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EDV > Basic Indoc Workbook > Flashcards

Basic Indoc Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

Vfto is ___

A

Final takeoff speed

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2
Q

Define flight time

A

When the aircraft is moving under its own power for the purpose of flight, And and when the aircraft comes to rest after landing

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3
Q

No person may operate an aircraft above ___ knots below 10,000 feet MSL

A

250

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4
Q

No person may operate an aircraft at or below ____ feet above the surface within ___ nm of a primary class C or a class D airspace at an indicated speed of more than ___ knots

A

2500 feet
4nm
200 knots

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5
Q

If a new release cannot be printed, such as enroute, the release may be amended via acars, radio, air inc. The amendment must include what three things?

A

The amendment, initials of dispatcher, UTC time.

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6
Q

The following deviations from the plan to release require dispatch notification:

Altitude change from planned cruise of +/- ____ feet up to FL310, +/- ____ feet above FL310.

Route deviations of more than ___ NM from planned course.

A

+/- 6,000 feet up to FL310.

+/- 4,000 feet above FL310.

100NM Deviation from plant center line.

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7
Q

Standard takeoff minimum (vis) for two engine aircraft:

A

1 statue mile or 5000 RVR

Standard for Endeavor unless specified higher

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8
Q

Lower than standard takeoff minimums can be found on the back of Jeppesen page ___. The lowest company takeoff minimum allowed is ___ RVR

A

10-9

600 RVR

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9
Q

Takeoff alternate is required when the departure airport would not allow a category ___ approach and landing in the event of an engine failure on takeoff

A

CAT I

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10
Q

Aircraft may not dispatch to a destination unless the forecast shows at or above ________ at the ETA

A

Landing minimum

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11
Q

Where are the three primary company communications?

A

Triple AAA

ACARS
AIRINC
Atlanta radio

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12
Q

Can you apply exemption 17347 to a second alternate? (Conditional forecast lower than landing minimum at ETA?)

A

No

  • can’t use for TAKEOFF alternate either
  • remember 17347 allows you to cut your derived minimums at an alternate in half for Dispatch legality purposes
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13
Q

What is conditional language that could be found in a weather report for a destination airport?

A

TEMP
BECMG
PROB

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14
Q

Is FROM considered conditional language

A

No

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15
Q

A pilot may not exceed __ hours of FLIGHT TIME in 672 consecutive hours

A

100 flight time in 672

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16
Q

A pilot may not exceed __ hours of FLIGHT TIME in 365 consecutive DAYS

A

1000

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17
Q

A pilot may not exceed __ hours of FDP in 168 consecutive hours

A

60 in 168

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18
Q

A pilot may not exceed __ hours of FDP in 672 consecutive hours

A

190 FDP

in 672

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19
Q

DUTY TIME begins at the time of ___ and ends at time of ___

A

Report

Release

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20
Q

How often are SICs required to have a line check? PICs?

A
  • Not required

- 18 months

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21
Q

A flight crew may accept a visual approach provided the flight is in class B C or D airspace, within __ miles of the destination in class E airspace

A

35 nm

FOM 8-117

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22
Q

May a celebrity animal occupy a seat?

A

Yes

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23
Q

Who may not sit in the cabin jumpseat?

A

FAA inspector

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24
Q

How many service/emotional animals may be allowed on any given flight?

A

No limit on the number, but not in exit seats

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25
Q

Is there a limit to the number of pet CARRIERS in the cabin?

A

One pet per passenger

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26
Q

Passengers may not be on the aircraft on the ground for greater than __ hours without an opportunity to deplane

A

3

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27
Q

Guidance for PA announcements during delays such as IROP can be found in chapter __ of the FOM

A

Chapter 9

9-12 thur 9-16

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28
Q

Passengers must have water, food, and lavatories available if on the ground for more than __ hour(s)

A

Doors closed for more than 90 minutes - Must be completed within 2 hours of the door closing.

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29
Q

Endeavor pilot must wear uniform blazers between what dates?

