reflex are monosynaptic and ipsilateral.
Reciprocal inhibition is polysynaptic and ipsilateral.

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48
Q

What are golgi tendon organs? What did they monitor?

A

Organs that inform the brain as to the amount of tension in the muscle and tendons.
Prevent excessive stretch inhibit contracting agonist, activate antagonist

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49
Q

What sensor contributes to the knee-jerk reflex?

A

Stretch reflex

50
Q

Describe the flexor and crossed extensor reflexes.

A

Flexor: initiated by painful stimulus, causes automatic withdrawal of threatened body part.

Crossed: occurs with flexor reflexes in weight-bearing lambs to maintain balance. Ipsilateral flexor contralateral extensor reflex.

51
Q

What is the plantar reflex? What is Babinski sign?

A

Stroking lateral aspect of the soul of the foot. Response: downward flexion of the toes.
BAB-response: Dorsiflexion of hallux and fanning of toes. Present in infants due to incomplete myelination. Adults – indicates corticospinal or motor cortex damage.

52
Q

What are mechanoreceptors

A

(mechanical)

Respond to touch, pressure Baroreceptor, vibration, stretch, itch

53
Q

What are baroreceptors?

A

Pressure

54
Q

What are Thermo receptors?

A

Sensitive to changes in temperature

Cold receptor in superficial dermis, heat receptors in deeper dermis.

55
Q

What are photo receptors?

A

Respond to light energy (retina)

56
Q

What are chemoreceptors?

A

Chemical

Respond to chemicals, smell, taste, changes in blood chemistry.

57
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

Sensitive to pain causing stimuli

58
Q

What are proprioreceptors?

A

Informs the brain of one’s movement. Response to stretch of skeletal muscles, tendons, joints, ligaments, connective tissue coverings

59
Q

What is adaption? What receptors are adaptive what receptors or not?

A

Change in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus.
Phasic

Tonic

60
Q

What is phasic and tonic?

A

Phasic-(fast adapting) receptors signal beginning or end of stimulus.
(Pressure, touch, smell)

Tonic-receptors do not adapt
(nociceptors and propriocepters)

61
Q

Which nerves controls each of the six extrinsic eye muscles?

A

Abducens: lateral rectus (moves eye laterally)
Oculomotor: medial (moves Eye medially), superior (elevates eye and turns medially), and inferior rectus (depresses and turns medially), inferior oblique (elevates and turns laterally).

Trochlear: superior oblique (depresses eye and turns it laterally)

62
Q

What structures are part of the fibrous coat?

A

Sclera, cornea

63
Q

What structures are a part of the vascular coat?

A

Choroid region: brown pigment absorbs light to prevent visual confusion.

Ciliary body: smooth muscle bundles control in shape.

Iris (and pupil: regulates amount of light entering): Close vision and bright light (para), distant vision and dim light(sym)

64
Q

What structures are part of the sensors coat?

A

Retina: absorbs light and prevents it scattering

Neural layer: transmit and process light energy

65
Q

What controls the opening and closing of the iris? Why?

A

Sphincter pupillae: Circular muscles, decrease pupil size (Close vision Brightlight)

Dilator pupillae: Radial muscles contraction increases pupil size (distant and Dim)

66
Q

What is the optic disc?

A

Site where optic nerve leaves the eye. Blind spot

67
Q

What are rods and cones?

A

Photo receptors.

Rods: operate in the dim lowlight

Cones: operate in bright light, provide color vision

68
Q

Is the pathway light takes through the eye.

A

Cornea
anterior chamber of anterior segment pupil/iris
posterior chamber of anterior segment lens
vitreous humor of posterior segment retina: ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photo receptors (rods/cones)

69
Q

Where are the bipolar neurons found?

A

In the neural layer of the retina. Between photo receptors and ganglion cells.

70
Q

What is the lens? Why is it important?

A

Biconvex, transparent, flexible, elastic, and avascular.

Allows precise focusing of light on the retina.

71
Q

What is rhodopsin? How was it involved with vision?

A

Rod, Visual pigment, light strikes it and a chemical reaction occurs.

Accumulates in the dark.

72
Q

Where is the olfactory epithelium?

