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GenSubs Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

Name two ways you can recognize windshear:

A

15 knot airspeed, 500 ft./min. vertical change, 5° pitch change, one dot GS change, abnormal thrust

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2
Q

Low pressure system is a _____ system, The air flows ______,______, and _____.

A

Cyclonic system!

Counterclockwise, inward, and upward

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3
Q

How large are super cold liquid droplets?

A

Larger than 100 to 150 µm (microns)

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4
Q

What constitutes a severe icing?

A

Droplets of 175 µm or larger. Ice forming on side cockpit windows

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5
Q

On an approach with icing, a go-around may ___ be an option

A

Not

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6
Q

Where can you find Delta turbulence plot advisories?

A

On the release, above TLR

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7
Q

What are some hazards of turbulence? (4)

A
  1. Engine Flame Out
  2. injury to passengers and crew
  3. damage to aircraft
  4. negative affects on performance during critical phases
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8
Q

Microburst can cause significant windshear up to ____ knots, and up to _____ feet per minute downdrafts

A

90 knots / 6000 FPM

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9
Q

During hot weather operations, Endeavor will delay boarding when cabin temperature exceeds ___°C

When cabin temperatures exceed ___°C crews need to ensure the APU is running while parked

A

33°C and 30°C (86°F) CFM 4-170

29°C ?

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10
Q

Is there any anti-icing protection on the tail of the aircraft?

A

No

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11
Q

CONTINUOUS icing is expected in _____ clouds, and the TYPE is _____

A

Status clouds, type is Rime ice.

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12
Q

INTERMITTENT icing is expected in _____ clouds, and the TYPE is _____

A

Cumulus clouds, type of ice is clear/glaze

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13
Q

Before the first flight of the day, when the airplane is cold-soaked at an ambient temperature of -30°C (-22°F) or below, for more than 8 hours:

A
  1. The engines must be motor for 60 seconds and fan rotation must be verified before an engine start is initiated
  2. Thrust reverser‘s must be actuated until deploy and stow cycles are 2 seconds or less
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14
Q

What does it mean if an aircraft is cold-soaked?

A

The aircraft was at an ambient temperature of -30°C or lower for more than 8 hours

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15
Q

When will a CRJ 900 crew perform a pre-takeoff check? What 4 surfaces are they to check?

A

When they expect to take off within the HOT.

The check is to be accomplished just prior to takeoff.

They will perform a visual check, from the flight deck, of: windshield wiper surface and center post, leading edge and upper surface of wings!

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16
Q

When must a CRJ 900 crew perform a pre-takeoff contamination check?

Who completes the inspection, and what surfaces are they to check?

A

When a HOT has been exceeded.

The FO will complete this inspection!!!!

Must be completed from the Vantage Point (row 12) in the cabin. If the surfaces cannot be seen, you must return to the pad for new fluid.

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17
Q

What eight things must be included in the deice communication?

A

Ship number, type brand and freezing point of fluid, time final application was started, clearance to start engines and leave the pad, verification to post deice inspection has been complete.

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18
Q

In regards to snowfall intensities, if the visibility is being reduced by snow, along with: BLSN, FG, BR what do we do?

A

We will use the intensity reported by the weather observation, do not use the intensity on the chart.

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19
Q

Flight crew members are required to report to duty ____ minutes prior to schedule departure time.

A

45 min

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20
Q

The release time is ____ minutes after BLOCK-IN at the gate

A

15 min

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21
Q

The only time a pilot is allowed to exceed flight time limitations is:

A

Due to unforeseen operational circumstances

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22
Q

Scheduled time of report is based on what ______ time

A

Domicile

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23
Q

Your body is governed by _____ _____, the low times are known as __________ or WOCL

A

Circadian Rhythm

 window of circadian low

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24
Q

Can your rest period ever be reduced below 10 hours?

A

NOOO

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25
Q

Who does a pilot call when they are fatigued?

What form do they fill out, where do you find it, and how long do you have?

A

Crew scheduling!