A

November 1 through March 31

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30
Q

Prior to flight, both pilots must review the MM01 back to the last _______

A

Airworthiness release

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31
Q

After a discrepancy and corrective action is logged, a new ____ page must be started

A

MM01

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32
Q

If there is a discrepancy (just like the discrepancies in the L3 cans) logged in the MM01 since the last airworthiness release, the release is suspended. To re-validate the airworthiness release there must be two things:

A
  1. A proper corrective action/deferral

2. Authorized mechanics signature and employee or certificate number

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33
Q

If no flight is conducted after logging a flight number, write ___ next to the flight number

A

No flight

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34
Q

When a flight is operated, flight crew must enter _____ ACARS is inoperative

A

Out, off, on, in

OOOI

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35
Q

Rather than distance from datum, Endeavor and most large Aircraft measure CG as ____

A

% MAC

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36
Q

Endeavor air uses the following standard passenger weights:

Summer: ____
Winter: ____

A

200 lbs Summer (May 1 - Oct 31)

205 lbs Winter (November 1 - April 30)

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37
Q

Endeavor air uses the following standard baggage weights:

Standard checked: ____
Heavy checked: ____
Planeside: ____

A

Standard checked: 34 lbs
Heavy checked: 58 lbs
Planeside: 19 lbs

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38
Q

Type I fluid is used as ___-ice and is what color?

A

De-Ice, orange/pink

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39
Q

Type IV fluid is used as ___-ice and is what color?

A

Anti- ice, green

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40
Q

Radiation cooling of the water will occur faster or slower than the Radiation cooling of the ground?

A

Slower

Remember the ground will always change temperature faster than bodies of water

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41
Q

In the tropoPAUSE temperature __ with height

A

Remains constant

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42
Q

In the stratosphere temperature __ what height

A

Increases

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43
Q

In and above the tropoPAUSE, aircraft efficiency __ with height

A

Decreases

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44
Q

Flying through any front, a change in _________, ________, and _____ is expected

A

Temperature, pressure, and wind

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45
Q

Temperature inversions will cause a stable or unstable atmosphere?

A

Stable!

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46
Q

What type of icing can be expected in Stratoform clouds?

A

Rime

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47
Q

What type of icing can be expected in cumuliform clouds? How will you avoid this?

A

Clear

Circumnavigate

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48
Q

What is the minimum distance that should be maintained from cells:

Below 10,000: ___ miles
10,000-25,000: ___ miles
Above 25,000: ___ miles

A

FOM 7-91

Below 10,000: 5 miles
10,000-25,000: 10 miles
Above 25,000: 20 miles

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49
Q

The downwind side of a storm should be avoided by at least __ mile(s) for every knot of wind aloft

A

1 mile for every knot aloft

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50
Q

Where can guidance for action to take in turbulence be found in the FOM?

A

7-95+

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51
Q

Where does class meet following an emergency evacuation?

A
  • North side of the fire suppression mound

- person holding number five

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52
Q

If 911 is called what emergency response location is the main Endeavor Headquarters, C-tower? What about the hands on trainer?

A

C-15

C-25

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53
Q

Where can the fifth floor FIRST AID kit be located?

A

The break room

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54
Q

Where is the fifth floor AED located?

A

Next to stairwell by the elevators

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55
Q

Define crewmember

A

Any person assigned to perform duties in aircraft during flight

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56
Q

Define flight crew member

A

Pilot, flight engineer, navigator assigned to perform duties in aircraft during flight

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57
Q

Define flight time

A

Anytime the aircraft is moving under its own power for the purpose of flight and commences when the aircraft comes to rest after landing

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58
Q

When must PILOTS where their lap belt?

A

All phases a flight!!!

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59
Q

When must FAs where their lap belt?

A

Takeoff
landing
turbulence

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60
Q

When must Pilots and FAs wear their shoulder harnesses?

