GenSubs Workbook Flashcards
1
Q
Name two ways you can recognize windshear:
A
15 knot airspeed, 500 ft./min. vertical change, 5° pitch change, one dot GS change, abnormal thrust
2
Q
Low pressure system is a _____ system, The air flows ______,______, and _____.
A
Cyclonic system!
Counterclockwise, inward, and upward
3
Q
How large are super cold liquid droplets?
A
Larger than 100 to 150 µm (microns)
4
Q
What constitutes a severe icing?
A
Droplets of 175 µm or larger. Ice forming on side cockpit windows
5
Q
On an approach with icing, a go-around may ___ be an option
A
Not
6
Q
Where can you find Delta turbulence plot advisories?
A
On the release, above TLR
7
Q
What are some hazards of turbulence? (4)
A
- Engine Flame Out
- injury to passengers and crew
- damage to aircraft
- negative affects on performance during critical phases
8
Q
Microburst can cause significant windshear up to ____ knots, and up to _____ feet per minute downdrafts
A
90 knots / 6000 FPM
9
Q
During hot weather operations, Endeavor will delay boarding when cabin temperature exceeds ___°C
When cabin temperatures exceed ___°C crews need to ensure the APU is running while parked
A
33°C and 30°C (86°F) CFM 4-170
29°C ?
10
Q
Is there any anti-icing protection on the tail of the aircraft?
A
No
11
Q
CONTINUOUS icing is expected in _____ clouds, and the TYPE is _____
A
Status clouds, type is Rime ice.
12
Q
INTERMITTENT icing is expected in _____ clouds, and the TYPE is _____
A
Cumulus clouds, type of ice is clear/glaze
13
Q
Before the first flight of the day, when the airplane is cold-soaked at an ambient temperature of -30°C (-22°F) or below, for more than 8 hours:
A
- The engines must be motor for 60 seconds and fan rotation must be verified before an engine start is initiated
- Thrust reverser‘s must be actuated until deploy and stow cycles are 2 seconds or less
14
Q
What does it mean if an aircraft is cold-soaked?
A
The aircraft was at an ambient temperature of -30°C or lower for more than 8 hours
15
Q
When will a CRJ 900 crew perform a pre-takeoff check? What 4 surfaces are they to check?
A
When they expect to take off within the HOT.
The check is to be accomplished just prior to takeoff.
They will perform a visual check, from the flight deck, of: windshield wiper surface and center post, leading edge and upper surface of wings!
16
Q
When must a CRJ 900 crew perform a pre-takeoff contamination check?
Who completes the inspection, and what surfaces are they to check?
A
When a HOT has been exceeded.
The FO will complete this inspection!!!!
Must be completed from the Vantage Point (row 12) in the cabin. If the surfaces cannot be seen, you must return to the pad for new fluid.
17
Q
What eight things must be included in the deice communication?
A
Ship number, type brand and freezing point of fluid, time final application was started, clearance to start engines and leave the pad, verification to post deice inspection has been complete.
18
Q
In regards to snowfall intensities, if the visibility is being reduced by snow, along with: BLSN, FG, BR what do we do?
A
We will use the intensity reported by the weather observation, do not use the intensity on the chart.
19
Q
Flight crew members are required to report to duty ____ minutes prior to schedule departure time.
A
45 min
20
Q
The release time is ____ minutes after BLOCK-IN at the gate
A
15 min
21
Q
The only time a pilot is allowed to exceed flight time limitations is:
A
Due to unforeseen operational circumstances
22
Q
Scheduled time of report is based on what ______ time
A
Domicile
23
Q
Your body is governed by _____ _____, the low times are known as __________ or WOCL
A
Circadian Rhythm
 window of circadian low
24
Q
Can your rest period ever be reduced below 10 hours?
A
NOOO
25
Who does a pilot call when they are fatigued?
What form do they fill out, where do you find it, and how long do you have?
Crew scheduling!
Fatigue report form.
Endeavor website - flight ops - WBAT.
Complete the report by the end of the calendar day that you called out. (72 hours if you notify manager of flight safety)
26
What are 4 instrument approaches Endeavor is not authorized to use?
NDB, LPV, LNAV/VNAV, PAR
27
When must a pilot execute an immediate go around?
1. Unstable
2. Full-scale deflection of one pilots CDI
3. Equipment failure that changes the approach procedure’s minimums
28
On the CRJ 700 where should pilots crew baggage be stored?