A

Roof of the nasal cavity.

73
Q

Where are bipolar neurons in the olfactory system?

A

Bipolar neurons with radiating olfactory cilia pass through the olfactory foramina in the cribriform plate

74
Q

What are papilla?

Where are taste buds found?

A

Taste buds

Found on the tongue

Roof of mouth, pharynx, and esophagus

75
Q

What are the five primary taste sensations?

A

Sweet, flour, salt, bitter, umami

76
Q

Cranial nerves are involved in Gustatory/taste?

A

7,9, and 10
Facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus
Carry impulses from taste buds to the solitary nucleus of the Medulla.

77
Q

What other factors can influence the taste sensations?

What is the chemical trigger for spicy?

A

Taste is 80% smell

Taste: Thermoreceptor
Texture: mechanoreceptors
Pain: nociceptor *hot pepper

78
Q

What are the two special senses monitored in the ear?

A

Hearing and equilibrium

79
Q

What is the tympanic membrane?

A

Eardrum
Boundary between external and middle ear.
Connective tissue membrane that vibrates in response to sound.

Transfer sound energy to the bones in the middle ear.

80
Q

What is the pharyngotympanic/auditory tube?

Function does it serve?

A

Middle ear.
Connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx.
Equalizes pressure in the middle ear cavity with the external ear pressure.

81
Q

What are the ossicles?

What order do sound waves travel through them?

A

Three small bones in the Tympanic cavity: malleus, incus, stapes

82
Q

Where is the equilibrium monitored in the ear?

A

Vestibule sacs (macula), ampulla semicircular canals (crista ampullaris)

83
Q

What is the difference between static/linear and dynamic/angular equilibrium?

A

Vestibule responds to gravity, linear.

Semicircular Canal responds to angular.

84
Q

Describe the three tubes of the cochlea.

A

Scala vestibuli: abuts the oval window, contains perilymph
Scala media: contains endolymph
Scala tympani: terminates at the round window, contains perilymph

85
Q

What is the spiral Organ/organ of corti? What does a detect?

A

Floor of cochlear duct.

Sound

86
Q

What is the relationship between frequency, amplitude, pitch, and volume?

A

Frequency represents pitch. Number of waves that pass a given point in a given time.

Amplitude represents loudness. The height of the crests.

87
Q

List the pathway sound takes through the auditory system.

A 
Auricle/pinna
Tympanic membrane
Ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes
Oval window 
cochlea: Scala vestibuli, Scala media, organ of Corti, scala of tympani
Round window
88
Q

Why are mechanic gates needed in the organ of corti?

A

Bending of stereocilia opens mechanically gated ion channels to send impulses to the brain

89
Q

What is the difference between conduction and sensorineural deafness?

A

Conduction: block sound conduction to the fluids of the internal ear. (hearing aids help)

Sensorineural: damage to the neural structures at any point from the cochlear hair cells to the auditory cortical cells (brain).

90
Q

What is the macula in the saccule and utricle?

A

Sensory receptors for static equilibrium (mechanically gated)

Linear acceleration forces

91
Q

What is the crista ampullaris in the semicircular canals?

A

Sensory receptor for dynamic equilibrium.

Mechanically gated

92
Q

What are the effectors of the somatic motor system?

A

Skeletal muscle

93
Q

What are the effectors of that autonomic motor system?

A

Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands

94
Q

What are preganglionic and postganglionic neurons?

How is this different from somatic motor?

A

ANS pathway is a two neuron chain. 1.

Preganglionic neuron:first neuron in CNS, (spine to ganglion) lightly myelinated

Postganglionic neuron: second neuron, (pregang to effector organ) Unmyelinated

  • somatic nervous system: one thick heavily myelinated motor fiber makes the pathway.
95
Q

What neurotransmitters are used in the somatic motor system?

A

ACH, always stimulatory

96
Q

What neurotransmitters are used by preganglionic parasympathetic neurons?

A

Preganglionic fibers all release ACH

97
Q

What neurotransmitter are used by postganglionic parasympathetic neurons?

A

ACH

98
Q

What neurotransmitters are used by preganglionic sympathetic neurons?