A

Takeoff
landing
turbulence

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61
Q

No person may operate an aircraft underlying a class B at an indicated airspeed of more than __ knot

A

200

62
Q

Class G air space 1200 feet AGL to 10,000 feet MSL in the daytime:

A

1 Sm

5/1/2

63
Q

If the SIC has fewer than 100 hours as SIC in type, the PIC must takeoff and land when: (10 conditions)

A
  1. Prevailing disability is at or below 3/4 statute mile
  2. RVR at or below 4000
  3. Contaminated runway
  4. LAHSO operations
  5. Crosswind exceeds 15 knots
  6. Gust factor greater than 10 knots
  7. Windshear reported
  8. PIC determines it is prudent
  9. Breaking action less than good

Special Airports (page 10-7) at the discretion of CA

64
Q

At MDA or DH, if the approach lighting system is in sight, the aircraft may descend to _____

A

100 feet above touchdown zone elevation

65
Q

The_____is the only way to ensure your manual (FOM) is current

A

List of effective pages

66
Q

It is the____responsibility to ensure the currency and integrity of all manuals

A

Pilots

67
Q

Pilot grooming is FOM chapter

A

4

68
Q

High minimums captain and low time first officer limits are found in chapter

A

5

69
Q

Dispatch requirements are found in chapter

A

7

70
Q

Policy for flight procedures are found in chapter

A

8

71
Q

Information for service animals is found in chapter

A

9

72
Q

Chapter 13 is considered?

A

Sensitive security information

73
Q

How are filed TAS and filed Altitude written on your dispatch flight release

A

Found under “FILED FLIGHT PLAN”
Ex: N0449F340

True airspeed filed is 449 knots
Altitude filed is flight level 340

74
Q

Where is minimum enroute takeoff weight found on The dispatch flight release

A

Under “FILED FLIGHT PLAN”

METW

Ex: METW 1 85000

(Means 85,000 lbs)

75
Q

How do you calculate ETA based off the dispatch flight release?

A

Scheduled OFF time plus the ETE provided (found under “FLIGHT TIMES SUMMARY”)

(This time will be different than ON time or IN time)

76
Q

What does the M and P in front of each numbers mean with AVG WIND CMP (average wind component)?

A

M = minus - (headwind, negative for performance) 

P = plus + (indicating tailwind, positive for performance)

Ex:
M 5
P 2
M 6

  • A 5 not headwind, 2 knots tailwind, and 6 knot headwind
77
Q

List the 10 conditions requiring a re-issue or re-validation of the release:
FOM 7-15

A
  1. Changed tail number
  2. FOB exceeds release fuel by more than 500 pounds
  3. A new MEL/CDL or NEF is added/removed or an existing one is not listed
  4. Ground delay of more than 2 hours past OUT time
  5. Ground delay more than 1 hour past IN time at intermediate airport
  6. High minimums captain is not remarked
  7. Route change more than 100 NM
  8. +/- an alternate airport
  9. Changed destination or air return to departure
  10. Whenever deemed appropriate by PIC and dispatcher
78
Q

Lower than the standard takeoff mins (1SM or 5000RVR) can be found on the back of JEPP page___

A

10-9

…EDV authorized to 600RVR

79
Q

Takeoff Alternate is required when the departure airport would not allow CAT ___ approach and landing in the event of engine failure on takeoff

A

CAT I

80
Q

When all aircraft communications equipment is functionally normal, crew will maintain a listening watch on 121.5 after passing above FL180. When ACARS is unavailable, monitor the appropriate ___ or ___frequency

A

ARINC

ATL radio

81
Q

Pilot may not exceed ____ hours of flight time in 672 Consecutive hours

A

100 / 672

82
Q

A pilot may not exceed ___ hours of Flight Duty Period in 168 consecutive hours

A

60 / 168 hrs

83
Q

A pilot may not exceed ___ hours of FDP in 672 consecutive hours

A

190 / 672 hrs

84
Q

Duty time begins at time of ____ and ends at time of ____

A

Report, release

85
Q

FDP Begins and ends when?

