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EDV > Systems Exam Focused Review > Flashcards

Systems Exam Focused Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is powered by the battery master switch when it is turned on? (4)

A

DC Battery bus, APU battery direct boss, main battery direct boss, DC emergency bus which houses fire protection (Squibs and extinguishers)

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2
Q

If you turn on the DC service which, what is powered?

A

The APU battery direct bus powers the DC service bus (Via the secret service bus contactor)

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3
Q

What would cause an IDG Fault light?

A

HOT/LOP

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4
Q

When would you manually disconnect an IDG?

A

During a HOT/LOP condition, QRH directed

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5
Q

With the IDG ever automatically disconnect?

A

Yeah ! During severe over temperature or severe over torque

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6
Q

During an AC ESS XFER With normal logic, what is powering the AC essential bus?

A

AC bus 2

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7
Q

What does XFER FAIL, GEN 1, IDG 1 caution mean to us?

A

That there was a short circuit, and the automatic transfer was inhibited on purpose, to protect the other systems from being short circuited

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8
Q

If there are multiple TRU failures, what Ty will close?

A

The DC cross tie

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9
Q

When will be ADG deploy and supply power to the AC ESS BUS?

A

If AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail

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10
Q

If the ADG is deployed, What is powered?

A

ADG bus, hydraulic pump 3B, AC ESS BUS, ESS TRU 1, DC ESS BUS, DC BATT BUS (via ESS TIE)

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11
Q

If the ADG is deployed, and ESS TRU1 fails, what is the backup?

A

ESS TRU2 Transfer Contactor awakens, and connects the AC ESS BUS to the ESS TRU2

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12
Q

If the fuel pumps are on - What does that mean?

A

They are ARMED and monitoring for low pressure to trigger activation.

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13
Q

If the hydraulic ACMP B pumps are on, what does that mean?

A

They are operating to output 3000 psi, they are NOT automatically responsive to low pressure.

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14
Q

What conditions will trigger the transfer ejector pumps to activate?

A

If fuel is available in the center tank, & wing tank below 94% (93% or less) capacity until 97% capacity is achieved.

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15
Q

What condition will automatically trigger the powered crossflow pump?

A

A fuel balance between wing tanks of 200 pounds, automatically stops when the low tank is 50 pounds over the other tank.

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16
Q

When will the ACMP B pumps run in the AUTO switch position?

A

When it’s bus is powered, and the flaps are out of 0° (or an 8° Flaps/slats position)

AKA when you’re taxiing (;

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17
Q

When will the ADG deploy?

A

When there was a loss of all AC power

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18
Q

How is the APU cooled?

A

It has its own oil cooler

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19
Q

If the anti-ice wing cross bleed valve fails, what position will it be in?

A

It fails to the last selected position

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20
Q

If the Cowl anti-ice bleed fails, what position is it in?

A

The bleed fails open

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21
Q

What are the 3 exceptions to the dual loop fire system?

A

Cowls use pressure transducers, the last 3 feet of the wings are temperature sensors, the gear is a single loop system.

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22
Q

If you turn the wing anti-ice on, What change in the N2 gauge will you see it?

A

You will see a white arc appear. This is just a switch position indication. 

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23
Q

When will you see the APU AVAIL light illuminate?

A

When the starter has cut out, and RPM is at 99% for 2 seconds!

Means the APU is ready for electrical loading.

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24
Q

What does a green advisory ICE message mean?

A

It means that our anti-system is on, and ice is still being detected.

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25
Q

Where are the emergency shut offs for the APU?

A

Inside the APU enclosure/compartment, and the external services panel.

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26
Q

What is the procedure for elevator PCU runaway?

A

There is no procedure!

There are 3 PCU’s per elevator, if one PCU goes bad the other 2 will overpower it automatically.

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27
Q

you receive LOW FUEL caution, what does this mean?

A

There is -/= 600lbs in the left and/or right wing, there is -/= 1200 pounds total, or there is low fuel in the collector tank.

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28
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the left and right wing tank?

A

On take off = 300 pounds, all other phases = 800 pounds

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29
Q

How does the APU oil cooler work?

A

Discharging RAM air into the compartment then exhausting it overboard through an EDUCTOR

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30
Q

Approach BIT

A

Landing gear down OR Flaps GREATER than 20°

31
Q

Takeoff BIT

A

Thrust levers out of TOGA, & landing gear up & locked/WOW, & Flaps 20° or less

32
Q

How many anti-ice sensing probes are there?

A

2 - only 1 signal is needed to generate a caution/advisory

33
Q

What would “L WING A/I” caution mean? 

A

insufficient temperature detected

34
Q

What do the anti-ice leak detection control (AILC) dual channels do?

A

Maintain the correct temperature on leading edges by varying bleed air amount

35
Q

What position will the wing anti-ice cross bleed valve fail to?

