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EDV > LMS Indoc Quiz Q's > Flashcards

LMS Indoc Quiz Q's Flashcards

1
Q

Takeoff safety speed is V_

A

V2

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2
Q

Engine assumed to fail speed is V__

A

Vef

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3
Q

You may not act as PIC with compromising medical conditions: true or false

A

True

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4
Q

Alcohol consumption time frame per 91.17

A

8 hours

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5
Q

VFR weather minimum of 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontally, and 500’ below clouds applies to which air space?

A

C & D

E below 10,000’

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6
Q

What is the marshaling symbology for “Chocks in”

A

A marshal with both arms up, holding the batons facing inward as if to make a flat roof over their head

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7
Q

Maximum holding speed between 6001 feet to 14,000 feet

A

230

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8
Q

To comply with 121.438 the PIC or SIC must have at least ___ hours of flight time in the type aircraft

A

75

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9
Q

The signature of the SIC on the release certifies the FO Has reviewed the dispatch release and flight plan: true or false

A

False

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10
Q

On the release and flight plan, minimum feel is the FAA required fuel at takeoff. Minimum fuel indicates all the following except:

Burn off, taxi, holding, fuel to most distant alternate.

A

Taxi

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11
Q

The schedule destination may be used as a takeoff alternate if it meets all of the requirements for a takeoff alternate: true or false

A

True

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12
Q

What are the lowest minimums you can derive given the following two approaches:

ILS 9, HAT = 200’ and 1/2 sm
ILS 27, HAT = 200’ and 1/2 sm

A

2 NAVAID Rule (+ 200’ and 1/2 sm)

400’ and 1sm

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13
Q

What are the lowest minimums you can derive given the following two approaches:

ILS 9L, HAT = 200’ and 1/2 sm
GPS 27, HAT = 450’ and 1-1/2 sm

A

1 NAVAID Rule (+ 400’ and 1sm)

600’ and 1-1/2 sm

  • Even though you have more than one operational NAVAID, treat it like the ILS is your only approach. (Otherwise you must add 200’ and 1/2sm to the highest mins, and abide by 650’/2sm)
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14
Q

To use the exemption 17203 there must be a published cat II approach available to the airport of intended landing: true or false

A

False

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15
Q

Takeoff with a report of 600 RVR or greater at touchdown zone, 600 RVR at mid if installed, and 600 RVR at rollout requires which light system to be operative?

A

CL (Centerline lights)

HIRL (High intensity runway EDGE late)

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16
Q

What are the lowest minimums you can derive given the following two approaches:

ILS 9L, HAT = 200’ and 3/4 sm
ILS 27, HAT = 250’ and 1/4 sm

A

2 NAVAID Rule - (+200’ and +1/2sm to the highest of either)

450’ and 1-1/4 sm

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17
Q

You may check in for a trip up to __ hours prior to the report time

A

4

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18
Q

At your domicile, when (amount of time) are flight crew members released after the block IN time (Deadheading or operating)?

A

15 minutes

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19
Q

Before takeoff the PIC and company may extend the FDP up to ___ hours

A

FDP = flight duty period

2 hours

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20
Q

After a pilot has accepted an FDP extension greater than 30 minutes, they may not except another extension greater than 30 minutes until that pilot has received how many hours of consecutive rest?

A

30 hours

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21
Q

An FDP that has no scheduled break is defined as Continuous Night Operations: true or false

A

False.

Split Time: allows for a minimum break in duty that is less than the required rest period. At least 3 hours.

Continuous Night Operations: Allows for a minimum break in duty that is less than the required rest period. At least 2 hours.

Continuous Duty Overnight: an FDP with NO scheduled break.

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22
Q

At a minimum, OE will consist of how many hours Under supervision of an endeavor line check airman?

A

25 hours

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23
Q

During a stabilized approach, when must engines be stabilized at the thrust setting required to maintain the desired airspeed and rate of descent?

A

500’ AFE

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24
Q

When may you cancel IFR at an uncontrolled airport?

A
  • If the landing surface is in sight
  • 10 nautical miles out
  • When in contact with air/ground facility
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25
Q

A CQ (continued qualification) line check, as a first officer, occurs:

A

Is evaluated during random checks for the captain

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26
Q

Who may choose to limit the number of available jump seats due to space or operational considerations?