A

Begins at time for report, ends when aircraft is parked and there is no intention of further movement by that same flight crewmember (block in)

86
Q

How often are pilots required to attend CQ ground?

A

12 months

87
Q

How often are pilots required to have an MV and LOE?

A

12 mo

88
Q

If a PIC has not flown over a route within the preceding ___ they must become familiar with the following from JEPP ____ (route qualification - 7 things)

A

JEPP 10-7

  1. Wx seasonal characteristics
  2. Navigation facilities
  3. Congested areas and physical layout
  4. Specific terrain & obstruction hazards
  5. MSA
  6. Pertinent ATC procedures
  7. Search and rescue

A story: seasonal weather, causing ATC procedures, requiring search & rescue, using navigational facilities, which are hazardous, regarding MSA, and physical layout

89
Q

A flight may cancel IFR provided it can operate VFR and within the class BCD airspace, or within ___ miles of the destination in class E

A

10

90
Q

A flight crew may except a visual approach provided it is in class BC or D airspace, within ___ miles of the destination in class E

A

35

91
Q

What is the procedure for a go-around from a visual approach, controlled and uncontrolled airport?

A

Controlled: COC Until Tower issues a new IFR clearance

Uncontrolled: COC, enter normal traffic pattern VFR. If unable contact ATC for new IFR clearance ASAP

92
Q

Endeavor Air defines a STABILIZED APPROACH as:

1000/500/crossing threshold

A

1000’ above AFE:

  • fully configured
  • stable descent rate (not exceeding 1000fpm)
  • aligned with landing RWY

500’ above AFE:

  • engine thrust stable
  • target airspeed

RWY Threshold:
- positioned to land normally in TDZ

93
Q

A missed approach must be conducted under what 3 conditions

A
  1. Full scale deflection of CDI
  2. Equipment failure that changes minimums
  3. Stabilized approach cannot be established
94
Q

The captain may authorize the flight attendant to offer complimentary liquor if the flight is delayed longer than___ hours. FAs may request approval after ___ minutes

A

1 hour

45 minutes

95
Q

A Passenger under the age of ____ may not be seated in an exit row

A

15

96
Q

Uniform blazers must be worn by pilots between ___ and ___

A

November 1 and March 31

97
Q

The importance of deicing is to ensure that critical surfaces are completely free of _______ , _____ , & ______ prior to takeoff

A

Ice snow and frost

98
Q

AFTER deicing, the following must be communicated from the deice crew: (8 things)

A
  1. Ship number
    2-4. Type, brand, freezing point of fluid
  2.  Time final application began
  3. Verify post deice inspection was complete
    7-8. Clearance to start engines, leave deice pad
99
Q

Uneven heating create:

A

Wind and turbulence!

100
Q

The most turbulent side of a jet stream is the ___ side

A

COLD

101
Q

Thunderstorms can be expected on the _____ side of a cold front

A

WARM

102
Q

Defined the following turbulence levels: light, moderate, severe, extreme

A

Light: Momentary changes in ALT & ATT

Moderate: More intense changes in ALT, ATT and ASI. Aircraft in positive control!!!

Severe: Large changes in ALT & ATT. Aircraft may be momentarily out of control.!

Extreme: Violently tossed. Aircraft almost impossible to control. May cause structural damage.!!!!!

103
Q

What precipitation gives off the most reflectivity on weather radar?

A

Wet hail.

Followed by rain, ice crystals, wet snow, dry hail, dry snow (least reflective)

104
Q

What does gain control do for onboard weather radar?

A

Adjust receiver sensitivity.

Ex: Gain REDUCTION can be utilized to detect the strongest area of a cell.

105
Q

Do not attempt to takeoff or approach when an airspeed loss of more than _____ knots is reported below _____ by a similar sized aircraft. This is a __________ precaution.

