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T6 > SY > Flashcards

SY Flashcards

1
Q

Three elements necessary for engine operation

A

Air, Fuel, Heat

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2
Q

Two major sections that make up the engine

A
  1. Gas Generation Section
  2. Power Turbine Section
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3
Q

Name the only primary component of the accessory compartment

A

The starter

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4
Q

Describe the PT6A-68 engine

A

reverse-flow, free-turbine turboprop engine rated to produce 1100 shaft horsepower

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5
Q

Name the gas generator section components

A

4C’s
1. Compressor inlet
2. Compressor
3. Combustion chamber
4. Compressor turbine

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6
Q

Name the power turbine section

A
  1. Power Turbines
  2. Exhaust Case
  3. Reduction Gearbox
  4. Propeller Shaft
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7
Q

Name the exhaust components

A
  1. Exhaust ports
  2. Exhaust stacks
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8
Q

What do the exhaust stacks do?

A
  1. turn the exhaust air from the exhaust ports 180 degrees
  2. provide a small amount of additional thrust
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9
Q

Name the ignition system components

A
  1. Ignition Exciter
  2. Two igniter cables
  3. Two igniters
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10
Q

What positions are the igniters installed?

A

4 and 9 o’clock at the combustion chamber

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11
Q

What provides the fuel for start?

A

The FMU (Fuel Management Unit)

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12
Q

What provides air for start?

A

The Starter

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13
Q

What provides heat for start?

A

The Ignition System

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14
Q

Name the positions of the ignition switch

A
  1. ON
  2. NORM
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15
Q

What illuminates when the igniters are activated?

A

Green IGN SEL annunciator

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16
Q

What does the PCL control?

A

Engine fuel flow

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17
Q

How are the forward and aft PCL’s connected?

A

A push-pull rod

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18
Q

How is the PCL connected to the FMU?

A

Mechanically and Electrically (through PMU)

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19
Q

Name the three labeled positions of the PCL

A
  1. MAX
  2. IDLE
  3. OFF
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20
Q

Primary functions of the PMU

A
  1. Keep engine and prop within operating limits
  2. Processes power requests
  3. Determines available power
  4. Provides linear response between IDLE and MAX
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21
Q

Amber PMU STATUS annunciator in flight, Master CAUTION, and aural tone

A

Indicates either failure of WOW switch or a WOW mismatch. PMU will not revert to ground mode after landing

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22
Q

Amber PMU STATUS annunciator after landing

A

PMU fault picked up in flight, notify MX

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23
Q

Red PMU FAIL annunciator, Master CAUTION and WARN, and aural tone

A

Non-functional PMU

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24
Q

PMU Power Supply

A

Primary - PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) 32 VAC which PMU converts to DC
Alternate (PMA Fail) - 28 VDC from Battery Bus

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25
Q

Oil System Purpose

A

provide a steady flow of filtered oil to the engine bearings, reduction gears, accessory drives, and propeller.

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26
Q

Oil Scavenge system

A

several pressure and scavenge pumps after the bearings gears, drives, and prop which return oil to the oil tank.

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27
Q

Oil Cooler

A

Cools scavenged oil before returning to the oil tank

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28
Q

Chip Detector

A

located in the reduction gearbox, sense metallic fragments in the oil system

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29
Q

Red CHIP annunciator, Master WARN, and aural tone

A

Chip detector has detected metal fragments

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30
Q

How long do you have to CHECK oil after shutdown?

A

15-20 minutes

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31
Q

How long do you have to SERVICE oil after shutdown?

A

30 mins

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32
Q

Amber OIL PX annunciator

A

15 and 40 psi at IDLE
40 and 90 psi for 10 seconds above IDLE

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33
Q

Red OIL PX annunciator

A

15 psi or below at IDLE
40 psi or below above IDLE

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34
Q

Both the Red and Amber OIL PX annunciators

A

(Ops Limit)
Between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE for 5 seconds or more

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35
Q

Describe the purpose of the propeller

A

To convert power into thrust

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36
Q

What controls Np?

A

The PMU and PIU (Prop Interface Unit)

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37
Q

What RPM is 100% Np?

A

2000 RPM

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38
Q

At what altitude is 100% torque available?

A

12,000-16,000 MSL

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39
Q

Phase Shift Torque Probe

A

Located on the reduction gearbox. Measures Np. Signal monitored by PMU

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40
Q

Mechanical Overspeed Governor Max Np

A

106% Np, 2120 RPM

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41
Q

Three Pitch Conditions

A
  1. Feathered
  2. High Pitch (coarse)
  3. Low Pitch (flat or fine)
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42
Q

PIU (prop interface unit) function

A

regulates system oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism

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43
Q

What does the prop do when oil pressure is lost?