A

The captain

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27
Q

PAs required when updating passengers shall be made every __ minutes

A

15 mins

28
Q

Who may not sit in the cabin jumpseat?

A

FAA inspector

29
Q

An SIC must have what class medical?

A

Valid 2nd Class medical

30
Q

By when must you have your medical submitted to the local regional chief pilot office?

A

By the 26th of the expiration month

31
Q

In terms of medication, overall fitness for duty is determined by who?

A

AME!

32
Q

The practice of ___ is key to the early detection of incapacitation of a crew member

A

Two way communication

33
Q

What time frame does the PIC have to complete an account of an emergency via a flight safety report?

A

24 hours

34
Q

A public address (PA) is required every __ minute, beginning no later than 5 minutes past the schedule departure

A

15 mins

35
Q

Who is the initial point of contact for mechanical discrepancies?

A

Dispatch

36
Q

Next to a voided entry, you write “EIE.” What must you do next to this entry?

A
  • Initial!

- Enter employee number next to the entry!

37
Q

MELs allow operation with an inoperative item. Who has final authority in determining if the flight can be conducted safely?

A

The PIC

38
Q

How are NEF items tracked?

A

Through the use of MM01 and MM02

39
Q

Is it required to have an NEF number on a release?

A

Yes, if there is an M or O procedure

40
Q

During preflight you notice a 1/2 inch dot of paint, what does this mean?

A

An aircraft Scratch or Dent was inspected by maintenance

41
Q

If an item is found to meet the short fuse watch/deferred maintenance item definition, where is the entry made?

A

In the aircraft flight or maintenance log, MM01 and MM02.

42
Q

Standard gross weight established by the manufacturer and set as a limitation that may not be exceeded is known as:

A

Maximum allowable

43
Q

Maximum weight of a loaded Aircraft minus fuel is:

A

Zero fuel weight

44
Q

Ramp weight minus taxi fuel is:

A

Max takeoff gross weight

45
Q

Actual weight as listed on the shipping manifest is:

A

Cargo weight

46
Q

Maximum takeoff weight plus taxi fuel:

A

Ramp/taxi weight

47
Q

Total weight of passengers, baggage and cargo:

A

Payload

48
Q

What is the minimum clearance zone distance between the truck and aircraft during deice procedures?

A

5 feet

49
Q

When does the hold overtime begin?

A

When the final application of fluid commences

50
Q

Critical aircraft surfaces include:

A

Wings, control surfaces, OAT probes, drain masts

51
Q

A pre-takeoff check (in regards to HOT) is accomplished from ____:

A

From the flight deck.

  • This check is performed when you expect to takeoff within your HOT, just prior to takeoff. Each crewmember visually inspect leading edge wing and respective surfaces.
52
Q

When a HOT has been exceeded, a pre-takeoff CONTAMINATION check can only be completed within __ minutes of takeoff

A

5 mins

53
Q

Who completes the post deice check?

A

The deicer

54
Q

Following behind a ___ front, you can expect:

  • Clear skies
  • Visibility improving
  • Pressure continuing to rise
A

Cold

55
Q

Ahead of what frontal passage would you expect:

  • Increased clouds with significant vertical development
  • Showery precipitation
  • Falling pressure
  • Hazy disability
A

Ahead of a Cold front ?

56
Q

Ahead of what front would you expect:

  • Falling pressure
  • Steady precipitation
  • Poor visibility
A

Ahead of a Warm front ?

57
Q

What type of weather can you expect while flying through an Occluded front?

A

Precipitation, possibly heavy rain

58
Q

What type of weather can you expect with a stationary front?

A

A combination of weather from warm and cold fronts

59
Q

Clouds are classified into families by:

A

Altitude (and stability)

60
Q

_____ is an elongated region of low pressure.

A

Trough

61
Q

What percentage of runway surface, when covered by standing water or slush more than 1/8 of an inch deep or that has accumulations of snow and ice, is considered a contaminated runway?

A

25%

62
Q

RCC of 5/5/4 in terms of breaking action means:

A

Good/good/good-medium

63
Q

What is the minimum distance of miles you will avoid severe weather areas?

A

At least 20 miles

64
Q

Which 2 cloud formations present significant potential for aircraft icing?

A

Stratus and cumulus

65
Q

If you encounter icing in an area of Stratus, a change in altitude by at least ____ feet will usually be sufficient to get out of icing

A

+/- 3,000 feet

EDV (17 decks)

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