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Histo > TBL 6 (Module III) > Flashcards

TBL 6 (Module III) Flashcards

(100 cards)

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1
Q

What are the components (cell types) of the innate immune system?

A

Macrophages, natural killer (NK) cells, neutrophils

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2
Q

How do macrophages recognize bacterium?

A

Toll-like receptors

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3
Q

What are the stages of macrophage maturation?

A

HPS, CMP, progenitor cells, mono blast, monocyte, macrophage

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4
Q

Are neutrophils phagocytotic?

A

No

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5
Q

Are neutrophils antigen presenting cells?

A

No

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6
Q

What are the functions of natural killer cells?

A

NK cells: give of cytokines in response to signaling from other immune cells; also force tumor cells, virus infected cells, bacteria, parasites, fungi to commit suicide

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7
Q

What are the components of the adaptive immune system?

A

T cells, B cells and antibodies

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8
Q

What are the two structural components of antibodies?

A

Fab regions and Fc regions

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9
Q

What is the function of antibody Fab regions?

A

Antigen binding

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10
Q

What is the function of antibody Fc regions?

A

Determines class

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11
Q

What are the functions of antibodies?

A

Opsonization (prime phagocytes) and neutralizing (bind to an extracellular virus, prevent it from entering/replicating)

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12
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

Bone marrow

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13
Q

Where to T cells differentiate?

A

Thymus

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14
Q

What type of cell in the adaptive immune system requires an antigen-presenting cell to recognize antigens?

A

T cells

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15
Q

What are the 3 types of T cells?

A

Killer (cytotoxic) T cells, helper T cells, and regulatory T cells

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16
Q

What is the function of killer T cells?

A

Killing virally infected cells by assisted suicide

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17
Q

What cells possess major histocompatibility complex protein I (MHC I)?

A

Every nucleated cell in the body

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18
Q

What cells possess MHC II?

A

Antigen presenting cells

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19
Q

Which major histocompatibility complex protein alerts killer T cells of problems inside cells?

A

MHC I

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20
Q

Which major histocompatibility complex protein alerts helper T cells of problems outside cells?

A

MHC II

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21
Q

Where do T cells originate?

A

Bone marrow (they only differentiate in the thymus)

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22
Q

What cells are classified as lymphocytes?

A

B cells, T cells, NK cells

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23
Q

What lymphoid cells are classified as accessory cells?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells, follicular dendritic cells

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24
Q

What do macrophages originate from?