A

Preganglionic fibers all release ACH

99
Q

What neurotransmitters are used by most postganglionic sympathetic neurons?

A

Postganglionic fibers release norepinephrine (sympathetic)

100
Q

What is dual innervation?

Why are most visceral organs dually innervated?

A

Being served by both divisions, sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

Cause opposite effects.

Balancing each other out

101
Q

What are the general functions of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Rest and digest.
Decreased: HR, BP, RR

Increases: secretions for digestion, defecation and urination.

Constricts peoples, lenses for close vision.

102
Q

What are the general functions of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Fight or flight system.

Increased: Bloodflow to skeletal muscles, HR, BP, RR, sweat glands are toe pili muscle contraction, metabolite rate, blood glucose
Decreased: blood flow and energy used by digestive organs

Dilates peoples

103
Q

What is the parasympathetic nerve that innervates the heart?

A

Vagus. Within the walls of target organs.

Heart, lungs, and most visceral organs

104
Q

Where do parasympathetic nerve arise from in the CNS?

A

Craniosacral division (Brain and butt)

Long pre-short post

(In the visceral effector organ)

105
Q

Where do the sympathetic nerve arise from in the CNS?

A

Thoracolumbar
(Back)
Short pre-long post
(Close to spinal cord)

106
Q

What is referred pain?

What determines where a referred pain will be felt?

A

Visceral sensory pain

Travel along the same path way as somatic pain fibers, brain cannot distinguish difference.

107
Q

What are the symptoms of a heart attack?

A

Sudden chest pain leading to left arm, shortness of breath, sweating, palpitations, and anxiety.

108
Q

What are cholinergic fibers?

What do they respond to?

A

Release Neurotransmitter ach

ALL autonomic sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic axons

All parasympathetic postganglionic axons

109
Q

What are adrenergic fibers? What do they respond to?

A

Release neurotransmitter NE

most sympathetic postganglionic axons

110
Q

What muscles and neurons use nicotinic receptors? Are those stimulatory or inhibitory?

A

All skeletal muscles, all postganglionic neurons (receiving ACH preganglion)

Always stimulatory

111
Q

What visceral receptor for parasympathetic’s and rare sympathetics using ACH are used? Are these stimulatory or inhibitory?

A

Muscarinic

Inhibitory (cardiac ) or excitatory (smooth muscle)

112
Q

What are the five types of adrenergic receptors?

A

Alpha (sub a1 a2)

Beta (sub b1, b2, b3)

113
Q

What are the organ effects of the five types of adrenergic receptors?

A

A1-pupil dilation, vasoconstriction (blood vessels)
A2-inhibits pancreas insulin secretion, promotes blood clotting
B1-increases heart rate and contractility
B2-bronchial dilation (open air flow), digestive inhibition
B3-fat lipolysis

114
Q

What are beta lockers? What are the effects of beta-2 blockers?

A

Prevent epinephrine from stimulating these receptors.

Dilate long bronchioles in asthmatics

115
Q

What is a Sympathomimetic drug? What affects what they have?

A

Agonist for NE (sym mimic)
Adrenergic recep

Enhance sympathetic activity by increasing NE release or binding to adrenergic receptor

  • for things like asthma or colds
116
Q

What is sympatholytic drug? What affects what they have?

A

Antagonist for NE
(Sympathetic breaking)
Adrenergic recep

Decrease sympathetic activity by blocking adrenergic receptors or inhibiting NE release

  • for things like hypertension
117
Q

What is sympathetic tone (vasomotor tone)?

A

Keeps the blood vessels in a continual state of partial constriction

118
Q

What is parasympathetic tone? Why is this important in the resting heart and digestion?

A

Parasympathetic normally dominates heart and smooth muscle of digestive and urinary tract

Slows the heart, dictates normal activity levels of digestive and urinary tracts

119
Q

How are sympathetic and parasympathetic cooperative in reproduction?

A

Parasympathetic fibers cause vasodilation, erection

Sympathetic fibers cause ejaculation

120
Q

What are the two types of cholinergic receptors?

A

Nicotinic

Muscarinic

121
Q

What are the two types of Adrenergic receptors?

A

Alpha

Beta

Anatomy & Physiology 210 (21 decks)

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