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Systems Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

The CL-600-2C10 (700) is equipped with how many seats? What’s the range?

A

69 seats

1700NM RANGE

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2
Q

The CL-600-2D24 (900) is equipped with how many seats? What’s the range?

A

76 seats

2005NM RANGE

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3
Q

CF34-8C (8C1 and 8C5B1) produce ______ lbs of normal takeoff thrust

A

12,600 (700)

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4
Q

CF34-8C5 produce ______ lbs of normal takeoff thrust

A

13,600

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5
Q

How many emergency exits does the 700 have?

A

5

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6
Q

How many emergency exits does the 900 have

A

7

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7
Q

What is the minimum width required to make a 180° turn in the 700 or 900?

A

700 = 75 feet

900 = 80 feet

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8
Q

What compartments on the CRJ 900 are unpressurized

A

Aft equipment bay

Landing gear bay

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9
Q

What is Max VMO/MMO

A

VMO = .85

MMO = 335 KIAS

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10
Q

What is max airspeed for turbulent air penetration?

A

.75 Mach/280 KIAS, Which ever is lower

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11
Q

What is the minimum ambient air temperature approved for takeoff?

A

-40°C

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12
Q

What is the maximum ambient air temperature approved for takeoff and landing?

A

ISA +35°C

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13
Q

What compartments on the CRJ 900 are pressurized? (5)

A

Flight deck,
Passenger cabin,
Avionics bay (in the belly),
FWD and AFT cargo compartments

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14
Q

What is the required equipment for RVSM airspace?

A

Autopilot
altitude alerting system
2 altitude transponders (1 working)
2 ADCs (2 working)

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15
Q

What is the maximum weight in the AFT baggage compartment in the CRJ 900?

A

3,650lbs

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16
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry runway for the CRJ 700?

A

28 takeoff

30 landing

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17
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry run away for the CRJ 900?

A

35 takeoff

32 landing

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18
Q

Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry run away for a crewmember on high minimum’s status? PIC & SIC

A

PIC is 25

SIC is 15

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19
Q

What is the tire speed limit for the 700 and the 900?

A

700 = 182 Groundspeed

900 = 195 Groundspeed

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20
Q

Which two doors are not shown on the DOORS a synoptic page?

A

The blow hole & the butt hole!!!

the emergency crew escape hatch & the aft equipment bay door.

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21
Q

The CRJ 700 has __ FWD cargo bay door(s) and __ over wing emergency exits

A

1 FWD cargo bay door

2 over wing emergency exits

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22
Q

The CRJ 900 has __ FWD cargo bay door(s) and __ over wing emergency exits

A

2 FWD cargo bay doors

4 over wing emergency exit

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23
Q

If a rapid decompression occurs, which protection feature has been built into the flight deck door?

A

Decompression panels that open inward

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24
Q

What should never occur during power switching?

A

Operating the door assist motor

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25
Q

What color are Advisory and Status messages?

A

Advisory = green

Status = white

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26
Q

The _________ are the heart of the EICAS and collect and display data from all aircraft systems

A

DCUs (Data concentrator units)

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27
Q

Can you box a caution message?

A

Yes and it will stay boxed

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28
Q

Can you box a status message?

A

Yes, and they will unboxed if others appear. Low priority failures

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29
Q

How will an EDV crewmembers respond to an abnormal message?

A

Fly, cancel, identify malfunction, read checklist, don’t hurry.

PF: “Confirm, QRH, ______”

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30
Q

What happens if ED1 fails in flight?

A

Primary page will automatically switch over to ED2

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31
Q

How can you display EICAS pages on the MFD?

A

Select Display Revisionary Control Panel (on each pilots side)

& Source Selector Panel (Center pedestal)

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32
Q

Can you always box EICAS messages on the ground?

A

Both engines must be stabilized to box MSGs on the ground

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33
Q

If the MFD fails, can you display it on another screen?

A

No

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34
Q

When will the N1 vibration gauges display?

A

When engine oil pressure and temperature is stabilized

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35
Q

What indications are not always displayed on the EICAS displays?

A

Gear
Flaps
Brake temperatures
(Declutter)

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36
Q

If the EICAS Control Panel (ECP) fails, which buttons remain operative?

A

PRI
CAS
STAT
STEP

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37
Q

Can you DIM a master warning/caution switch light?

A

Yes - switch is BRT or DIM

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38
Q

Can the volume for the oral warning to be turned down?

A

Nooooo

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39
Q

What 6 things might give you a takeoff configuration warning?