13AB - Captain
| 16AB - FO
29
On the CRJ 900 where should pilots crew baggage be stored?
With G2 Compartment: one’s bag in G2, one’s bag and 13AB
Without G2 or Aft Closet: 13AB - Captain. 18AB - FO
WITH Aft Closet: all crew bags are stowed in the aft wardrobe closet!!
30
What is basic operating weight?
The complete aircraft weight for a revenue flight minus usable fuel and payload.
(BOW Includes gallery equipment crew and crew bags)
31
What makes up zero fuel weight?
BOW + payload.
Does not include usable fuel.
Must not exceed MZFW.
32
What makes up ramp weight? 
ZFW + fuel weight
33
What makes up takeoff gross weight?
Ramp weight - taxi burn
34
What makes up landing weight? 
Takeoff gross weight - enroute burn
35
When are winter weights utilized? (date range)
November 1 - April 30
36
When are summer weights utilized? (date range)
May 1 - October 31
37
What are the winter weights for adults and children?
```
Adults = 205
children = 91
```
38
What are the summer weights for adults and children?
```
Adults = 200
Children = 86
```
39
At what age are children considered infants?
Under 2 years old, they count as 23 pounds
40
How much do standard, heavy, and planeside bags weigh?
```
Standard = 34
Heavy = 58
Planeside = 19
```
41
What is the difference between Endeavor‘s and Delta’s pink tag/plane side baggage retrieval service?
Endeavor = picked up on Jetbridge or outside the plane.
Delta = picked up at destination at baggage claim.
42
What system is utilized to calculate weight and balance for our flights?
AeroData
43
How is weight and balance normally received?
ACARS
44
When you receive weight and balance information via radio from dispatch, what items must be read back? (3)
STAB GROSS PASSENGERS!!!!
Take off trim settings, takeoff gross weight, total number of passengers
45
What page in ACARS will you enter load information if you need to manually enter information?
Loadsheet
46
On the crew page on ACARS, what do you need to do if one of the FA jumpseats is deferred? Does the FA count in the passenger count?
1. Enter deferred in FA jumpseat
| 2. No the FA is not counted. AeroData calculates this
47
If the captain is receiving a line check, what should you enter into the ACARS page?
That there is an ACM (additional crewmember) in the jumpseat
48
What is the maximum landing weight for the 700 and 900?
700 = 67,000 pounds
900 = 75,100 pounds
49
What is the maximum AFT cargo weight for the 700 and 900?
3650 pounds for both aircraft
50
What is the maximum FWD cargo weight limit for the 700 and 900?
700 = 1000 pounds
900 = 1700 pounds
51
A runaway incursion is:
The incorrect placement of a person, vehicle or aircraft on a protected surface used for takeoff and landing without clearance, at an aerodrome.
52
During taxi, deviations from pilots can be a result of:
Loss of situational awareness, poor communication with ATC or other crewmembers, poor airport signage or familiarization
53
Low visibility taxi is below ____ RVR.
1200
54
During a low visibility taxi, which crew member(s) must have the airport diagram and low visibility chart displayed for reference?
Both flight crew members
55
What does SMGCS stand for?
Surface movement guidance and control system
56
SMGCS charts are from ____ RVR to ____ RVR
1200 to 600 ?
57
In low visibility, all pre-departure checklist are done while the aircraft is:
Stopped
58
Is it OK to stop on a runway, even if you just landed, if you are unsure of your location?
No, never stop on the runway
59
List for procedures to adhere to during taxi:
Sterile cockpit, scan outside, if lost stop and notify ATC, use your lights
60
What lights should be on when the engines are running?
Beacon and position
61
What lights should be on when taxiing?
Beacon, position, and taxi lights
62
What lights should be on if you lineup and wait on the runway?
All the lights except landing light
63
What lights should be on for takeoff?
All!!
64
What are hotspots and how are they designated on an airport diagram?
Areas of known incursions, red circles
65
Any misunderstanding or disagreement should be resolved before _____ the aircraft. Use Heading display to confirm correct taxiway or runway alignment.
Moving
66
At uncontrolled airports, you should monitor CTAF within ____ miles of the airport, and ______ all ground movement.
10 miles, announce
67
Which JEPP chart will you find the airport diagram?
