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EDV > LOE Prep > Flashcards

LOE Prep Flashcards

1
Q

When in NAV mode and the captured navigation signal is lost, what will the PFD show?

A

ROLL MODE

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2
Q

Due to an active runway change, Ground Control requests that you make a 180 degree turn.
The airport 10-9 page shows taxiway Alpha is 100 feet wide. Can you do it?

A

Yes. Airplane turn radius is 80 feet.

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3
Q

How will the APU react to a FIRE on the ground?

A

Pg 8-9 (SYS)

ON GROUND: Upon detection of the fire, the APU Control Unit (ACU) automatically closes the fuel and bleed air SOVs;

5 seconds later it discharges the fire bottle so the halon can remove O2 from fire; the external horn will sound.

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4
Q

Using the APU Fire checklist, describe how each step fights the fire or secures the APU. (In the air)

A

SM 8-12

IN AIR: Pressing Red Fire Light- Arms APU Squib, closes the APU Bleed Air Load Control Valve (LCV) and turns off the APU Fuel Pump to stop fuel from feeding the fire. Gen tripped OFF.

Pressing the green button, discharges the APU bottle to starve the fire of oxygen.

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5
Q

Describe what happens when an RTU fails. How do you regain cross-side tuning?

A

Push RTU Inhibit push button (located next to BTU) for the Failed RTU.

Press 1⁄2 RTU Button on operating RTU.

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6
Q

Describe the flight deck indications that a DOOR is not in a safe condition.

Which doors are not depicted on the synoptic page?

A

Passenger Door is RED because it is a non-plug door. Others are Amber.

2 doors not represented on the DOOR Page: Pilot Escape Hatch & the Aft Equipment Bay Door.

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7
Q

Describe how you would reduce the cabin temp in auto mode.

A

Adjust the temp adjustment knobs (Cockpit & Cabin Automatic Mode Temperature Control).

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8
Q

Explain the priority of EICAS messages. Which can be boxed?

A

Warning, Caution (Box), Status (Box), Advisory

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9
Q

What are the restrictions regarding operating the aircraft only on DC power? SM 13-6

A

5 Minute limit - the CRT Temperature limitations can be exceeded due to lack of airflow.

AC power is required to enable fan operation for CRT cooling.

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10
Q

Whose responsibility is it to pre-flight the emergency equipment?

A

Flight Deck - First Officer’s

Cabin - Flight Attendant’s

Pg 3-25 (CFM)

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11
Q

What occurs when the AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switch light is pressed? (4) (SM 8-14/15)

A
  1. Selects bay where the extinguishing agent will go.
  2. Arms extinguishers.
  3. Turns off Heater
  4. Air conditioning SOVs Close
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12
Q

Describe the flight deck indications of a stabilizer trim runaway.

A

Aural trim alarm after 3 seconds (clacker), trim indicator on STATUS PAGE indicates trim
movement.

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13
Q

Describe flight deck indications of an impending stall

A

AP DISC

CONT IGN

Stick shaker begins to shake the control column

Red Stall Light Illuminates on Glare shield

Stick Pusher forward

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14
Q

How would you disable a GPS receiver if directed to do so by an MEL?

A

FMS:
Index PG -
GNSS Control -
Select L1/2 to deselect GPS

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15
Q

Explain the function of the L/R BOOST PUMP. What are they a backup for? (SM 10-7)

A

A backup if the Main Ejector pumps fail.

Used to generate MOTIVE FLOW for MAIN and SCAV ejectors.

If one switch-light is selected, BOTH pumps operate when low fuel pressure/failure is detected.

Move fuel from collector tanks to engines.

The boost pumps are energized to assist the starting sequence.

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16
Q

Describe the advantage of having 3 independent HYD systems, provide an example of the redundancy provided by the 3 systems.

A

Increased Dispatch ability, Redundancy, Reliability; Example: All primary control surfaces (rudder, elevator, aileron, MFS) are powered by HYD SYS 1, 2 and 3.

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17
Q

Explain the difference between EICAS ICE (yellow) and ICE (green) advisory messages.