A 
Flaps
Spoilers
Parking Brake
Autopilot
TRIM of Aileron/Rudder/Horizontal STAB
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40
Q

Would you receive a GEN 1 OVLD message during takeoff roll?

A

No

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41
Q

What are the 3 phases of EICAS Warning & Caution message inhibit logic, and when are they ENABLED?

A

Initial Takeoff Phase (79%+ N1, WOW, <100 knots)

Final Takeoff Phase (79%+ N1, >100 knots)

Landing Phase (transition to LESS than 400’ RA, gear down & locked)

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42
Q

When would you receive the GEN 1 OVLD message AFTER takeoff?

A

Above 400’ RA OR 30 seconds after air to ground transition

this is when the Landing Phase inhibit logic is removed

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43
Q

When would you receive a passenger door warning AFTER landing?

A

30 seconds after air to ground, or greater than 400’ RA (go around) 

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44
Q

At what N1 speed will both Takeoff Inhibits be removed?

A

When L & R engine N1 is LESS than 67.6%

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45
Q

Would you receive a GEN 1OVLD message DURING the takeoff roll?

A

No

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46
Q

Would you receive a PASSENGER DOOR warning DURING landing?

A

No

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47
Q

Where are the switches for the emergency lighting?

A

Flight deck and flight attendants panel

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48
Q

When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically?

A

AC or DC essential bus power failure when the EMER LTS switch (flight deck switch only) is in the ARM position

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49
Q

The photo luminescent floor track tapes must be exposed to light for at least ___ minutes to become luminous. Exposure of ___ minutes will give them maximum duration

A

15 mins

30 mins

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50
Q

Is there a back up source to provide power to the emergency lights?

A

Yes, 5 independent rechargeable battery packs will provide 10 minutes of power

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51
Q

Which lights turn on when selecting RECOG/TAXI lights?

A

Inboard lights

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52
Q

Which lights come on when selecting L or R landing lights?

A

Both L/R landing and RECOG lights (inboard and outboard)

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53
Q

Which light switches caused the FDR to turn on?

A

Beacon or Strobe or WOW detected 

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54
Q

Which lights are powered in the DC service configuration?

A 
NAV
LAV
DOME
Galley
boarding
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55
Q

You see that the EMER LTS switch is still ON after a/c shutdown. What is the proper way to turn them OFF?

A

BATT master switch on, EMER LTS switch OFF, BATT master switch off

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56
Q

The taxi lights must be switched off whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of ___ minutes

A

10

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57
Q

When SEAT BLTS switch is selected to AUTO in the cockpit, the seatbelt symbol/chime happens automatically when: (3)

A

Landing gear is selected down, flaps not in zero, cabin altitude reaches 8500 feet

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58
Q

Would you ever see a water/waste indication in the cockpit?

A

Never, there are no cockpit indications for this system

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59
Q

How many water panels/systems are there for the CRJ 900?

A

2 - FWD for forward sink and coffee makers. AFT for after lavatory sink.

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60
Q

How are the 3 quick don oxygen masks in the cockpit supplied with oxygen?

A

By 1 oxygen cylinder on the captains side, hidden in the wall.

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61
Q

During preflight flight, how can you tell if the oxygen cylinder supply for the quick Don oxygen masks in the cockpit has been vented/over pressurized? what about if the oxygen pressure is too low?

A

The green overboard discharge indicator will have left the aircraft.

OXY LO PRESS Caution message on EICAS.

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62
Q

Where in the flight deck do you find oxygen system pressure information?

A 
STATUS page 
(Normal pressurization for the quick done oxygen masks cylinder is 1850 psi)
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63
Q

Where do you find the 4 fire extinguishers on the aircraft?

A

Flight deck,
FWD entrance,
FWD wardrobe,
AFT bulkhead in cabin (water)

64
Q

True or false: bottled oxygen is provided for all flight deck crew members during an emergency.

A

True

65
Q

True or false: passengers AND flight attendants are provided with chemical oxygen generators, that are activated by pulling down on the masks and following deployment.

A

True

FA’s are at their seats

66
Q

True or false: personal breathing equipment (PBE) Accompany each fire extinguisher Station

A

True - Within 3 feet

67
Q

How long will the PBE provide adequate air supply?

A

For 15 minutes

68
Q

How can the passenger oxygen masks be dropped manually or automatically? (3)

A

Manually with a paper clip, guarded PASS OXY switch to ON in the cockpit, or they will drop automatically at 14,000’ cabin pressure altitude +/- 300’

69
Q

How long will the passenger oxygen generator supply oxygen?