A

15 knots, 1000’ AGL

Windshear. FOM 8-46

106
Q

Execute a go-around immediately if at/below 1000 feet AGL, uncontrolled change from normal steady state parameters exceed the following: (5 things)

A 
Abnormal power required,
15 knot indicated airspeed change, 
500 feetpermanent vertical speed, 
5° pitch attitude change, 
one DOT GS displacement.
107
Q

A microburst can be characterized by _______ FPM downdrafts, and an increasing _______ followed by an increasing ______

A

3000, headwind followed by a tailwind

108
Q

In regards to windshear precautions, consider _____ settings, increased airspeed, and use of ____ rated takeoff power.

A

Flaps, Max rated

109
Q

Avoid large _____ and _____ changes due to indicated airspeed fluctuations from windshear on approach and landing.

A

Power and Trim

110
Q

Define CFIT:

A

An event in which an aircraft that is full functional mechanically is inadvertently flown into ground, obstacle, water

111
Q

What 3 conditions must be met to ignore a EGPWS Warning? (“PULL UP”)

A

Day, VFR, positive assurance the aircraft is clear

112
Q

Approximately what percent of commercial aircraft accidents are caused by CFIT?

A

50%

Was the highest fatal accident category after LOC-I

113
Q

Endeavor SOP’s state that no turns shall be commenced below 1000 feet AFE when takeoff weather is BELOW 1000 feet and 3 statute miles unless: (3)

A
  1. SID requires it
  2. Instrument departure procedure prescribes otherwise
  3. Performance data indicates an early all engines operating turn is allowed
    FOM 8-93

any turn below 1000 feet, the flight crew is responsible for obstacle clearance

114
Q

What is the best strategy arguably for prevention of CFIT?

A

Adhering to SOPs!

I thought Briefing !!!!! But no!?

115
Q

True or false: terrain can drastically increase operational complexity.

A

True

116
Q

If you receive an EGPWS Caution (in Amber), this indicates impact in _____ sec or less

A

60 seconds.

Terrain within 10 nautical miles will be automatically displayed

117
Q

If you receive an EGPWS Warning (in Red), this indicates impact in _____ sec or less

A

30 seconds.

Terrain within 10 nautical miles will be automatically displayed

118
Q

If in IMC there is ever a “PULL UP, TERRAIN” or “PULL UP, OBSTACLE“ warning, the crew must:

A

Recover using an escape maneuver!

119
Q

Required reports to ATC at all times: (8)

A

Vacating assigned attitude, unable to climb or descend at 500 ft./min., missed approach, a change of airspeed at 5% or 10 knots which ever is greater, time and altitude upon reaching a holding fix, loss of navigation capability, anything related to the safety of flight, encountering weather which has not been forecast

120
Q

Two reports that must be made to ATC when not in radar contact:

A

Leaving the FAF inbound, an estimated time off by 3 mins

121
Q

When making position reports, what eight pieces of information should be included?

A

Identification, position, time, altitude, IFR/VFR, ETA and name of next compulsory point, name of next succeeding point, pertinent remarks.

122
Q

MFPTW stands for?

A

Max flight plan takeoff weight

123
Q

MRTW stands for?

A

Max runway takeoff weight

124
Q

Define VMCG

A

Minimum controllable ground speed with no nose wheel steering

125
Q

Describe the first and second segment of climb in single engine

A

First: 35 feet to landing gear retracted

Second: climb out at V2

126
Q

Describe the third and fourth segment of climb in single engine

A

Third segment: acceleration and flap retraction.

Fourth segment: climb out at VT (VFTO?)

127
Q

Endeavor’s standard flap retraction altitude (FRA) is:

A

1000’ AGL

128
Q

LARGE aircraft departing behind HEAVY aircraft should be separated by ___ or ___ miles, or ___ minutes in non-radar environment.

A

4 or 5 miles, 2 minutes

129
Q

LARGE aircraft following behind HEAVY aircraft Enroute should be separated by _____ miles! Always!

A

5 miles!!!!

130
Q

LARGE aircraft following behind a 757 Enroute should be separated by _____ miles!

