Basic Indoc Workbook Flashcards
1
Q
Vfto is ___
A
Final takeoff speed
2
Q
Define flight time
A
When the aircraft is moving under its own power for the purpose of flight, And and when the aircraft comes to rest after landing
3
Q
No person may operate an aircraft above ___ knots below 10,000 feet MSL
A
250
4
Q
No person may operate an aircraft at or below ____ feet above the surface within ___ nm of a primary class C or a class D airspace at an indicated speed of more than ___ knots
A
2500 feet
4nm
200 knots
5
Q
If a new release cannot be printed, such as enroute, the release may be amended via acars, radio, air inc. The amendment must include what three things?
A
The amendment, initials of dispatcher, UTC time.
6
Q
The following deviations from the plan to release require dispatch notification:
Altitude change from planned cruise of +/- ____ feet up to FL310, +/- ____ feet above FL310.
Route deviations of more than ___ NM from planned course.
A
+/- 6,000 feet up to FL310.
+/- 4,000 feet above FL310.
100NM Deviation from plant center line.
7
Q
Standard takeoff minimum (vis) for two engine aircraft:
A
1 statue mile or 5000 RVR
Standard for Endeavor unless specified higher
8
Q
Lower than standard takeoff minimums can be found on the back of Jeppesen page ___. The lowest company takeoff minimum allowed is ___ RVR
A
10-9
600 RVR
9
Q
Takeoff alternate is required when the departure airport would not allow a category ___ approach and landing in the event of an engine failure on takeoff
A
CAT I
10
Q
Aircraft may not dispatch to a destination unless the forecast shows at or above ________ at the ETA
A
Landing minimum
11
Q
Where are the three primary company communications?
A
Triple AAA
ACARS
AIRINC
Atlanta radio
12
Q
Can you apply exemption 17347 to a second alternate? (Conditional forecast lower than landing minimum at ETA?)
A
No
- can’t use for TAKEOFF alternate either
- remember 17347 allows you to cut your derived minimums at an alternate in half for Dispatch legality purposes
13
Q
What is conditional language that could be found in a weather report for a destination airport?
A
TEMP
BECMG
PROB
14
Q
Is FROM considered conditional language
A
No
15
Q
A pilot may not exceed __ hours of FLIGHT TIME in 672 consecutive hours
A
100 flight time in 672
16
Q
A pilot may not exceed __ hours of FLIGHT TIME in 365 consecutive DAYS
A
1000
17
Q
A pilot may not exceed __ hours of FDP in 168 consecutive hours
A
60 in 168
18
Q
A pilot may not exceed __ hours of FDP in 672 consecutive hours
A
190 FDP
in 672
19
Q
DUTY TIME begins at the time of ___ and ends at time of ___
A
Report
Release
20
Q
How often are SICs required to have a line check? PICs?
A
- Not required
- 18 months
21
Q
A flight crew may accept a visual approach provided the flight is in class B C or D airspace, within __ miles of the destination in class E airspace
A
35 nm
FOM 8-117
22
Q
May a celebrity animal occupy a seat?
A
Yes
23
Q
Who may not sit in the cabin jumpseat?
A
FAA inspector
24
Q
How many service/emotional animals may be allowed on any given flight?
A
No limit on the number, but not in exit seats
25
Is there a limit to the number of pet CARRIERS in the cabin?
One pet per passenger
26
Passengers may not be on the aircraft on the ground for greater than __ hours without an opportunity to deplane
3
27
Guidance for PA announcements during delays such as IROP can be found in chapter __ of the FOM
Chapter 9
| 9-12 thur 9-16
28
Passengers must have water, food, and lavatories available if on the ground for more than __ hour(s)
Doors closed for more than 90 minutes - Must be completed within 2 hours of the door closing.
29
Endeavor pilot must wear uniform blazers between what dates?