Fatigue report form.

Endeavor website - flight ops - WBAT.

Complete the report by the end of the calendar day that you called out. (72 hours if you notify manager of flight safety)

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26
Q

What are 4 instrument approaches Endeavor is not authorized to use?

A

NDB, LPV, LNAV/VNAV, PAR

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27
Q

When must a pilot execute an immediate go around?

A
  1. Unstable
  2. Full-scale deflection of one pilots CDI
  3. Equipment failure that changes the approach procedure’s minimums
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28
Q

On the CRJ 700 where should pilots crew baggage be stored?

A

13AB - Captain

16AB - FO

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29
Q

On the CRJ 900 where should pilots crew baggage be stored?

A

With G2 Compartment: one’s bag in G2, one’s bag and 13AB

Without G2 or Aft Closet: 13AB - Captain. 18AB - FO

WITH Aft Closet: all crew bags are stowed in the aft wardrobe closet!!

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30
Q

What is basic operating weight?

A

The complete aircraft weight for a revenue flight minus usable fuel and payload.

(BOW Includes gallery equipment crew and crew bags)

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31
Q

What makes up zero fuel weight?

A

BOW + payload.

Does not include usable fuel.

Must not exceed MZFW.

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32
Q

What makes up ramp weight? 

A

ZFW + fuel weight

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33
Q

What makes up takeoff gross weight?

A

Ramp weight - taxi burn

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34
Q

What makes up landing weight? 

A

Takeoff gross weight - enroute burn

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35
Q

When are winter weights utilized? (date range)

A

November 1 - April 30

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36
Q

When are summer weights utilized? (date range)

A

May 1 - October 31

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37
Q

What are the winter weights for adults and children?

A 
Adults = 205
children = 91
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38
Q

What are the summer weights for adults and children?

A 
Adults = 200
Children = 86
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39
Q

At what age are children considered infants?

A

Under 2 years old, they count as 23 pounds

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40
Q

How much do standard, heavy, and planeside bags weigh?

A 
Standard = 34
Heavy = 58
Planeside = 19
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41
Q

What is the difference between Endeavor‘s and Delta’s pink tag/plane side baggage retrieval service?

A

Endeavor = picked up on Jetbridge or outside the plane.

Delta = picked up at destination at baggage claim.

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42
Q

What system is utilized to calculate weight and balance for our flights?

A

AeroData

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43
Q

How is weight and balance normally received?

A

ACARS

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44
Q

When you receive weight and balance information via radio from dispatch, what items must be read back? (3)

A

STAB GROSS PASSENGERS!!!!

Take off trim settings, takeoff gross weight, total number of passengers

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45
Q

What page in ACARS will you enter load information if you need to manually enter information?

A

Loadsheet

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46
Q

On the crew page on ACARS, what do you need to do if one of the FA jumpseats is deferred? Does the FA count in the passenger count?

A
  1. Enter deferred in FA jumpseat

2. No the FA is not counted. AeroData calculates this

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47
Q

If the captain is receiving a line check, what should you enter into the ACARS page?

A

That there is an ACM (additional crewmember) in the jumpseat

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48
Q

What is the maximum landing weight for the 700 and 900?

A

700 = 67,000 pounds

900 = 75,100 pounds

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49
Q

What is the maximum AFT cargo weight for the 700 and 900?

A

3650 pounds for both aircraft

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50
Q

What is the maximum FWD cargo weight limit for the 700 and 900?

A

700 = 1000 pounds

900 = 1700 pounds

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51
Q

A runaway incursion is:

A

The incorrect placement of a person, vehicle or aircraft on a protected surface used for takeoff and landing without clearance, at an aerodrome.

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52
Q

During taxi, deviations from pilots can be a result of:

A

Loss of situational awareness, poor communication with ATC or other crewmembers, poor airport signage or familiarization

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53
Q

Low visibility taxi is below ____ RVR.

A

1200

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54
Q

During a low visibility taxi, which crew member(s) must have the airport diagram and low visibility chart displayed for reference?