A

Monocytes

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25
What do dendritic cells originate from?
Monocytes
26
What organs are primary lymphatic organs?
Bone marrow and thymus
27
What organs are secondary lymphatic organs?
Lymphatic nodules, lymph nodes, tonsils and spleen
28
What is the origin of lymphoid stem cells?
Immunocompetent T cells in the thymus
29
What type of T cell loses CD8 in its maturation process?
Th, helper T cells
30
What type of T cell loses CD4 in its maturation process?
Killer T cells
31
What type(s) of epithelioreticular cell separates the thymic capsule from the cortex
Type I ERC
32
What type(s) of epithelioreticular cell separates the thymic cortex from the medulla?
Type III an type IV ERC
33
Describe the relative cellularity of the thymic medulla and cortex
Medulla has relatively low cellularity
34
What type(s) of ERC's reside in the thymic cortex?
Type II ERC
35
What type(s) of ERC's reside in the medulla?
Type V and Type VI ERC's
36
What type of ERC is associated with Hassall's corpuscle?
Type VI ERC's
37
What is the purpose of the blood-thymic barrier?
To prevent antigen interference with T cell maturation
38
What are the functions of lymph nodes?
Filter lymph, lymphocyte proliferation, antibody production, recirculation of lymphocytes
39
What are the components of the lymph node parenchyma?
Cortex, paracortex, medulla
40
What is lymph node stroma composed of?
Reticular cells and reticular fibers
41
What is contained in the lymph node cortex?
Lymphoid nodules (B lymphocytes), primary and secondary follicles
42
What is contained in the lymph node paracortex?
T lymphocytes, high endothelial venules
43
What is contained in the lymph node medulla?
Medullary cords (plasma cells)
44
How do the majority of lymphocytes enter lymph nodes?
Through artery (not lymphatic vessel), and exit through HEV
45
What part of lymph nodes contain predominantly B cells?
The cortex
46
What are the two components of the spleen parenchyma?
White pulp and red pulp
47
What are the contents of the spleen's red pulp?
Splenic cords and sinusoids
48
What are the contents of the spleen's white pulp?
Central arteriole, PALS, corona, germinal center
49
What is the splenic stroma comprised of?
Reticular cells and reticular fibers
50
What is the function of the white pulp of the spleen?
Lymphocyte proliferation, APC's, antibody production, and removing blood antigens
51
What is the function of the red pulp of the spleen?
Removing blood antigens, damaged RBC's and platelets. Additionally, retrieval of iron via macrophage phagocytosis occurs here.
52
What are PALS?
PALS stands for periarteriolar lymphatic sheath, they consist of mature T lymphocytes that surround central arterioles
53
What are splenic sinusoids responsible for?
Filtering RBC's
54
What surrounds sheathed arterioles in splenic red pulp?
Macrophages
55
What types of cells exist in splenic cords?
Macrophages, plasma cells and lymphocytes
56
What are the two components of blood?
Protein rich plasma and cells (RBCs, WBCs, platelets)
57
What are erythrocytes?
Red blood cells
58
What is the difference between plasma and serum?
Serum lacks fibrinogen
59
Define anisocytosis
When someone's red blood cells are unequal sizes. Commonly seen in anemia.
60
What are 2 histologic signs of anemia caused by iron deficiency?
Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
61
Describe the cause and resultant symptoms of hereditary spherocytosis
Spectrin deficiency causes defects in membrane cytoskeleton, leading to spherical RBCs which lack central pallor
62
Describe the cause and resultant symptoms of hereditary elliptocytosis
Defective association of spectrin subunits, defective binding of spectrin to ankyrin, or protein 4.1 defects cause oval-shaped RBCs
63
What clinical features are common to both hereditary spherocytosis and elliptocytosis?
Splenomegaly, anemia, jaundice
64
What genetic defect causes sickle cell anemia?
Glutamic acid replaced by valine at 6th position on beta chain
65
What are some common symptoms of sickle cell anemia?
Chronic hemolytic anemia, obstruction of post capillary venules
66
Which leukocytes are classified as agranulocytes?
Monocytes and lymphocytes
67
Which leukocytes are classified as Granulocytes?
Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils
68
Describe the nuclear appearance of granulocytes
Polymorphonuclear (multi lobed)
69
Describe the nuclear appearance of agranulocytes
Mononuclear (non lobed)
70
How do leukocytes exit circulation?
Diapedesis
71
"Band cells" are immature versions of what cell?
Neutrophils
72
Which leukocyte is associated with acute inflammatory reactions?
Neutrophils
73
Which leukocyte contains elastase, defenses, myeloperoxidase, lactoferrin and gelatinase?
Neutrophils
74
Which leukocyte has a red colored cytoplasm?
Eosinophils
75
What leukocyte is the primary defense against parasites?
Eosinophils
76
What are crystalloids? What type of leukocyte are they found in?
Dense filamentous core of major basic proteins; eosinophils
77
What is contained in eosinophil specific granules?
Eosinophil peroxidase, major basic protein
78
Which leukocyte can cause basophils to release histamine?
Eosinophils (via eosinophil cationic protein)
79
Which leukocyte neutralizes heparin?
Eosinophils (via eosinophil-derived neurotoxin)
80
Which type of leukocyte increases vascular permeability?
Basophils
81
Which type of leukocyte has a function "similar to mast cells"?
Basophils
82
What is contained in basophil granules?
Heparin, chondroitin sulphate, histamine, IL4
83
Which type of leukocyte has a kidney shaped nucleus?
Monocytes
84
What would neutrophilia result in?
Bacterial infections
85
What would eosinophilia result in?
Parasitic infection, some allergies
86
What would lymphocytosis result in?
Viral infections
87
What would neutropenia result in?
Damage to bone marrow, increased destruction of neutrophils
88
What would lymphopenia result in?
Autoimmune diseases
89
What cells have a peripheral clear area called a hyalomere?
Platelets
90
What are the 3 types of granules contained in platelets?
Alpha (PDGF, fibrinogen), delta (calcium, ADP,ATP), lambda (lysosomes)
91
Define thrombocytopenia
Reduction in platelets
92
What symptoms result from thrombocytopenia?
Increased susceptibility to bleeding, bacteria or fungal infection
93
What are 3 possible causes of thrombocytopenia?
Decrease in number of platelets, increased destruction of platelets, aggregation of platelets in microvasculature
94
What are the 2 types of hematopoiesis?
Myeloid and lymphoid
95
What types of cells are produced by lymphoid hematopoesis?
T cell and B cell
96
What types of cells are produced by myeloid hematopoesis?
Basophils, eosinophils, megakaryocytes (becomes platelet), granulocyte/macrophage CFU, erythroid CFU
97
State the order of erythropoiesis
Proerythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatic erythroblast, orthochromatic erythroblast, reticulocyte
98
State the order of granulopoesis
Myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte
99
What dietary component is needed for DNA synthesis, and thus greatly impacts the production of RBCs?
Folic acid
100
T-lymphocytes are most likely to undergo antigenic stimulated proliferation in what tissue?
Deep cortex (paracortex) of the lymph node

Histo (13 decks)

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