November 1 through March 31
30
Prior to flight, both pilots must review the MM01 back to the last _______
Airworthiness release
31
After a discrepancy and corrective action is logged, a new ____ page must be started
MM01
32
If there is a discrepancy (just like the discrepancies in the L3 cans) logged in the MM01 since the last airworthiness release, the release is suspended. To re-validate the airworthiness release there must be two things:
1. A proper corrective action/deferral
| 2. Authorized mechanics signature and employee or certificate number
33
If no flight is conducted after logging a flight number, write ___ next to the flight number
No flight
34
When a flight is operated, flight crew must enter _____ ACARS is inoperative
Out, off, on, in
| OOOI
35
Rather than distance from datum, Endeavor and most large Aircraft measure CG as ____
% MAC
36
Endeavor air uses the following standard passenger weights:
Summer: ____
Winter: ____
200 lbs Summer (May 1 - Oct 31)
| 205 lbs Winter (November 1 - April 30)
37
Endeavor air uses the following standard baggage weights:
Standard checked: ____
Heavy checked: ____
Planeside: ____
Standard checked: 34 lbs
Heavy checked: 58 lbs
Planeside: 19 lbs
38
Type I fluid is used as ___-ice and is what color?
De-Ice, orange/pink
39
Type IV fluid is used as ___-ice and is what color?
Anti- ice, green
40
Radiation cooling of the water will occur faster or slower than the Radiation cooling of the ground?
Slower
| Remember the ground will always change temperature faster than bodies of water
41
In the tropoPAUSE temperature __ with height
Remains constant
42
In the stratosphere temperature __ what height
Increases
43
In and above the tropoPAUSE, aircraft efficiency __ with height
Decreases
44
Flying through any front, a change in _________, ________, and _____ is expected
Temperature, pressure, and wind
45
Temperature inversions will cause a stable or unstable atmosphere?
Stable!
46
What type of icing can be expected in Stratoform clouds?
Rime
47
What type of icing can be expected in cumuliform clouds? How will you avoid this?
Clear
| Circumnavigate
48
What is the minimum distance that should be maintained from cells:
Below 10,000: ___ miles
10,000-25,000: ___ miles
Above 25,000: ___ miles
FOM 7-91
Below 10,000: 5 miles
10,000-25,000: 10 miles
Above 25,000: 20 miles
49
The downwind side of a storm should be avoided by at least __ mile(s) for every knot of wind aloft
1 mile for every knot aloft
50
Where can guidance for action to take in turbulence be found in the FOM?
7-95+
51
Where does class meet following an emergency evacuation?
- North side of the fire suppression mound
| - person holding number five
52
If 911 is called what emergency response location is the main Endeavor Headquarters, C-tower? What about the hands on trainer?
C-15
| C-25
53
Where can the fifth floor FIRST AID kit be located?
The break room
54
Where is the fifth floor AED located?
Next to stairwell by the elevators
55
Define crewmember
Any person assigned to perform duties in aircraft during flight
56
Define flight crew member
Pilot, flight engineer, navigator assigned to perform duties in aircraft during flight
57
Define flight time
Anytime the aircraft is moving under its own power for the purpose of flight and commences when the aircraft comes to rest after landing
58
When must PILOTS where their lap belt?
All phases a flight!!!
59
When must FAs where their lap belt?
Takeoff
landing
turbulence
60
When must Pilots and FAs wear their shoulder harnesses?
Takeoff
landing
turbulence
61
No person may operate an aircraft underlying a class B at an indicated airspeed of more than __ knot
200
62
Class G air space 1200 feet AGL to 10,000 feet MSL in the daytime:
1 Sm
| 5/1/2
63
If the SIC has fewer than 100 hours as SIC in type, the PIC must takeoff and land when: (10 conditions)
1. Prevailing disability is at or below 3/4 statute mile
2. RVR at or below 4000
3. Contaminated runway
4. LAHSO operations
5. Crosswind exceeds 15 knots
6. Gust factor greater than 10 knots
7. Windshear reported
8. PIC determines it is prudent
9. Breaking action less than good
Special Airports (page 10-7) at the discretion of CA
64
At MDA or DH, if the approach lighting system is in sight, the aircraft may descend to _____
100 feet above touchdown zone elevation
65
The_____is the only way to ensure your manual (FOM) is current
List of effective pages
66
It is the____responsibility to ensure the currency and integrity of all manuals
Pilots
67
Pilot grooming is FOM chapter
4
68
High minimums captain and low time first officer limits are found in chapter
5
69
Dispatch requirements are found in chapter
7
70
Policy for flight procedures are found in chapter
8
71
Information for service animals is found in chapter
9
72
Chapter 13 is considered?
Sensitive security information
73
How are filed TAS and filed Altitude written on your dispatch flight release
Found under “FILED FLIGHT PLAN”
Ex: N0449F340
True airspeed filed is 449 knots
Altitude filed is flight level 340
74
Where is minimum enroute takeoff weight found on The dispatch flight release
Under “FILED FLIGHT PLAN”
METW
Ex: METW 1 85000
(Means 85,000 lbs)
75
How do you calculate ETA based off the dispatch flight release?