A

EICAS ICE (yellow) means there is ICE but no Anti-Ice Systems are energized;

ICE (green) Advisory means there
is icing, but the systems are powered and providing protection.

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18
Q

What does the PARKING BRAKE Warning message indicate? (2)

A

SM 14-41 Master Warning

  • Parking Brake is set in the air (no WOW signal)
  • Configured for takeoff with greater than 70% N1.
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19
Q

What will cause the EMER Lights to illuminate when selected to ARM

A

Loss of all AC or DC power

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20
Q

Explain how you positively identify a localizer

A

Listen to the Morse Code, or the station 3-4 letter identifier is displayed on the PFD.

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21
Q

If EICAS indicates 1600 psi, in aircraft N901XJ, can you depart?

A

Pg 1-2 (ODH): We must first reference the ODH after determining the amount of crewmembers
in the cabin.

If there is a Jump seater, the answer is NO.

If 2 crewmembers: YES.

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22
Q

With the Isolation Valve closed, how can the right side of the bleed air manifold be pressurized?

A

The right engine

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23
Q

Explain how you would configure the aircraft to comply with an Aerodata bleeds closed takeoff.

A

-Leave APU ON

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24
Q

How do you determine the water level of the potable water tanks?

A

View potable tank water level indicators on forward galley

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25
Q

What happens when you push the APU FIRE PUSH switch light? (SM 8-12)

A

GEN OFF

Squibs ARM/PUSH TO DISCH light illuminates
Fuel SOV and LCV close

APU fire shutoff relay is energized to shutdown the APU by closing the fuel solenoid valve

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26
Q

An Amber boxed “A” appears on the PFD, what does this mean?

A

Aileron mistrim (AP is engaged and you need to re-trim the ailerons)

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27
Q

List 5 things that function off the Pneumatic system

A
  1. Cowl A/I
  2. Wing A/I
  3. Pressurization
  4. Air Conditioning
  5. Engine Starting (ATS)
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28
Q

Oil quantities must be at least ___% for dispatch

A

40%

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29
Q

Why do we have 1 slow discharge and one rapid discharge Halon bottle for the Cargo Compartment(s)?

A
  • Cargo smoke detectors may mistake Halon for Smoke
  • Limitation: must be within 60 minutes of a suitable airport, so its safer to have 1 slower discharger for the duration of that time vs. all rapid, and risk an additional fire with no more protection
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30
Q

5 ways to DISC the AP if the main button on the control wheel fails?

A
  1. YD DISC
  2. FCP AP DISC BAR
  3. TOGA
  4. Stab Trim split
  5. FCP AP ENG button
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31
Q

2 ways to ID a LOC frequency?

A
  1. PFD letter identifier…only present if it has DME as well.
  2. RTU Morse Code
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32
Q

How can you tell which Pressure Controller is in use?

A

“PRESS CONT1” or 2 will be shown in lower right hand corner on the ECS page!

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33
Q

Selecting the 1/2 button on RTU will:

A

Select control of the cross-side system.

Cross-side tune. Put the respective frequency on opposite RTU.

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34
Q

When will the Automatic Powered Crossflow Valve transfer fuel into the lesser tank?

A

When a fuel imbalance of more than 200 lbs exists between the wing tanks, the fuel system computer starts the XFLOW pump.

Stops when fuel quantity of the LOW tank exceeds the other tank by 50lbs.

Will know AUTO XFLOW is operating because of Status Message, and on Fuel Synoptic page

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35
Q

FUEL IMBALANCE caution message appears when:

A

there is over 800lbs imbalance between wing tanks

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36
Q

The ISOL Valve does 3 things automatically (regardless of switch position CLSD or OPEN): SM 18-5

A
  1. Opens when both engine PRSOVs are closed, and the APU is supplying Bleed Air to the Manifold (LCV open)
  2. Cycles open/closed during cross-bleed engine starts, or Right Engine start using APU bleed or EXT ground air
  3. Cycles open/closed during AUTO transfer of bleeds between the APU and Engines
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37
Q

The ISOL Valve cannot be motored open when: (2)

A
  • Either Engine is supplying bleed air to the manifold

- Cowl/wing A/I is ON

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38
Q

How can the pilot have configuration control of the ISOL switch? (vs the ACSC having control)

Will there be any system protection?