A

It will fail to the last selected position

36
Q

When will the wing anti-ice valves close?(4) 

A
  1. Bleed MISCONFIG
  2. Loss of electrical power at the valve
  3. DUCT failure! (Fail closed)
  4. Bleed air supply pressure is removed
37
Q

What happens when you press START/STOP - IN for the APU? (3)

A
  1. Starter energized and start illuminates,
  2. start extinguishers at 50% RPM,
  3. 99% for 2 seconds the AVAIL illuminates in green
38
Q

What happens when you press START/STOP - OUT for the APU? (3)

A
  1. SOV closes
  2. AVAIL light extinguished
  3. APU Shuts down 
39
Q

Who is the APUs best friend?

A

ECU (One cannot live without the other)

40
Q

When will a trim CLACKER activate?

A

After 3 seconds of trim Input/the AP senses a trim runaway

41
Q

What kind of action does a warning require?

A

Immediate

42
Q

What kind of action does a caution require? Can you box a caution message?

A

Prompt action. You can box a caution and it will remain boxed if others are displayed.

43
Q

When is the cockpit voice recorder activated?

A

As soon as DC Power is established (BATT MASTER ON)

44
Q

At what percentage RPM will the FADEC alternator power itself?

A

50%

45
Q

What are you looking for on the EICAS for APU shut down?

A

SOV closed, DOOR closed

46
Q

What is motive flow?

A

Ejector pump‘s use motive flow which comes from the engine driven fuel pumps. It is suction created by low pressure that moves fuel out of the tank

47
Q

Under what 5 conditions will the autopilot automatically disconnect?

A

YD fail, FCC 1/2 fail, Windshear warning, stall warning, unusual attitude

48
Q

How does fuel get to the APU during non-normal situation?

A

By internal bypass valve, opens if the APU pump fails.

Allows AGB pumped to draw fuel for continuous operation.

49
Q

When would a generator go off-line?

A

An over/under voltage

50
Q

If BTMS is in the green, or white range what units does this represent?

A

00-06, 07-14

Over 14 = red, overheat

51
Q

Where does RAM AIR go? (ECS)

A

Mixing manifold

52
Q

What valves in the ECS system maintain 45 psi +/- 3?

A

PRSOVs

53
Q

At what temperature do the recirculating fans turn on?

A

Below 30°C

54
Q

When do you need conditioned air?

A

In the aft cargo compartment when it’s colder than 15°C outside because HEAT needs to be added.

55
Q

When is antiskid active?

A

At 35 KTS spin up and WOW for 5 seconds,

56
Q

How long do you have to comply with an RA maneuver?

A

5 seconds, & RA REVERSAL maneuver must be initiated within 2.5 seconds for an additional RA.

57
Q

What are the differences between continuous ignition conditions and no flex thrust takeoff conditions?

A

Continuous ignition required: contaminate a runway, moderate or greater rain/turbulence, thunderstorms in the vicinity.

No flex Thrust takeoff: contaminated runway, anti-ice bleeds in use, windshear/downdrafts forecasted, antiskid inoperative

58
Q

Where is the air turbine starter?

A

Mounted in the AGB

59
Q

What system is the operability bleed valve connected to?

A

FADEC. Offloads the compressors to avoid stalls and surges

60
Q

What does the air turbine starter do?

A

Converts pneumatic energy into mechanical motion for engine starting.

Disengages when N2 is approximately 50%, or stop switch pressed.

61
Q

What are the 2 levels of compressor stall protection that FADEC provides?

A
  1. Continuous ignition of both A and B igniters

2. Operability bleed valve to offload the compressor

62
Q

What are the CPCP absolute limitation functions?

A

Cabin pressure altitude of 15,000 feet, 3000 ft./min. rate of outflow valve

63
Q

What cautions/warnings would you get regarding cabin pressure altitude?

A

8500 feet: “CABIN ALT” caution, smoking/seatbelt signs illuminate.

10,000: “CABIN ALT” warning

8.6 PSI differential: “DIFF PRESS” warning

64
Q

What are the CPAM functions?

A

At cabin press alt of 14,000 +/- 300 feet the passenger masks will automatically drop. Supplies 13 minutes of oxygen.

Instructions to limit cabin altitude to 14,500 +/- 500’ 

65
Q

What happens when you select ENG FIRE PUSH

A

GIV3S

Generator off-line, ignition inhibited, 3 SOVs closed, Squibs armed (ARM PUSH TO DISCH)

66
Q

What is on the DC service bus?

A

NAV, LAV, dome, beacon

67
Q

What is on the AC service bus?

A

APU charger, cabin side and ceiling lighting, toilet, water system

68
Q

Is one operative generator enough to power the whole Aircraft?

A

Yes!

69
Q

What is the maximum Continuous load a TRU can have?

A

120 A

70
Q

What does the AGB power?

A

3 fluids: Fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps.

2 electric: IDG & FADEC Alternator

1 pneumatic: ATS

71
Q

Each engine has its own FADEC: true or false

A

True

72
Q

How many channels does FADEC have?

A

2

73
Q

If you have a FADEC fault message, can you be dispatched?

A

NoooooOoOoo

EDV (17 decks)

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