A

Both flight crew members

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55
Q

What does SMGCS stand for?

A

Surface movement guidance and control system

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56
Q

SMGCS charts are from ____ RVR to ____ RVR

A

1200 to 600 ?

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57
Q

In low visibility, all pre-departure checklist are done while the aircraft is:

A

Stopped

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58
Q

Is it OK to stop on a runway, even if you just landed, if you are unsure of your location?

A

No, never stop on the runway

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59
Q

List for procedures to adhere to during taxi:

A

Sterile cockpit, scan outside, if lost stop and notify ATC, use your lights

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60
Q

What lights should be on when the engines are running?

A

Beacon and position

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61
Q

What lights should be on when taxiing?

A

Beacon, position, and taxi lights

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62
Q

What lights should be on if you lineup and wait on the runway?

A

All the lights except landing light

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63
Q

What lights should be on for takeoff?

A

All!!

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64
Q

What are hotspots and how are they designated on an airport diagram?

A

Areas of known incursions, red circles

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65
Q

Any misunderstanding or disagreement should be resolved before _____ the aircraft. Use Heading display to confirm correct taxiway or runway alignment.

A

Moving

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66
Q

At uncontrolled airports, you should monitor CTAF within ____ miles of the airport, and ______ all ground movement.

A

10 miles, announce

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67
Q

Which JEPP chart will you find the airport diagram?

A

10-9

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68
Q

When crossing hold short lines to take off or across a runway, both crew members must confirm their position by:

A

Comparing taxiway and runway signs to the taxi chart, and crosschecking the runway in the FMS before departure

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69
Q

Do the aircraft have evacuation slides or rafts?

A

No

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70
Q

How many Emergency Flashlights, and PBEs, are onboard the 700 and 900?

A

4 of each

900’s with 1 additional FA jumpseat will have 5 flashlights

71
Q

How many Halon Extinguishers, and Quick Don Oxygen Masks, are on the 700 and 900?

A

3 of each

72
Q

How many First Aid Kits, and Medical Oxygen Bottles, are on the 700 and 900?

A

2 of each

73
Q

How many AEDs & EMKs are on the 700 and 900?

A

1 of each

74
Q

How many Emergency Exits, and Crew Lifejackets are there on the 700?

A

5 of each

75
Q

How many Emergency Exits, and Crew Lifejackets are there on the 900?

A

7 emergency exits

5 crew life jackets.
900’s with 1 additional FA jumpseat will have 6 Lifejackets

76
Q

How long does PBE (protective breathing equipment) last?

A

15 mins

77
Q

How do you know when PBE is no longer usable?

A

Indicator flashlight blinks red and green the last minute, and the hood will start to collapse

78
Q

How close are PBE to fire extinguishers?

A

Within 3 feet

79
Q

Describe the different classes of fires, and how to extinguish:

A

A - ordinary combustible materials (extinguish with water or halon)

B - liquids, oils, greases, gases
(extinguish with halon)

C - live electrical
(extinguish with halon)

D - combination materials
(extinguish with FOAM)

80
Q

What is the acronym to aid in use of a halon extinguisher?

A

PASS

Pin, Aim, squeeze, sweep

81
Q

What is the acronym and what is required when briefing a flight attendant of an emergency?

A

NASR

Nature, amount of time, special instructions, repeat instructions

82
Q

How do you know if the emergency flashlight is good?

A

Tab is in place and a red light blinking

83
Q

What is the code for the EMK? Who can use it?

A

0911

Only doctors! FA checks credentials.

84
Q

What exit are used in water ditching?

A

Overwing and crew escape hatch

85
Q

What is a yellow level emergency?

A

Require a diversion or priority landing but does NOT require the cabin to prepare for evacuation

86
Q

What is a red level emergency?

A

Requires a diversion/priority landing and DOES require the cabin to prepare for an emergency evacuation, includes bracing

87
Q

Where are crew lifejackets found?