A

BLEED VALVE knob to MANUAL

ISOL switch will continue to operate Automatically via ACSC for system protection and engine start ops

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39
Q

Which Hydraulic Pumps come on for Landing?

A

All 6! (HYD B pumps comes on when flaps not 0 deg and 1 IDG is operating, and bus is powered).

Makes flight controls more effective…a lot of hydraulics will be in use.

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40
Q

When do the HYD B pumps operate when in AUTO? SM 11-8

A

BUS is powered, 1 GEN online, and flaps are not at 0 deg.

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41
Q

Which HYD pump will come on with ADG deployment/emergency power, regardless of switch position?

A

HYD 3B

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42
Q

What compartments on the CRJ 900 are pressurized? (5)

A

Flight deck,
Passenger cabin,
Avionics bay (in the belly),
FWD and AFT cargo compartments

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43
Q

How does the APU respond to FIRE in the air vs. on the ground? SM 8-9

A

APU will shut down in air or on the ground, and the fire discharge bottle deploys automatically ON THE GROUND only.

In the AIR, the flight crew must discharge the bottle.

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44
Q

What drives the Accessory Gearbox? What is mounted on the AGB?

A

N2 compressor.

3-2-1
3 pumps (Engine lubrication, fuel, and hydraulic EDPs 1 & 2)
2 sparks (FADEC Alternator, IDGs)
1 Air Turbine Starter

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45
Q

How many SLATS positions are there?

A

2 positions.

In the 1, 8 or 20 detent: Slats are at 20 degrees.

In the 30 or 45 detent: Slats are at 25 degrees.

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46
Q

Either of the AUTO XFER switch lights on the overhead panel will be accompanied by a Caution when:

A

A short was detected in the system and cross side electricity cannot be acquired.

A transfer of electricity was inhibited on purpose, as protection.

(Used to disable automatic transfer of associated IDG. FAIL light indicates a fault preventing auto transfer.)

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47
Q

EFIS COMP MON means: (QRH 11-13/11-28)

A 
PFDs are not synched properly.
HDG
ALT and/or IAS
RAs
ROL or PIT
FD, GS, or LOC
48
Q

What does DME-H button do? (SM 5-6)

Where do you spin in the frequency you want to hold, and what indicates its being held?

A

Holds currently tuned DME frequency.

When DME-H is active, the DME hold frequency is green followed by an amber H on the top level page, NAV main page, and Preset page.

  • Frequency you want to hold goes in ACTIVE position
49
Q

What would inhibit the FMS from being able to auto tune VOR frequencies? (4)

A

The FMS TUNE INHIB switch is selected

green needles are selected/no needles selected (white compass rose on the PFD with no navigation selected)

DME-H is selected

RADIO page shows MAN selected

50
Q

What is a NACA scoop (SM 10-4) and where are they located?

What happens to trapped fuel?

A

Low-drag, venting of the fuel tanks in the air and on the ground. Located on lower trailing edge of wing. (one per wing)

Drains trapped fuel back into center tank.

51
Q

Takeoff Configuration Warnings: (7)

A 
SPLRS
AP
BRAKE
STAB
FLAPS
RUDDER
AILERON
52
Q

What is the takeoff BIT and what does it trigger?

A
  1. Gear UP
  2. Flaps 20 or less
  3. Thrust Levers back from TOGA
    & APU is available (bleeds closed TO?)

Transfer of Bleeds/Pneumatics from APU to Engines

53
Q

What is the primary source of DC power in flight? Discuss Volts and Amps.

A

4 TRUs (also 2 DC Batteries - APU and MAIN)

They convert 115 V-AC power to create 28 V-DC, max rated at 120 Amps.

54
Q

EICAS messages are prioritized in:

A

Order of occurrence, and then order of importance via COLOR

55
Q

What happens if you select PRESS CONT twice?