A

13 minutes to each mask.

70
Q

When cabin altitude is above _____ feet the crew masks supply pure oxygen, regardless of the N/100% switch position

A

30,000’

71
Q

What does CPAM stand for?

A

Cabin pressure Acquisition module - Third level of automatic control.

72
Q

Where are the dispatch requirements for oxygen v crew members found?

A

The ODH - Oxygen quantity/temperature chart

73
Q

How many oxygen supplies do FAs have?

A

2 - The drop down masks at their seats, and portable oxygen bottles!

74
Q

Will every aircraft have Life jackets for passengers?

A

Only the extended overwater operations aircraft

75
Q

What is the primary and secondary purpose of the APU?

A

Primary = provide electrical power.

Secondary = provide bleed air.

76
Q

Who is the APUs BFF? Can one live without the other?

A

The ECU (electronic control unit)

Controls everything regarding the APU, including the APU Load Control Valve

77
Q

Which ECP (EICAS Control Panel) button accesses the page where fuel can be reset?

A

MENU

78
Q

Pressing CAS button on the ECP will do what to caution messages or status messages?

A

Box them!

79
Q

Pressing STAT button on the ECP will allow you to do what?

A

Go through other pages on the ED2

80
Q

Where do you go if a non-EICAS message displays?

A

Still the QRH - Non-EICAS EMERGENCY/ABNORMAL Procedures

81
Q

What is the maximum allowable time for utilizing DC power on the ground?

A

5 mins

82
Q

ED1 is the _____ page, and ED2 is the _____ page

A

ED1 = Primary

ED2 = Status

83
Q

What is the DAD stack?

A

Display control panel, air data reference panel, display revisionary panel

84
Q

What is the RTU?

A

Radio tuning unit

85
Q

Tell me about the wings on the CRJ 700 and 900

A 
700 = 76’ 3” wingspan
900 = 81’ 6” wingspan

Wet wing, high loading, aluminum anti-ice, equipped with leading edge slats, winglets

86
Q

What unit controls the priority of warnings, caution, and other information from being displayed or inhibited on the EICAS/ED1 & ED2?

A

2 DCUs - Data concentrator units. The DCU is the heart of EICAS!

Located in the avionics bay, will put first priority at the top of the list.

87
Q

Will the APU provide automatic fire protection and flight?

A

No, only on the ground will the squibs and bottles discharge automatically in response to a fire

88
Q

The APU’s BFF , ____, along with the ______ will restrict the load control valve’s (LCVs) pneumatic output during periods of abnormally high EGT, and command the LCV to close as a result of interlock protection?

A

ECU, along with the ACSC1 (Air conditioning system controller 1)

89
Q

What is the purpose of the load control valve? (LCV)

A

To MONITOR EGT, and MODULATE the amount of APU bleed air being taken/backflow.

if you’re drawing too much BLEED AIR from the APU, the temperature will increase, possibly overheating the APU

90
Q

What is the APU DOOR airspeed limitation when OPEN/position unknown “- - - - -“?

A

220 knots

91
Q

After the APU START status message on the EICAS has extinguished in flight, an immediate restart of the APU can be initiated when RPM is below ____%

A

12%

92
Q

Tell me about the APU

A

It is a single stage centrifugal impeller, and a two stage axial flow mini engine.

Equipped with a 2 loop fire detection system with self discharging bottles.

AGB with an oil reservoir.

Exhaust duct and an Eductor.

Primary purpose of supplying electrical power, and a secondary purpose of providing bleed air to Pax and air conditioning and to be used for engine start.

93
Q

Describe the critical rotation speed of the APU and why it is important:

A

The critical rotation speed is between 4% & 30% RPM.

Rpm below 4% does not produce enough heat to cause bearing damage.

Rpm above 30% ensure sufficient cooling oil is available for proper bearing lubrication.

94
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required to start the APU?

A

22 v

95
Q

What are the limitations of the APU starter?

A
  • 2 minute delay must be observed between cranking attempts (to allow for cooling)
  • The APU starter motor duty cycle is limited to no more than 3 starts OR start attempts, in 1 hour

(Systems Manual 20-11)

96
Q

How many batteries are required to start the APU?

A

2 - APU and MAIN

97
Q

What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switch light is selected on the GROUND?

A

Initiates the APU pre-start sequence: DIGS

Door opens, APU IN-BITE (appears for 3 secs), gauges energize (RPM & EGT), SOV open

98
Q

What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switch light is selected in the AIR?