Scheduled OFF time plus the ETE provided (found under “FLIGHT TIMES SUMMARY”)
(This time will be different than ON time or IN time)
76
What does the M and P in front of each numbers mean with AVG WIND CMP (average wind component)?
M = minus - (headwind, negative for performance) 
P = plus + (indicating tailwind, positive for performance)
Ex:
M 5
P 2
M 6
- A 5 not headwind, 2 knots tailwind, and 6 knot headwind
77
List the 10 conditions requiring a re-issue or re-validation of the release:
FOM 7-15
1. Changed tail number
2. FOB exceeds release fuel by more than 500 pounds
3. A new MEL/CDL or NEF is added/removed or an existing one is not listed
4. Ground delay of more than 2 hours past OUT time
5. Ground delay more than 1 hour past IN time at intermediate airport
6. High minimums captain is not remarked
7. Route change more than 100 NM
8. +/- an alternate airport
9. Changed destination or air return to departure
10. Whenever deemed appropriate by PIC and dispatcher
78
Lower than the standard takeoff mins (1SM or 5000RVR) can be found on the back of JEPP page___
10-9
…EDV authorized to 600RVR
79
Takeoff Alternate is required when the departure airport would not allow CAT ___ approach and landing in the event of engine failure on takeoff
CAT I
80
When all aircraft communications equipment is functionally normal, crew will maintain a listening watch on 121.5 after passing above FL180. When ACARS is unavailable, monitor the appropriate ___ or ___frequency
ARINC
| ATL radio
81
Pilot may not exceed ____ hours of flight time in 672 Consecutive hours
100 / 672
82
A pilot may not exceed ___ hours of Flight Duty Period in 168 consecutive hours
60 / 168 hrs
83
A pilot may not exceed ___ hours of FDP in 672 consecutive hours
190 / 672 hrs
84
Duty time begins at time of ____ and ends at time of ____
Report, release
85
FDP Begins and ends when?
Begins at time for report, ends when aircraft is parked and there is no intention of further movement by that same flight crewmember (block in)
86
How often are pilots required to attend CQ ground?
12 months
87
How often are pilots required to have an MV and LOE?
12 mo
88
If a PIC has not flown over a route within the preceding ___ they must become familiar with the following from JEPP ____ (route qualification - 7 things)
JEPP 10-7
1. Wx seasonal characteristics
2. Navigation facilities
3. Congested areas and physical layout
4. Specific terrain & obstruction hazards
5. MSA
6. Pertinent ATC procedures
7. Search and rescue
A story: seasonal weather, causing ATC procedures, requiring search & rescue, using navigational facilities, which are hazardous, regarding MSA, and physical layout
89
A flight may cancel IFR provided it can operate VFR and within the class BCD airspace, or within ___ miles of the destination in class E
10
90
A flight crew may except a visual approach provided it is in class BC or D airspace, within ___ miles of the destination in class E
35
91
What is the procedure for a go-around from a visual approach, controlled and uncontrolled airport?
Controlled: COC Until Tower issues a new IFR clearance
Uncontrolled: COC, enter normal traffic pattern VFR. If unable contact ATC for new IFR clearance ASAP
92
Endeavor Air defines a STABILIZED APPROACH as:
| 1000/500/crossing threshold
1000’ above AFE:
- fully configured
- stable descent rate (not exceeding 1000fpm)
- aligned with landing RWY
500’ above AFE:
- engine thrust stable
- target airspeed
RWY Threshold:
- positioned to land normally in TDZ
93
A missed approach must be conducted under what 3 conditions
1. Full scale deflection of CDI
2. Equipment failure that changes minimums
3. Stabilized approach cannot be established
94
The captain may authorize the flight attendant to offer complimentary liquor if the flight is delayed longer than___ hours. FAs may request approval after ___ minutes
1 hour
| 45 minutes
95
A Passenger under the age of ____ may not be seated in an exit row
15
96
Uniform blazers must be worn by pilots between ___ and ___
November 1 and March 31
97
The importance of deicing is to ensure that critical surfaces are completely free of _______ , _____ , & ______ prior to takeoff
Ice snow and frost
98
AFTER deicing, the following must be communicated from the deice crew: (8 things)
1. Ship number
2-4. Type, brand, freezing point of fluid
5.  Time final application began
6. Verify post deice inspection was complete
7-8. Clearance to start engines, leave deice pad
99
Uneven heating create:
Wind and turbulence!