A

Manually switches the operative Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) if AUTO transfer failed.

If BOTH CPCs have failed, both outflow valves revert to Isobaric Hold Mode.

56
Q

If the APU is on during an approach, when will the bleeds transfer from the engines to the APU?

A

Approach BIT if APU is available

Flaps greater than 20 -or- gear down

57
Q

How is fuel heated up as it travels from the wing tanks to the engine?

A

Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger - located on the engine, fuel is heated by OIL passing through the heat exchanger.

58
Q

If there is an Elevator Jam, who get assigned which side?

A

You will have control of your ON-Side elevator.

Normally, the control systems are interconnected and there is simultaneous movement of both elevators.

CA = Left Elevator
FO = Right Elevator
59
Q

What is the bungee breakout switch associated with?

A

An aileron PCU runaway. (PLT ROLL on glareshield illuminated in front of pilot with operative aileron)

60
Q

Describe the function of the backup HYD pumps?

SM 11-8

A

DO NOT start automatically if LO PRESS is sensed (aka engine or EDP failure).

Electrically powered.

AUTO - operate when flaps are greater than 0 degrees, BUS is powered, and GEN is online.

ON - Operate when BUS is powered, and GEN is online. Maintain 3000 psi.

61
Q

L/R ENG FIRE PUSH switch light is pressed, what happens?

A

Silences the aural

GEN OFF
IGNIT Inhibited
Fuel, Bleed air, and HYD SOVs close
Squibs ARM/PUSH TO DISCH lights illuminate

62
Q

Potable water storage tanks (FWD and AFT) are insulated by:

A

FWD: Blanket
AFT: Heated Blanket

63
Q

Main function of the APU and MAIN DC batteries? (SM 6-29)

A

To start the APU, and get its GEN online.

Supply DC power to 4 buses: MAIN BATT DIR, APU BATT DIR, DC EMER (not on synoptic page), DC BATT BUS

64
Q

List the HOT buses (3)

A

APU BATT DIR BUS
MAIN BATT DIR BUS
EMER BUS

65
Q

What is the EICAS logic after engine start with both engines stabilized at IDLE and Oil Press normal? (SM 13-21)

A

The analog oil pressure gauges are replaced with N1 Fan vibration gauges.

Oil press gauges return at engine shutdown on the ground.

66
Q

Who is the head of scheduling?

A

Matt Morris

67
Q

What would cause the DC MAIN TIE to close?

A

TRU 1 or TRU 2 failure, or both fail.

68
Q

How many ADCs are required for Autopilot engagement? (SM 4-34)

A

1

  • Both FCC 1/2 (represented by both green light on L/R side of an FCP selection button)
  • Both IRS/AHRS
  • 1 ADC
    -1 STAB TRIM CH
  • 1 YD
    & no significant instability.
69
Q

Bleed Valve knob to CLSD will do what? Why is this a good option to have in the flight deck?

SM 18-4

A

Closes bleed sources.

  • Must be selected when using EXT ground air.
  • Increases dispatchability
70
Q

Bleed Valve knob on AUTO will:

A

Allow the ACSC to manage system requirements automatically.

71
Q

AC ESS XFER switch light indicates:

A

The AC ESS BUS is being powered AC BUS 2 (instead of BUS 1 which would be normal logic?)

72
Q

What would you do if ED2 failed?

A

Call for the QRH - non EICAS

73
Q

What does it mean if you receive an L/R AUTO IGNITION advisory message during start up?

A

This is normal. FADEC is operating correctly

74
Q

What is minimum brake cooling time according to the ODH (assuming no brake OVHT warning)

A

15 minutes.

If brake OVHT warning, then inspection must be made prior to next takeoff.

75
Q

Fire protection in the Lavatories? (SM 8-18)

A
  • Ceiling mounted smoke detector

- Fire extinguisher: Automatic, heat sensitive capsules that melt and release Halon into the waste bin

76
Q

You receive an APU fire and select the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight. 10 sec later a “APU SOV OPEN” caution illuminates. What can you do?