A

The in-flight start sequence is the same as the ground start sequence except the Door does not open Until the START/STOP switch light is selected. (This logic prevents potential windmilling of the APU)

99
Q

What happens when you press the START/STOP switch light on the APU during start and shut down on the GROUND/AIR?

A

When pressed in: starter motor energized and start light (white) illuminates. At 50% RPM, START light extinguishers. At 99% RPM, and two seconds later, AVAIL lights (green) Illuminates.

When pressed: green AVAIL switch light extinguishes, APU fuel shut off solenoid closes, APU RPM and EGT decreases, APU intake door closes when RPM below 25%, EICAS “DOOR CLSD” displayed…..

When PWR/FUEL switch pressed: APU RPM and EGT gauges are removed from the status page after approximately 10 seconds

100
Q

When can you restart the APU following a normal shut down?

A

After the door closes, or observing a two-minute cranking limitation

101
Q

From which tank does the APU draw fuel?

A

Left collector tank

102
Q

Which pump provides pressurized fuel to the APU

A

The APU Distribution manifold/fuel pump

103
Q

If the APU pump were to fail, how would the APU be able to continue running?

A

The gearbox driven pump will supply fuel pressure through a bypass valve in the APU fuel metering unit

104
Q

What does the green AVAIL light indicate on the APU START/STOP push button?

A

The APU is available for electrical loading!

105
Q

From what component does the APU receive intake and cooling air, where is the component located?

A

The APU air intake door. Located on the upper right rear of the fuselage.

(opens outward and into the airstream!)

106
Q

Which 2 FLIGHT DECK buttons will close the APU SOV?

A

APU FIRE PUSH (glare shield)

 PWR/FUEL Switch (APU control panel)

107
Q

How is the APU enclosure cooled?

A

Exhaust EDUCTOR utilizing RAM air & creating a high velocity Venturi effect !!!!

108
Q

Name 3 times the APU will shut down automatically in the air:

A

There are many.

  1. Fire detected
  2. Loss of over speed protection
  3. No acceleration (<0.05% for 15 sec)
  4. DC BATT power loss
  5. ECU internal failure

(Systems manual 20-15)

109
Q

What affects APU Door position in Flight? (3)

A

Mach number, APU RPM, WOW

110
Q

What info about the APU is always on the STATUS page?

A

DOOR position

111
Q

How will the system address an APU fire on the ground?

A

Shut off automatically by activating squibs and bottles.

112
Q

How can the APU be manually shut down from the flight deck when in the air? (3) What about from outside the aircraft? (2)

A

APU fire push, START/STOP, PWR/FUEL.

From outside: switch inside the APU compartment & switch on external service panel

113
Q

What is the maximum altitude for:

  • APU start
  • APU operations
  • Using bleed air
  • Using the APU for engine starting
A

Start = 37,000 feet

Operations = 41,000 feet

For using bleed air = 25,000 feet

For engine starting = 21,000 feet ???

114
Q

The maximum load on the APU GEN is _____ kVA

A

40 KVA

115
Q

What is the minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?

A

-40°C

116
Q

Is there any limitation on bleed air extraction from the APU for engine start on the ground?

A

There is no limitation, each engine may use this as a source.

117
Q

What 3 indications will you see on the STATUS page regarding the APU?

A

EGT, RPM, door status

118
Q

If you receive an “APU FAULT” caution, it can be attributed to:

A

Abnormal oil system reading

119
Q

In regards to the APU, what controls the fuel control unit (FCU) ?

What controls the fuel solenoid valve? Does the FSV fail open or closed?

A

The ECU (Electronic control unit) Controls the FCU, and the FCU controls the fuel solenoid valve.

FSV fails closed. (We care more about the APU SOV)

120
Q

True or false: the APU provides bleed air for anti-systems

A

False

121
Q

On the ground, the APU has priority for providing bleed air for aircraft start unless __________ is turned on, then the APU will automatically isolate, and ENGINE bleed air will be routed for this

A

Anti-ice

122
Q

True or false: 2 integrated IDGs, an APU, ADG, and external power can all be used as AC power sources

A

True

123
Q

The ______ allows the IDG to always spin at a constant RPM

A

CSDs (Constant speed drives)

124
Q

IDG1 and I DG2 on the AC ELEC synoptic pages really represent:

A

CSD1 & CSD2

125
Q

Following a HOT/LOP condition in the CSD, the FAULT light will illuminate and IDG1/2 caution message will present. How can the IDG be disconnected?

A

Manually by the crew, or automatically by system protection.