100
The most turbulent side of a jet stream is the ___ side
COLD
101
Thunderstorms can be expected on the _____ side of a cold front
WARM
102
Defined the following turbulence levels: light, moderate, severe, extreme
Light: Momentary changes in ALT & ATT
Moderate: More intense changes in ALT, ATT and ASI. Aircraft in positive control!!!
Severe: Large changes in ALT & ATT. Aircraft may be momentarily out of control.!
Extreme: Violently tossed. Aircraft almost impossible to control. May cause structural damage.!!!!!
103
What precipitation gives off the most reflectivity on weather radar?
Wet hail.
Followed by rain, ice crystals, wet snow, dry hail, dry snow (least reflective)
104
What does gain control do for onboard weather radar?
Adjust receiver sensitivity.
Ex: Gain REDUCTION can be utilized to detect the strongest area of a cell.
105
Do not attempt to takeoff or approach when an airspeed loss of more than _____ knots is reported below _____ by a similar sized aircraft. This is a __________ precaution.
15 knots, 1000’ AGL
| Windshear. FOM 8-46
106
Execute a go-around immediately if at/below 1000 feet AGL, uncontrolled change from normal steady state parameters exceed the following: (5 things)
```
Abnormal power required,
15 knot indicated airspeed change,
500 feetpermanent vertical speed,
5° pitch attitude change,
one DOT GS displacement.
```
107
A microburst can be characterized by _______ FPM downdrafts, and an increasing _______ followed by an increasing ______
3000, headwind followed by a tailwind
108
In regards to windshear precautions, consider _____ settings, increased airspeed, and use of ____ rated takeoff power.
Flaps, Max rated
109
Avoid large _____ and _____ changes due to indicated airspeed fluctuations from windshear on approach and landing.
Power and Trim
110
Define CFIT:
An event in which an aircraft that is full functional mechanically is inadvertently flown into ground, obstacle, water
111
What 3 conditions must be met to ignore a EGPWS Warning? (“PULL UP”)
Day, VFR, positive assurance the aircraft is clear
112
Approximately what percent of commercial aircraft accidents are caused by CFIT?
50%
| Was the highest fatal accident category after LOC-I
113
Endeavor SOP’s state that no turns shall be commenced below 1000 feet AFE when takeoff weather is BELOW 1000 feet and 3 statute miles unless: (3)
1. SID requires it
2. Instrument departure procedure prescribes otherwise
3. Performance data indicates an early all engines operating turn is allowed
FOM 8-93
**any turn below 1000 feet, the flight crew is responsible for obstacle clearance**
114
What is the best strategy arguably for prevention of CFIT?
Adhering to SOPs!
I thought Briefing !!!!! But no!?
115
True or false: terrain can drastically increase operational complexity.
True
116
If you receive an EGPWS Caution (in Amber), this indicates impact in _____ sec or less
60 seconds.
*Terrain within 10 nautical miles will be automatically displayed*
117
If you receive an EGPWS Warning (in Red), this indicates impact in _____ sec or less
30 seconds.
| *Terrain within 10 nautical miles will be automatically displayed*
118
If in IMC there is ever a “PULL UP, TERRAIN” or “PULL UP, OBSTACLE“ warning, the crew must:
Recover using an escape maneuver!
119
Required reports to ATC at all times: (8)
Vacating assigned attitude, unable to climb or descend at 500 ft./min., missed approach, a change of airspeed at 5% or 10 knots which ever is greater, time and altitude upon reaching a holding fix, loss of navigation capability, anything related to the safety of flight, encountering weather which has not been forecast
120
Two reports that must be made to ATC when not in radar contact:
Leaving the FAF inbound, an estimated time off by 3 mins
121
When making position reports, what eight pieces of information should be included?
Identification, position, time, altitude, IFR/VFR, ETA and name of next compulsory point, name of next succeeding point, pertinent remarks.
122
MFPTW stands for?
Max flight plan takeoff weight
123
MRTW stands for?
Max runway takeoff weight
124
Define VMCG
Minimum controllable ground speed with no nose wheel steering
125
Describe the first and second segment of climb in single engine
First: 35 feet to landing gear retracted
Second: climb out at V2
126
Describe the third and fourth segment of climb in single engine
Third segment: acceleration and flap retraction.