A

QRH….
APU start/stop OFF
APU pwr/fuel OFF

another way to actuate the APU fuel SOV

77
Q

CRJ 900 wingspan

A

81’ 6”

78
Q

Length of CRJ 900

A

118’ 10.7”

79
Q

Minimum pavement needed for a 180 degree turn in a CRJ 900

A

80’ of pavement width

80
Q

Stabilized approach:

A

1000’ above AFE:

  • fully configured
  • stable descent rate (not exceeding 1000fpm)
  • aligned with landing RWY

500’ above AFE:

  • engine thrust stable
  • target airspeed

RWY Threshold:
- positioned to land normally in TDZ

81
Q

Endeavor CRJs are configured for ___ passengers.

A

76

82
Q

Using the APU Fire checklist, describe how each step fights the fire or secures the APU.

  1. APU FIRE PUSH
  2. APU BOTTLE SWITCH
A
  1. APU FIRE PUSH
    - Squibs arm/BOTTLE ARMED switch light illuminates when bottle pressurized
    - Gen OFF
    - Fuel SOV & solenoid valve CLOSE
    - LCV CLOSES
  2. APU BOTTLE SWITCH
    - Electric current fires the squib & releases pressurized Halon into the compartment
83
Q

Operation of the Air Conditioning Packs

SM 3-3/4

A

ACSC 1 (Left PACLK) and ACSC 2 (right PACK)

  • L Pack provides Climate Control for FLIGHT DECK (& Aft Cabin?)
  • R Pack provides Climate Control for the Passenger Cabin (Forward & Mid-Cabin?)
84
Q

How do you control the PACKs in MAN mode? What protection do you lose (temp)?

A

SM 3-7

HOT/COLD knobs on overhead panel.

Selected TEMP on ECS disappears, and if temp. is below 5 C or above 85 C, a CAUTION appears but PACK will not automatically close the valve (like in AUTO)

85
Q

Selecting the associated PACK switch light on the overhead panel:

SM 3-5

A

operates the flow control (pack valves)

86
Q

When would you use DME-H

A

When you need to continually measure DME distance from a frequency

87
Q

Shown a picture of a PFD/MFD with no Airspeed/Altitude information (asked what kind of failure it was):

A

ADC Failure

88
Q

If you have 100-foot taxi way clearance can you make a 180 degree turn in a 700?

A

Yes, CRJ 700 needs 75 feet of pavement.

89
Q

What step on the pushback procedure turns on the FDR? (SM5-34)

A

Beacon - ON (CA item)

Also if Strobes ON, or WOW

90
Q

What are 2 methods of closing the Hydraulic SOV from the flight deck?

A

HYD SOV guarded switchlight

Respective side ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight

91
Q

What’s the difference between DIFF PRESS and CABIN ALT? SM 3-22

A

DIFF PRESS - Delta P is 8.6 or higher (sometimes an over-pressurization)

CABIN ALT caution: 8,500’ or higher

CABIN ALT warning: 10,000’ or higher

  • altitude inside is too high (under-pressurization), receive “cabin pressure” aural.
  • Don O2 and establish COMMS.
  • Rapid Descent.
92
Q

What fire protection/smoke detectors do we have?

A 
APU & Engines - Dual Loop
MLG - Single Loop
FWD Cargo - 3 smoke detectors
AFT Cargo - 2 smoke detectors
Lav - 1 smoke detector
93
Q

On the ground with engines and APU running what has priority in supplying bleed air for pneumatics?

A

On the ground the APU normally has priority.

94
Q

Pressing the APU PWR/FUEL switch light will: (5)

A

DIGS
On ground: DOOR OPEN to let in air.

  1. Fuel pump ON
  2. Fuel SOV Open
  3. EICAS gauges GREEN
  4. “APU IN BITE”
95
Q

Pressing the APU START/STOP switch light will: (3 things, 2 to look for)

A
  1. Turns on Starter Motor
  2. START light illuminates, extinguishes at 50%
  3. AVAIL light on 2 sec at 99%
96
Q

When APU PWR/FUEL is selected “off” or twice, what occurs?