10-9
68
When crossing hold short lines to take off or across a runway, both crew members must confirm their position by:
Comparing taxiway and runway signs to the taxi chart, and crosschecking the runway in the FMS before departure
69
Do the aircraft have evacuation slides or rafts?
No
70
How many Emergency Flashlights, and PBEs, are onboard the 700 and 900?
4 of each
| 900’s with 1 additional FA jumpseat will have 5 flashlights
71
How many Halon Extinguishers, and Quick Don Oxygen Masks, are on the 700 and 900?
3 of each
72
How many First Aid Kits, and Medical Oxygen Bottles, are on the 700 and 900?
2 of each
73
How many AEDs & EMKs are on the 700 and 900?
1 of each
74
How many Emergency Exits, and Crew Lifejackets are there on the 700?
5 of each
75
How many Emergency Exits, and Crew Lifejackets are there on the 900?
7 emergency exits
| 5 crew life jackets.
900’s with 1 additional FA jumpseat will have 6 Lifejackets
76
How long does PBE (protective breathing equipment) last?
15 mins
77
How do you know when PBE is no longer usable?
Indicator flashlight blinks red and green the last minute, and the hood will start to collapse
78
How close are PBE to fire extinguishers?
Within 3 feet
79
Describe the different classes of fires, and how to extinguish:
A - ordinary combustible materials (extinguish with water or halon)
B - liquids, oils, greases, gases
(extinguish with halon)
C - live electrical
(extinguish with halon)
D - combination materials
(extinguish with FOAM)
80
What is the acronym to aid in use of a halon extinguisher?
PASS
Pin, Aim, squeeze, sweep
81
What is the acronym and what is required when briefing a flight attendant of an emergency?
NASR
| Nature, amount of time, special instructions, repeat instructions
82
How do you know if the emergency flashlight is good?
Tab is in place and a red light blinking
83
What is the code for the EMK? Who can use it?
0911
Only doctors! FA checks credentials.
84
What exit are used in water ditching?
Overwing and crew escape hatch
85
What is a yellow level emergency?
Require a diversion or priority landing but does NOT require the cabin to prepare for evacuation
86
What is a red level emergency?
Requires a diversion/priority landing and DOES require the cabin to prepare for an emergency evacuation, includes bracing
87
Where are crew lifejackets found?
Under their respective jumpseats or cockpit seats
88
How should the Quick Don oxygen mask be set for flight?
Red lever to 100% (set and ready)
89
Explain the difference between normal and 100% level positions on quick don oxygen
Normal = oxygen mixed with ambient air
100% = 100% oxygen
90
Explain the difference between 100% on the lever, and emergency flow!
100% as full oxygen, on demand!
Emergency is 100% FORCED oxygen!
91
All engine failure or shutdowns require what? (2)
Maintenance right up, debriefing
92
When receiving any smoke indication, flight crews accomplish any ___ that may be required. If possible a ___ inspection is conducted in conjunction with the appropriate emergency checklist
Emergency checklist card
Visual
93
What events require a debriefing? (6)
Fires, failures, incursions, evacuations, incapacitation, more than 50% of PFD/MFD displays
FOM 11-7
94
What is the radio call out for distress?
Mayday
95
What is the radio call out for urgency?
Pan
96
Whenever an engine fails, or rotation of an engine has stopped, ATC and OCC are notified of the event as soon as ______ ______ and kept informed as to the progress of the emergency. A FSR must be submitted within ___ hours
Conditions permit
24 hours
97
If there is a medical emergency on board who can the pilots contact to assist?
STAT-MD (dispatch patches through)
Pilot will be middle man
98
When inspecting the PBE if the button is protruding or the humidity indicator is pink, the PBE is usable: true or false
False, signals the seal is poor
99
Donning the PBE must be completed within ____ of activation
15 seconds
100
How far and how long does a HALON extinguisher spray
10-12 feet for 10-12 seconds
101
For a LAHSO the minimum ceiling and invisibility is ___/___.
If the runway is equipped with a PAPI or VASI the minimum ceiling and invisibility is ___/___
1,500’/5
1,000’/3
102
Can you except a LAHSO if the runway is wet
No
103
Tailwind on the LAHSO runway must be calm, less than:
3 knots
104
LAHSO minimum runaway length for the 700 and 900?
```
700 = 6,000’
900 = 7,000’
```
105
When operating in RVSM airspace what is the recommended operating practice regarding climbs/descents?