Once disconnected, the IDG cannot be reconnected in Flight!!!!!!

126
Q

What does the AUTO XFER FAIL condition mean to?

A

The systems that are still operating are being protected from the failed bus.

The transfer was inhibited, not failed. If one of the buses has a short circuit, a transfer of excess kVA will fry the others, too.

There will be other messages, run the AUTO XFER FAIL QRH first.

127
Q

True or false: DC ties are completely automatic. They will close after system failures to prevent critical DC buses from losing power.

A

True

128
Q

List all of the potential AC power sources on the aircraft!

A

IDGs (x2), APU, ADG, & external power

129
Q

Which AC buses must be energized for the APU and MAIN batteries to charge?

A

Main = AC BUS 1

APU = AC service bus

130
Q

What does the AVAIL indication on the AC EXT power switch light indicate?

A

Power is connected and has the correct phase, voltage and frequency.

131
Q

What is the difference between selecting AC external power on the electric service panel, and selecting the AC external power on the external services panel?

A

AC service panel = AC service configuration, which is everything behind the flight deck.

Inside panel establishes normal AC power and all AC buses are powered.

132
Q

What are the amps and volts for the APU and main batteries?

A

APU = 43 A/24 V

Main = 17 A/24 V

133
Q

What is the limitation regarding DC power on the ground, and why?

A

Five minutes, due to fans for cooling our AC powered.

134
Q

What lights are powered in the DC service configuration?

A

NAV, LAV, Dom, Beacon, passenger lights

135
Q

What happens if you turn OFF the battery master switch in flight?

What happens when you turn it ON?

A

Nothing - it removes connection between that BATT BUS and MAIN and APU Direct Buses.

BATT MASTER ON - APU & MAIN BATT direct BUS connect to the BATT BUS.

136
Q

In flight what powers the DC BATT BUS?

A

ESS TRU 2

137
Q

What occurs when you select the DC service switch to on, and from where will the DC service bus receive its power?

A

DC service bus is powered by the APU BATTERY DIRCT BUS. Service & boarding lights, NAV and LAV lights & galley lights

138
Q

What are the approximate voltage, phase and frequency of the AC power?

A

115 V, three phase, 400 Hz

139
Q

The AC ESS XFER switch light has illuminated, what does this mean?

A

AC bus 2 is it now powering the AC essential bus. The logic is flipped

140
Q

What is the GCU priority for AC bus 1?

A

On side, inside (APU), cross side, outside (external)

141
Q

What is a constant speed drive (CSD) and how is it depicted on the AC electrical synoptic?

A

Uses internal oil system to change engine variable speed into a constant RPM required for generator operation.

It’s depicted as an IDG!

141
Q

What is a constant speed drive (CSD) and how is it depicted on the AC electrical synoptic?

A

Uses internal oil system to change engine variable speed into a constant RPM required for generator operation.

It’s depicted as an IDG!

142
Q

What would cause the IDG to automatically disconnect?

A

Severe over temperature or over torque

143
Q

Following disconnect, can the IDG be reconnected in Flight?

A

No maintenance must do it on the ground

144
Q

What would you see on the electrical panel as a result of a TRU 1 failure?

A

Nothing on the panel, but you would see the main TIE close and the utility bus shed on the electrical synoptic page and EICAS status messages

145
Q

When will the DC EMER bus appear on the DC electrical page?

A

Bus fault exists, or when it’s power sources are not powered.

146
Q

What would you lose following a DC EMER bus failure?

A

Fire protection, squibs and SOV

147
Q

Where would the ESS TRU 2  transfer Contactor be visible, and what would cause it to close?

A

Located in the upper right on DC synoptic and it will show when there are multiple failures.

148
Q

What will cause the ADG to automatically deploy?

A

Loss of all AC power in Flight

149
Q

What 5 buses will be powered following ADG deployment?

A 
ADG BUS
AC ESS BUS
DC ESS BUS
DC BATT BUS
DC EMER BUS
150
Q

Why does the EMER PWR ONLY checklist ask you if the engines are running?

A

You may have a dual engine failure

151
Q

What does the ADG PWR TXFR OVERRIDE switch do?

A

Restores AC logic with AC ESS BUS & HYDRAULIC #3B Pump

152
Q

When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically?

A

AC or DC essential bus failure and switch is in ARM position

153
Q

From 0 to 41,000 feet, what is the load limit on each main generator and the APU generator?

A

40 KVA

154
Q

In-flight, the maximum permissible continuous load on each TRU is ______

A

120 A

EDV (17 decks)

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