A

Fuel pump is de-energized

97
Q

What are advantages of Dual Loop fire detection systems?

A
  • Increase dispatchability

- Reduce false alarms

98
Q

What are the 3 exceptions to the dual loop fire system?

A
  1. MLG - single loop
  2. Cowls - pressure transducers (SM 18-13)
  3. Wings - temperature sensors
99
Q

How does fuel get from the center tank to the engines?

A

Center tank -> Transfer Ejectors -> Wing tanks -> SCAV Ejectors -> Collector tanks -> Main Ejectors -> Engines ?

100
Q

When will the Engine Bleed Valves (PRSOVs) fail safe closed? (3) SM 18-4

A
  1. Engines are shutdown
  2. The ACSC control signal is removed
  3. ENG FIRE PUSH is selected
101
Q

What is RAM AIR used for primarily and as a back up?

A
  • COOLING (air to air heat exchanger)

- Back up (if both AC systems fail) to ventilate Flight Deck and Cabin

102
Q

FADEC will trigger the High PWR Schedule when:

A

There is a 15% difference in N1 readings.

TOGA, CLB, CRZ
APR, MCT, Proportional Increase

Recovers when 13% difference achieved.

103
Q

In-flight, the maximum permissible continuous load on each TRU is:

A

120 A

104
Q

Normal Hydraulic Fluid Quantity, PSI and temp?

A

45% - 85%
1800 to 3200 psi
Below 96 deg

105
Q

BATT MASTER:

What is powered by the battery master switch when it is turned on? (4)

A

DC Battery bus, APU battery direct bus, main battery direct bus, DC emergency bus (not on synoptic page) which houses fire protection (Squibs and extinguishers)

5 minute max without AC power for display cooling

106
Q

DC Service switch:

A

If you turn on the DC service switch, the APU battery direct bus powers the DC service bus (Via the secret service bus contactor)

Nav lav dome service lights

107
Q

What would cause the IDG to automatically disconnect?

A

HOT/LOP

Severe over temperature or over torque

108
Q

Volts and Amps of APU and MAIN batteries?

A

APU Battery 24V-DC, 43 AMP

MAIN Battery 24V-DC, 17 AMP

109
Q

When does Windshield Heat go on HI?

A

To DE-ICE the windshield, only.

Side windows remain on LOW.

110
Q

Selecting the AFT CARGO switch to OFF, AIR or COND AIR.

SM 3-14

A

OFF: Closes intake and exhaust SOVs, airflow stopped.

AIR: Opens intake and exhaust SOVs, allowing ventilation.

COND AIR: Automatic temperature control of Aft Cargo Bay controlled by ACSC 2 (between 70-80 deg F)

111
Q

What will occur if you place the Wing A/I Cross Bleed to the “From Left” position

A

Wing cross bleed valve will open.

Right wing A/I valve will close.

112
Q

CPC/CPAM (cabin pressure acquisition module) functions to:

A
  1. Auto drop down of O2 masks at a cabin altitude of 14,000’ +/- 300’
  2. Instructs to limit cabin to 14,500’ +/- 500’ not to exceed 15,000’
  3. Limits rate change to 3,000 ft/min in AUTO and MAN modes (UNLESS EMER DEPRESS)
113
Q

Explain APU LCV interlock protection (SM 18-8)

A
  1. Does not allow engines and APU to supply bleed air to the manifold at the same time
  2. Prevents APU from supplying bleed air when A/I in use
    - If in MANUAL and APU selected as the bleed source and A/I is turned on, the wing A/I valve will remain CLOSED and BLEED MISCONFIG caution occurs.
114
Q

Max fuel imbalance between wing tanks:

A

Takeoff = 300

Any other phase = 800

115
Q

Center Tank fuel limitations: CFM 2-41

A

TO with fuel in the Center Tank over 500 lbs prohibited UNLESS each Wing Tank is above 4,400 lbs

OR

Each wing tank is above 2,000 lbs, ZFW is reduced by the weight of the fuel in excess of 500 lbs, and a/c is still within CG limits.

EDV (17 decks)

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