Climb and decent rates are limited to 1000 ft./min. when operating within 5NM and within 2000 feet of other aircraft
106
What equipment is required for RVSM?
- Autopilot
- Altitude Alerting System
- 2 transponders (1 works)
- 2 air data computers (2 work)
107
What is the requirement for reported ceiling and vis for a circling approach?
1000/3 or reported weather is at least equal to the prescribed circling minimums, whichever is higher.
108
Which crewmember should have out there SMGCS if the visibility is less than 1200 RVR
Both pilots !!
109
When our SMGCS procedures activated at authorized airport?
When RVR is below 1200
110
For operations BELOW 1600RVR a minimum of ___ operative RVR systems are required, and ___ available RVR reports are _____
2 operative
All
Controlling
111
A MID RVR report may be substituted for an unavailable TDZ report if operations are AT or ABOVE _____ RVR
1600
112
What is a reportable event? Who needs to report it?
Accident, situation, or event that causes abnormal flight operations.
The captain.
113
True or false: if you will be using any RNAV procedures (SIDS, STARs), RAIM Prediction must be available
True
114
True or false: the use of RNAV instrument approach procedures in determining minimums can be used to dispatch at both the destination and alternate airport
False.
The use of RNAV instrument approach procedures in determining minimum is limited to destination airport OR alternates
115
Are you permitted to manually enter RNAV waypoints using latitude and longitude or a place/bearing?
Nooo
116
What is the required equipment for any RNAV procedure? (3) And GPS operation must be verified prior to takeoff
1 FMS, 1 GPS, 1 Flight Director.
Use of autopilot is recommended, not required.
117
What 4 GPS/RNAV approaches are approved?
Standalone, overlay, GPS, GNSS
118
When doing a GPS Overlay approach, ground-based navigation aids DO NOT have to be operational for the GPS approach? True or false
TRUE
119
For an RNAV Off the Runway SID, what mode is selected after rotation? When does autopilot have to be engaged?
Speed mode & NAV mode
climbing through 500 feet, at or above 600 feet AGL is required…
120
What are the two types of RNAV SIDS
1. Off the runway
| 2. Heading to a fix 
121
VNAV path smoothing happens on our aircraft at a minimum and a maximum allowable VPA of:
VPA of 1° to 6°
| (Default is 3°)
122
VNAV is used as an _____ tool at Endeavor
Advisory!!!
123
What is the vertical deviation scale and pointer?
The “Snowflake”
Indicates the FMS computed VPA.
Takes multiple altitude constraints into account. Aims to keep the aircraft as high as possible for as long as possible.
*doesn’t care about speed restrictions*
124
What are some benefits of VNAV?
Reduce pilot workload, crew standardization, advanced fuel management, enhanced energy management
125
Mach speed is:
The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound (which changes with temperature)
126
The effect of compressibility is an aid to the creation of _____ until the airstream of the wings surface reaches ______
Lift, speed of sound
127
Define shockwave
creates a region between undisturbed and disturbed air (Pressure boundary)
128
Define critical Mach
Speed at which a shockwave 1st forms on the aircraft.
Varies with aircraft weight, %CG, altitude and load factor
129
Define Dutch role
Aerodynamic characteristic of a swept wing aircraft when one wing gets ahead of the other and creates more lift, climbs and new drag production then pulls the wing back, creating a slip.
The same happens then to the other wing.
130
Define coffin corner
Operating margin as you increase altitude - the low stall speed increases in the high stall speed decreases
131
What is limiting Mach?
Operating speed in relation to the speed of sound. Compressibility effects create a noticeable lack of control
(Depicted on airspeed indicator by “Barber Pole” at all times)
132
What factors will decrease the critical/limiting mach? (4) 
Increased weight, increased load factor, forward CG, increased altitude
133
What are the design characteristics of a high altitude airplane?
High stall speed, high touchdown speed, rapid increase in drag at high angles of attack during turns
134
What is V1
Action speed
Max to abort
Minimum to continue
135
What does Vr ensure
Safe lift off & climb profile is met
136
What does V2 ensure
Ensures stall protection and controllability in the air & climb profile is met
137
What does VT(FTO) provide?
Allows aircraft to meet minimum climb gradient & provides stall protection
138
On a stable approach, when will you be at Vref?
Crossing the threshold
139
What are the 3 types of engine failure procedures, and where can they be found?