A

Under their respective jumpseats or cockpit seats

88
Q

How should the Quick Don oxygen mask be set for flight?

A

Red lever to 100% (set and ready)

89
Q

Explain the difference between normal and 100% level positions on quick don oxygen

A

Normal = oxygen mixed with ambient air

100% = 100% oxygen

90
Q

Explain the difference between 100% on the lever, and emergency flow!

A

100% as full oxygen, on demand!

Emergency is 100% FORCED oxygen!

91
Q

All engine failure or shutdowns require what? (2)

A

Maintenance right up, debriefing

92
Q

When receiving any smoke indication, flight crews accomplish any ___ that may be required. If possible a ___ inspection is conducted in conjunction with the appropriate emergency checklist

A

Emergency checklist card

Visual

93
Q

What events require a debriefing? (6)

A

Fires, failures, incursions, evacuations, incapacitation, more than 50% of PFD/MFD displays

FOM 11-7

94
Q

What is the radio call out for distress?

A

Mayday

95
Q

What is the radio call out for urgency?

A

Pan

96
Q

Whenever an engine fails, or rotation of an engine has stopped, ATC and OCC are notified of the event as soon as ______ ______ and kept informed as to the progress of the emergency. A FSR must be submitted within ___ hours

A

Conditions permit

24 hours

97
Q

If there is a medical emergency on board who can the pilots contact to assist?

A

STAT-MD (dispatch patches through)

Pilot will be middle man

98
Q

When inspecting the PBE if the button is protruding or the humidity indicator is pink, the PBE is usable: true or false

A

False, signals the seal is poor

99
Q

Donning the PBE must be completed within ____ of activation

A

15 seconds

100
Q

How far and how long does a HALON extinguisher spray

A

10-12 feet for 10-12 seconds

101
Q

For a LAHSO the minimum ceiling and invisibility is ___/___.

If the runway is equipped with a PAPI or VASI the minimum ceiling and invisibility is ___/___

A

1,500’/5

1,000’/3

102
Q

Can you except a LAHSO if the runway is wet

A

No

103
Q

Tailwind on the LAHSO runway must be calm, less than:

A

3 knots

104
Q

LAHSO minimum runaway length for the 700 and 900?

A 
700 = 6,000’
900 = 7,000’
105
Q

When operating in RVSM airspace what is the recommended operating practice regarding climbs/descents?

A

Climb and decent rates are limited to 1000 ft./min. when operating within 5NM and within 2000 feet of other aircraft

106
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM?

A
  • Autopilot
  • Altitude Alerting System
  • 2 transponders (1 works)
  • 2 air data computers (2 work)
107
Q

What is the requirement for reported ceiling and vis for a circling approach?

A

1000/3 or reported weather is at least equal to the prescribed circling minimums, whichever is higher.

108
Q

Which crewmember should have out there SMGCS if the visibility is less than 1200 RVR

A

Both pilots !!

109
Q

When our SMGCS procedures activated at authorized airport?

A

When RVR is below 1200

110
Q

For operations BELOW 1600RVR a minimum of ___ operative RVR systems are required, and ___ available RVR reports are _____

A

2 operative

All

Controlling

111
Q

A MID RVR report may be substituted for an unavailable TDZ report if operations are AT or ABOVE _____ RVR

A

1600

112
Q

What is a reportable event? Who needs to report it?

A

Accident, situation, or event that causes abnormal flight operations.

The captain.

113
Q

True or false: if you will be using any RNAV procedures (SIDS, STARs), RAIM Prediction must be available

A

True

114
Q

True or false: the use of RNAV instrument approach procedures in determining minimums can be used to dispatch at both the destination and alternate airport

A

False.

The use of RNAV instrument approach procedures in determining minimum is limited to destination airport OR alternates

115
Q

Are you permitted to manually enter RNAV waypoints using latitude and longitude or a place/bearing?

A

Nooo

116
Q

What is the required equipment for any RNAV procedure? (3) And GPS operation must be verified prior to takeoff

A

1 FMS, 1 GPS, 1 Flight Director.

Use of autopilot is recommended, not required.