Fourth segment: climb out at VT (VFTO?)
127
Endeavor’s standard flap retraction altitude (FRA) is:
1000’ AGL
128
LARGE aircraft departing behind HEAVY aircraft should be separated by ___ or ___ miles, or ___ minutes in non-radar environment.
4 or 5 miles, 2 minutes
129
LARGE aircraft following behind HEAVY aircraft Enroute should be separated by _____ miles! Always!
5 miles!!!!
130
LARGE aircraft following behind a 757 Enroute should be separated by _____ miles!
4 miles
131
```
JEPP Pages review.
10-2
10-3
10-7
10-9
11-**
```
```
10-2 = STAR’s
10-3 = SID’s
10-7 = Company airport directory 
10-9 = Airport diagram
11-** = precision approaches
```
132
What does the MORA on your JEPP low enroute chart provide
Minimum off route altitude: guaranteed obstruction clearance….Grid MORA provides an obstacle clearance altitude within a lat long grid block
133
What does the MOCA on your JEPP low enroute chart provide
Obstacle clearance for entire segment, acceptable navigation signal within 22 NM of NAVAID
134
What does the MEA on your JEPP low enroute chart provide
Terrain clearance and acceptable navigation/reception
135
How can you find additional frequencies along a route utilizing JEPP enroute charts?
Select “route info“ at top to view frequencies…
136
High mins CA can be dispatched to CAT I mins under what stipulation?
CAT II procedures will be used, and approach is never flown below CAT I mins.
137
Lower than standard takeoff minimum‘s can be found on the back of JEPP page _____
10-9
138
Flight time is defined as:
When the aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and commences when the aircraft comes to rest after landing
139
If a PIC has not flown over a planned route within the preceding 12 months prior to operating, they must review the appropriate charts and JEPP page ____
10-7
| Seasonal terrain causing ATC procedures requiring search and rescue because of a hazards and MSA and physical layout
140
Reports that must be made to ATC at all times:
Vacating assigned Altitude, unable to climb/descend at 500 ft./min., missed approach, change into airspeed of 5% or 10 knots which ever is greater, Time & altitude upon reaching a holding fix, loss of navigation capability, anything safety related, weather that wasn’t forecast
141
Position reports should include:
Identification, position, time, altitude, IFR/VFR, ETA and name of next compulsory reporting point, name of next succeeding reporting point, pertinent remarks
142
Define marginal weather
Expected to be equal to the landing minimums at the destinations or alternate
143
Debriefing events is necessary when:
A fire, failure, incursion, evacuation, loss of information of more than 50% of cockpit displays, cockpit flight crew illness or injury and cannot perform duties
144
Describe appropriate conduct in a Training environment:
No unrelated materials, cell phones are off, you have your current EFB, you are present for all required hours, business casual attire
145
A low time/high minimums first officer (less than 100 hours SIC), flying with a captain who is not a check pilot, may not takeoff or land in the following situation:
Prevailing visibility is less than 3/4 of a mile, RVR below 4000 feet, runway contaminated, breaking action less than good, crosswind over 15 knots, windshear, gust factor more than 10 knots, LAHSO
146
What does exemption 17203 allow?
Allows flights to be dispatched with a high minimums Captain to CAT I minimums, but flown as CAT II procedures.
- 17203 cannot be used if crosswind is 15 knots AND breaking action is less than good
147
Who do you contact if you have a maintenance problem?
Dispatch !!
148
What are the required communications BEOFRE deicing (3)
1. Ship number,
2. special requests,
3. brakes set and aircraft is “configured” for deicing
149
Minimum Fuel Advisory
1. FRMNG is anticipated to be less than 30 minutes (15/45 reserve)
2. All available options to reduce required field to complete the flight are used
3. No further delay can be accepted
* CRJ 900 equals 2000 pounds remaining* 
150
Emergency fuel advisory
1. FRMNG is anticipated to be less than 20 minutes (1,400lbs on CRJ900)
2. MAYDAY FUEL. State remaining in minutes request priority direct to the airport
151
Use of reserve fuel, use of decision fuel
Reserve fuel: use should be avoided. it is an enroute decision only, Regs don’t require reserve fuel to be maintained once in flight
Decision fuel: The amount of fuel when CA & Dispatch are expected to make operational decisions regarding altitude, destination, or diversions