1. Standard (ACARS & TLR)
2. Simple Special (ACARS & TLR)
3. Complex (Only on JEPP 10-7)
140
In a “Standard” engine failure procedure no turns may be made until _____ when the weather is less than ______
1,000’ AFE
Less than 1000/3
141
On a “Simple Special” Engine failure procedure if there is a heading under the VIA, how soon can we start the turn to that heading?
50’ AFE
142
What is the standard means of receiving performance data?
What is the back up?
ACARS
Call dispatch via radio or phone
143
In what manual will you find a detailed chapter on performance?
CFM chapter 6
144
Is the company flight manual aircraft specific?
Yes
145
Runway slopes approved for takeoff and landing:
+2%/-2%
146
What is the maximum zero fuel (MZFW) weight for the 700 and 900?
```
700 = 62,300 pounds
900 = 70,750 pounds
```
147
What is the minimum FLIGHT weight for the 700 and 900?
```
700 = 42,000 pounds
900 = 45,000 pounds
```
148
What is the max landing weight for the 700 and 900?
```
700 = 67,000 pounds
900 = 75,100 pounds
```
149
What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?
10 knots 
150
What is the maximum XW component for TAKEOFF on a DRY runway for the 700 and 900?
28/35
151
What is the maximum XW component for LANDING on a DRY runway in the 700 and 900?
30/32
152
What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing on a wet runway?
27
153
When is flex thrust prohibited? (4)
- With wing/or cowl anti-ice bleeds in use
- runways contaminated
- warnings of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast
- when anti-skid system is inoperative
154
Can you do a flex thrust procedure on a WET runway?
Yes, provided that wet runway performance data is used
155
True or false: to avoid giving unwanted alerts, the terrain awareness Alerting and display functions must be inhibited on takeoff, approach, or landing within 15 NM of an airport not contained in the EGPWS airport database
True
| CFM 2-34
156
Continued operations in areas where SLD conditions exist is prohibited. What must you do if you suspect you are flying in SLD? (3)
Wing anti-system on, Cowl anti-ice system on, leave conditions when side window icing occurs
157
True or false: takeoff is permitted with frost adhering to the upper surface of the fuselage; and or the underside of the wing that is caused by cold soaked fuel.
True
| CFM 2-39
158
True or false: if the frost layer is thin enough to distinguished surface features, it is OK
True - but only on the 1. Upper surface of the fuselage and/or 2. the underside of the wing due to fuel cold soak
CFM 2-39
159
What are the maximum permissible fuel imbalances between the Main L tank and the Main R tank?
During takeoff: 300 pounds
All other phases of flight: 800 pounds
*Center fuel tank Quantity must be monitored throughout flight*
160
How much does 1 pound of jet A weigh?
6.75 pounds per US gallon
161
True or false: takeoff with a fuel load in excess of 500 pounds in the center tank is not permitted.
False - It is not permitted UNLESS each wing tank is above 4400 pounds
*or unless each wing tank is above 2000 pounds, the allowable zero fuel weight is reduced by the weight of the fuel in the center tank in excess of 500 pounds, and the CG is verified to be with an envelope. Dispatch must be contacted*
162
What is the minimum fuel for a go around?
600 pounds per wing
163
Takeoff with engine FUEL temperature indications below ___°C is prohibited
5°C (41°F)
164
True or false: Fuel powered crossflow and Fuel gravity crossflow must be OFF for takeoff.
True
165
What are T routes
Low altitude RNAV GPS routes
1200’ AGL to 17,999’
166
What are Q routes?
GPS routes
18,000 to 45,000’
167
J routes
Like a jet victor airway
168
The original release is good ___ hours past the out time at departures airport, and ___ hours past the time at intermediate airport.
2 hours
1 hour
169
Can UPDATE in 2 places
TO DATA
TO CONDITIONS
170
Jumpseater standard weights (summer and winter)
Summer - 213
| Winter - 218
171
What procedure is used to clear a malfunction that may be a nuisance or erroneous in nature
Fault reset
172
A fault reset procedure is preformed in the air: TRUE or FALSE
FALSE
173
What is Method 1 in relation to flight planning considering engine failure enroute?
Between takeoff and landing the aircraft can lose an engine and remain clear of all obstructions by
5SM and 1000 feet
174
What is Method 2 in relation to flight planning considering enroute engine failure?
With an engine failure and route the aircraft can drift down to one suitable airport and remain clear of obstructions by
5SM and 2000’