A

Moves towards feather (wont fully feather until PCL is placed in off)

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44
Q

When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be

A

pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator illuminates

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45
Q

Engine Data Manager (EDM)

A

computer unit located in the left avionics bay that monitors and processes engine operation data

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46
Q

EDM Engine Related Tasks

A

It drives the primary, alternate, and engine/systems displays and illuminates advisory, caution, or warning annunciators

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47
Q

EDM Non-Engine Related Tasks

A

fuel balancing, fuel quantity indications, activation of the nosewheel steering annunciator, a display of DC volts, DC amps, hydraulic pressure, cockpit pressure altitude, and cockpit pressure differential.

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48
Q

PEDD (Primary Engine Data Display)

A

Provides visual indication of primary engine data.

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49
Q

PEDD Display Information (5 indications)

A
  1. Torque
  2. ITT (Interstage Turbine Temp)
  3. N1 (Gas Generator Speed)
  4. Np (Propeller RPM)
  5. IOAT (Indicated Outside Ambient Temp)
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50
Q

Torque

A

Resistance to rotation by the prop. Measured by phase-shift torque probe.

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51
Q

ITT (Interstage Turbine Temp)

A

Temp between compressor turbine and the power turbine measured at the combustion chamber.

52
Q

N1 (Gas Generator Speed)

A

The speed pf the compressor turbine. Measured by magnetic pulse sensor on the accessory gearbox.

53
Q

Np (Propeller RPM)

A

Prop speed measured by phase shift torque probe

54
Q

IOAT (Indicated Outside Air Temp)

A

Measured by T-1 Sensor located in the inlet plenum.

55
Q

AEDD (Alternate Engine Data Display)

A

provides each cockpit with a backup visual indication of engine operations. Data not processed by PMU (like PEDD), except Torque.

56
Q

AEDD Display Info (7 indications)

A
  1. RITT (Raw Interstage Turbine Temp)
  2. Torque
  3. N1
  4. Cockpit Pressure Altitude
  5. ΔP (Cockpit Differential Pressure)
  6. Fuel Flow
  7. Fuel quantity
57
Q

Red CKPT PX annunciator, MASTER WARN, aural tone

A

ΔP exceeds 3.9 to 4.0 psi

58
Q

Amber CKPT ALT annunciator, MASTER CAUTION, aural tone

A

Cockpit altitude exceeds 19,000 feet.

59
Q

ESD (Engine Systems Display) Info (5 indications)

A
  1. Oil Temperature
  2. Oil Pressure
  3. Hydraulic Pressure
  4. DC Voltage
  5. DC Amperage
60
Q

Oil Temperature

A

Measured downstream of the main oil pump by a transducer

61
Q

Oil Pressure

A

Measured downstream of the main oil pump by a transducer

62
Q

Hydraulic Pressure

A

Measured by a pressure sensor located on the power pack reservoir

63
Q

Hydraulic Pressure Normal Operating Range

A

2880-3120 PSI

64
Q

Fire Warning System Components

A
  1. Core Element
  2. Sensor Tube
  3. Responder Assembly
65
Q

Fire Detection Core Element

A

Senses fires/hot gas

66
Q

Fire Detector Sensor Tube

A

Senses average temps for overheat

67
Q

Firewall Shutoff Handle shuts off supply of these 3 systems

A
  1. Hydraulics (to engine)
  2. Fuel (to engine)
  3. Bleed Air (from engine)
68
Q

1 Fire Power Source

A

Batt Bus

69
Q

2 Fire Power Source

A

Gen Bus

70
Q

PEDD Power Source

A

Gen Bus

71
Q

AEDD Power Source

A

Gen and Batt Bus (redundant)

72
Q

ESD Power Source

A

Gen Bus

73
Q

Types of Abnormal Starts

A

Hot, Hung, No-Start

74
Q

Hot Start Indications

A

High/Rapidly Rising ITT
Lower N1
Lower Np

75
Q

Hung Start Indications

A

Slow Rising ITT
Lower N1
Lower Np

76
Q

No-Start Indications

A

No ITT
Lower N1
No Np
No Torque

77
Q

Name the electrical system components

A

starter/generator
battery
auxiliary battery
external power receptacle

78
Q

Name the two buses in the electrical system

A

Battery Bus (left)
Generator Bus (right)

79
Q

Starter/Generator

A

primary aircraft power source. provides 28 VDC power and is capable of supplying 300 amps

80
Q

Generator Control Unit

A

monitors generator and trips off-line in the event of a malfunction/located in AFT right cockpit.