A

4 miles

131
Q 
JEPP Pages review.
10-2
10-3
10-7
10-9
11-**
A 
10-2 = STAR’s
10-3 = SID’s
10-7 = Company airport directory 
10-9 = Airport diagram
11-** = precision approaches
132
Q

What does the MORA on your JEPP low enroute chart provide

A

Minimum off route altitude: guaranteed obstruction clearance….Grid MORA provides an obstacle clearance altitude within a lat long grid block

133
Q

What does the MOCA on your JEPP low enroute chart provide

A

Obstacle clearance for entire segment, acceptable navigation signal within 22 NM of NAVAID

134
Q

What does the MEA on your JEPP low enroute chart provide

A

Terrain clearance and acceptable navigation/reception

135
Q

How can you find additional frequencies along a route utilizing JEPP enroute charts?

A

Select “route info“ at top to view frequencies…

136
Q

High mins CA can be dispatched to CAT I mins under what stipulation?

A

CAT II procedures will be used, and approach is never flown below CAT I mins.

137
Q

Lower than standard takeoff minimum‘s can be found on the back of JEPP page _____

A

10-9

138
Q

Flight time is defined as:

A

When the aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and commences when the aircraft comes to rest after landing

139
Q

If a PIC has not flown over a planned route within the preceding 12 months prior to operating, they must review the appropriate charts and JEPP page ____

A

10-7

Seasonal terrain causing ATC procedures requiring search and rescue because of a hazards and MSA and physical layout

140
Q

Reports that must be made to ATC at all times:

A

Vacating assigned Altitude, unable to climb/descend at 500 ft./min., missed approach, change into airspeed of 5% or 10 knots which ever is greater, Time & altitude upon reaching a holding fix, loss of navigation capability, anything safety related, weather that wasn’t forecast

141
Q

Position reports should include:

A

Identification, position, time, altitude, IFR/VFR, ETA and name of next compulsory reporting point, name of next succeeding reporting point, pertinent remarks

142
Q

Define marginal weather

A

Expected to be equal to the landing minimums at the destinations or alternate

143
Q

Debriefing events is necessary when:

A

A fire, failure, incursion, evacuation, loss of information of more than 50% of cockpit displays, cockpit flight crew illness or injury and cannot perform duties

144
Q

Describe appropriate conduct in a Training environment:

A

No unrelated materials, cell phones are off, you have your current EFB, you are present for all required hours, business casual attire

145
Q

A low time/high minimums first officer (less than 100 hours SIC), flying with a captain who is not a check pilot, may not takeoff or land in the following situation:

A

Prevailing visibility is less than 3/4 of a mile, RVR below 4000 feet, runway contaminated, breaking action less than good, crosswind over 15 knots, windshear, gust factor more than 10 knots, LAHSO

146
Q

What does exemption 17203 allow?

A

Allows flights to be dispatched with a high minimums Captain to CAT I minimums, but flown as CAT II procedures.

  • 17203 cannot be used if crosswind is 15 knots AND breaking action is less than good
147
Q

Who do you contact if you have a maintenance problem?

A

Dispatch !!

148
Q

What are the required communications BEOFRE deicing (3)

A
  1. Ship number,
  2. special requests,
  3. brakes set and aircraft is “configured” for deicing
149
Q

Minimum Fuel Advisory

A
  1. FRMNG is anticipated to be less than 30 minutes (15/45 reserve)
  2. All available options to reduce required field to complete the flight are used
  3. No further delay can be accepted
    * CRJ 900 equals 2000 pounds remaining* 
150
Q

Emergency fuel advisory

A
  1. FRMNG is anticipated to be less than 20 minutes (1,400lbs on CRJ900)
  2. MAYDAY FUEL. State remaining in minutes request priority direct to the airport
151
Q

Use of reserve fuel, use of decision fuel

A

Reserve fuel: use should be avoided. it is an enroute decision only, Regs don’t require reserve fuel to be maintained once in flight

Decision fuel: The amount of fuel when CA & Dispatch are expected to make operational decisions regarding altitude, destination, or diversions

EDV (17 decks)

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