117
Q

What 4 GPS/RNAV approaches are approved?

A

Standalone, overlay, GPS, GNSS

118
Q

When doing a GPS Overlay approach, ground-based navigation aids DO NOT have to be operational for the GPS approach? True or false

A

TRUE

119
Q

For an RNAV Off the Runway SID, what mode is selected after rotation? When does autopilot have to be engaged?

A

Speed mode & NAV mode

climbing through 500 feet, at or above 600 feet AGL is required…

120
Q

What are the two types of RNAV SIDS

A
  1. Off the runway

2. Heading to a fix 

121
Q

VNAV path smoothing happens on our aircraft at a minimum and a maximum allowable VPA of:

A

VPA of 1° to 6°

(Default is 3°)

122
Q

VNAV is used as an _____ tool at Endeavor

A

Advisory!!!

123
Q

What is the vertical deviation scale and pointer?

A

The “Snowflake”

Indicates the FMS computed VPA.

Takes multiple altitude constraints into account. Aims to keep the aircraft as high as possible for as long as possible.

doesn’t care about speed restrictions

124
Q

What are some benefits of VNAV?

A

Reduce pilot workload, crew standardization, advanced fuel management, enhanced energy management

125
Q

Mach speed is:

A

The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound (which changes with temperature)

126
Q

The effect of compressibility is an aid to the creation of _____ until the airstream of the wings surface reaches ______

A

Lift, speed of sound

127
Q

Define shockwave

A

creates a region between undisturbed and disturbed air (Pressure boundary)

128
Q

Define critical Mach

A

Speed at which a shockwave 1st forms on the aircraft.

Varies with aircraft weight, %CG, altitude and load factor

129
Q

Define Dutch role

A

Aerodynamic characteristic of a swept wing aircraft when one wing gets ahead of the other and creates more lift, climbs and new drag production then pulls the wing back, creating a slip.

The same happens then to the other wing.

130
Q

Define coffin corner

A

Operating margin as you increase altitude - the low stall speed increases in the high stall speed decreases

131
Q

What is limiting Mach?

A

Operating speed in relation to the speed of sound. Compressibility effects create a noticeable lack of control

(Depicted on airspeed indicator by “Barber Pole” at all times)

132
Q

What factors will decrease the critical/limiting mach? (4) 

A

Increased weight, increased load factor, forward CG, increased altitude

133
Q

What are the design characteristics of a high altitude airplane?

A

High stall speed, high touchdown speed, rapid increase in drag at high angles of attack during turns

134
Q

What is V1

A

Action speed

Max to abort
Minimum to continue

135
Q

What does Vr ensure

A

Safe lift off & climb profile is met

136
Q

What does V2 ensure

A

Ensures stall protection and controllability in the air & climb profile is met

137
Q

What does VT(FTO) provide?

A

Allows aircraft to meet minimum climb gradient & provides stall protection

138
Q

On a stable approach, when will you be at Vref?

A

Crossing the threshold

139
Q

What are the 3 types of engine failure procedures, and where can they be found?

A
  1. Standard (ACARS & TLR)
  2. Simple Special (ACARS & TLR)
  3. Complex (Only on JEPP 10-7)
140
Q

In a “Standard” engine failure procedure no turns may be made until _____ when the weather is less than ______

A

1,000’ AFE

Less than 1000/3

141
Q

On a “Simple Special” Engine failure procedure if there is a heading under the VIA, how soon can we start the turn to that heading?

A

50’ AFE

142
Q

What is the standard means of receiving performance data?

What is the back up?

A

ACARS

Call dispatch via radio or phone

143
Q

In what manual will you find a detailed chapter on performance?

A

CFM chapter 6

144
Q

Is the company flight manual aircraft specific?

A

Yes

145
Q

Runway slopes approved for takeoff and landing:

A

+2%/-2%

146
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel (MZFW) weight for the 700 and 900?