81
Q

Generator Control Switch Operation

A

magnetically held and electrically interlocked

82
Q

Avionics Master Switch

A

Power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits EXCEPTIONS:
1. UHF control unit
2. UHF transceiver

83
Q

Bus Tie Switch

A

used to tie the battery and generator buses together.
2 Positions: OPEN and NORM

84
Q

Secondary Power Components

A

(everything but the starter/gen)
1. 24VDC Battery
2. 24 VDC Auxiliary Battery
3. External Power Receptacle

85
Q

Primary Battery

A

provides power for engine starts and is capable of powering all electrical systems (except air conditioning, which is automatically shed)

86
Q

Battery Switch Operation

A

magnetically held and electrically interlocked

87
Q

Auxiliary Battery

A

powers a minimum number of aircraft systems and avionics in the event of failure of the generator and primary battery

88
Q

External Power Control

A

External power is distributed on the battery bus, and is controlled by the battery switch (BAT) on the right forward switch panel

89
Q

Individual Avionics Lighting

A

EFIS, RMU, AOA, GPS Panels all have their own dimmer knob

90
Q

Landing Light

A

Left Main Gear. Will not illuminate until down and locked.

91
Q

Taxi Light

A

Right Main Gear. Will not illuminate until down and locked.

92
Q

Anti-Collision Light Flash Rate

A

30 times per minute, synchronous

93
Q

What does mass balancing do?

A

Regulate control pressures, prevent control flutter, and improve control stability

94
Q

What is mass balancing?

A

Moving the center of gravity of the control surface to its hinge line

95
Q

The TAD calculates inputs to rudder trim based on these 4 parameters

A
  1. Pitch Rate
  2. Altitude
  3. Airspeed
  4. Engine Torque
96
Q

The primary hydraulic system operates the following:

A

Gear and inboard gear doors, flaps, speed brake, nosewheel steering

97
Q

T-6A hydraulic system operating pressure

A

3000 +/- 120 PSI

98
Q

What are the 5 selector valves included in the selector manifold?

A

Landing Gear, Gear Doors, Speed Brakes, Takeoff Flaps, and Landing Flaps

99
Q

Amber HYDR FL LO light comes under when

A

Reservoir fluid drops below 1 quart

100
Q

Three circumstances in which emergency hydro is operated

A

Primary Hydro Failure, Engine Failure, Batt Bus Failure

101
Q

4 Major Canopy Components

A

Frame, Forward windscreen, Front Cockpit Transparency, Rear Cockpit Transparency

102
Q

Forward Transparency/Windscreen Birdstrike Rating

A

4lbs/270 KIAS

103
Q

4 Canopy Sub-Assemblies

A

Hinge/strut system, Locking/Latching System, Sealing System, Canopy Fracturing System (CFS)

104
Q

How many hooks hold the canopy closed?

A

5

105
Q

How many switches illuminate the Red CANOPY light on the CWS?

A

Four. 3 on the hooks, 1 on the sill

106
Q

What is the source of air for the canopy pressure seal?

A

Engine bleed air from the anti-g system

107
Q

Piezoelectric crystals

A

used to detonate explosive chords in CFS. Do not require electricity to work

108
Q

Flexible Linear Shaped Chord (FLSC)

A

Mounted on forward transparency for more powerful explosion (thicker transparency)

109
Q

Mild Detonation Chord

A

Mounted on rear transparency (less powerful due to thinner transparency)

110
Q

When would the Manual Override Handle be used?

A

When in mountainous terrain and seat pilot separationis is desired above 14,000 MSL

111
Q

Powered Inertia Retraction Device (PIRD)

A

Properly positons shoulders for ejection.

112
Q

How well the ejection seat performs depends on these 3 factors

A

dive angle, bank angle, sink rate

113
Q

How far behind the aft seat does front seat ejection take place?

A

.37 seconds

114
Q

What is the function of the drogue chute?

A

stabilize the seat and aid in deceleration

115
Q

At what altitude will the seat separate and chute deploy?

A

14,000-16,000 MSL

116
Q

When does the personal locator beacon begin transmitting?

A

When the survival kit separates from the seat

116
Q

When does the personal locator beacon begin transmitting?

A

When the survival kit separates from the seat

117
Q

How long does it take to deploy the SSK?

A

4 seconds

118
Q

Primary Flight Controls

A

Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator

119
Q

Secondary Flight Controls

A
  1. Aileron Trim
  2. Elevator Trim
  3. Rudder Trim
  4. Trim Aid Device (TAD)
    (All electro-mechanically operated)
120
Q

Which cockpit has priority for roll/pitch/yaw trim?

A

Rear Cockpit

121
Q

What pressure does the reservoir step down piston regulate pump return pressure to?

A

50 PSI

122
Q

What pressure doe the pressure release valve actuate?

A

3250-3500 PSI

123
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulic Slide Valve #1?

A

Isolate the hydro pressure coming from the engine driven pump once the Emergency System has been activated

124
Q

3 specific scenarios where emergency extension is required

A

engine failure, batt bus failure and primary hydro system failure

125
Q

When does the EHYD PX LO light come on?

A

2400 +/- 150 PSI

126
Q

When will the hydraulic fuse trip on the emergency hydraulic system?

A

.25 GPM or about 1 pint of fluid lost

T6 (13 decks)

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