A 
700 = 62,300 pounds
900 = 70,750 pounds
147
Q

What is the minimum FLIGHT weight for the 700 and 900?

A 
700 = 42,000 pounds
900 = 45,000 pounds
148
Q

What is the max landing weight for the 700 and 900?

A 
700 = 67,000 pounds
900 = 75,100 pounds
149
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?

A

10 knots 

150
Q

What is the maximum XW component for TAKEOFF on a DRY runway for the 700 and 900?

A

28/35

151
Q

What is the maximum XW component for LANDING on a DRY runway in the 700 and 900?

A

30/32

152
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing on a wet runway?

A

27

153
Q

When is flex thrust prohibited? (4)

A
  • With wing/or cowl anti-ice bleeds in use
  • runways contaminated
  • warnings of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast
  • when anti-skid system is inoperative
154
Q

Can you do a flex thrust procedure on a WET runway?

A

Yes, provided that wet runway performance data is used

155
Q

True or false: to avoid giving unwanted alerts, the terrain awareness Alerting and display functions must be inhibited on takeoff, approach, or landing within 15 NM of an airport not contained in the EGPWS airport database

A

True

CFM 2-34

156
Q

Continued operations in areas where SLD conditions exist is prohibited. What must you do if you suspect you are flying in SLD? (3)

A

Wing anti-system on, Cowl anti-ice system on, leave conditions when side window icing occurs

157
Q

True or false: takeoff is permitted with frost adhering to the upper surface of the fuselage; and or the underside of the wing that is caused by cold soaked fuel.

A

True

CFM 2-39

158
Q

True or false: if the frost layer is thin enough to distinguished surface features, it is OK

A

True - but only on the 1. Upper surface of the fuselage and/or 2. the underside of the wing due to fuel cold soak

CFM 2-39

159
Q

What are the maximum permissible fuel imbalances between the Main L tank and the Main R tank?

A

During takeoff: 300 pounds

All other phases of flight: 800 pounds

Center fuel tank Quantity must be monitored throughout flight

160
Q

How much does 1 pound of jet A weigh?

A

6.75 pounds per US gallon

161
Q

True or false: takeoff with a fuel load in excess of 500 pounds in the center tank is not permitted.

A

False - It is not permitted UNLESS each wing tank is above 4400 pounds

or unless each wing tank is above 2000 pounds, the allowable zero fuel weight is reduced by the weight of the fuel in the center tank in excess of 500 pounds, and the CG is verified to be with an envelope. Dispatch must be contacted

162
Q

What is the minimum fuel for a go around?

A

600 pounds per wing

163
Q

Takeoff with engine FUEL temperature indications below ___°C is prohibited

A

5°C (41°F)

164
Q

True or false: Fuel powered crossflow and Fuel gravity crossflow must be OFF for takeoff.

A

True

165
Q

What are T routes

A

Low altitude RNAV GPS routes

1200’ AGL to 17,999’

166
Q

What are Q routes?

A

GPS routes

18,000 to 45,000’

167
Q

J routes

A

Like a jet victor airway

168
Q

The original release is good ___ hours past the out time at departures airport, and ___ hours past the time at intermediate airport.

A

2 hours

1 hour

169
Q

Can UPDATE in 2 places

A

TO DATA

TO CONDITIONS

170
Q

Jumpseater standard weights (summer and winter)

A

Summer - 213

Winter - 218

171
Q

What procedure is used to clear a malfunction that may be a nuisance or erroneous in nature

A

Fault reset

172
Q

A fault reset procedure is preformed in the air: TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

173
Q

What is Method 1 in relation to flight planning considering engine failure enroute?

A

Between takeoff and landing the aircraft can lose an engine and remain clear of all obstructions by

5SM and 1000 feet

174
Q

What is Method 2 in relation to flight planning considering enroute engine failure?

A

With an engine failure and route the aircraft can drift down to one suitable airport and remain clear of obstructions by

5SM and 2000’

EDV (17 decks)

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