MQF Flashcards
1 (Core). The PIC will verbally report the incident to a supervisor or commander and prepare a
detailed written record within 24 hours or as soon as mission permits:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. In the event of a deviation from a flight rule
B. When given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency
C. Both A and B
2 (Core). The PIC will ensure compliance with the following:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Aircraft technical order (T.O.)
B. Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearance and Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs)
C. Flight Information Publications (FLIPs)
D. All of the above
3 (Core). True/False, An ATC clearance is not authority to deviate from AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3. In an inflight
emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet
that emergency. When deviating from an ATC clearance, notify ATC of the action taken as soon as
possible.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
4 (Core). When an alternate airport is required and the pilot uses both ceiling and visibility weather
criteria to determine the suitability of the destination, total flight plan fuel:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Need not include the fuel required for a missed approach at the intended destination.
B. Must include fuel for an approach and missed approach at the intended destination.
C. Must include fuel for an approach at the alternate.
D. Must include a fuel reserve of 25 percent of total flight time or 30 minutes, whichever is higher
5 (Core). When computing required fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel
consumption rates for:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Maximum range.
B. Best endurance.
C. Maximum range at 10,000 feet MSL.
D. Best endurance at 10,000 feet MSL.
6 (Core). The minimum turn altitude after an IFR takeoff is 400 feet above the departure end of the
runway elevation unless:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Required by a published procedure
B. VMC
C. Required by ATC
D. A or C
E. All of the above
7 (Core). Aircraft with retractable landing gear will report their gear is down to ATC prior to _____.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. FAF
B. Crossing the threshold
C. MAP
D. Aircraft with multiple crew positions may omit the call to ATC if the crew has independently verified
the landing gear is down prior to crossing the threshold
E. B & D
9 (Core). PICs must plan a contingency procedure to account for one engine inoperative on takeoff. If no
other acceptable departure methods are available, and the mission justifies the increased risk, the PIC
may, after extensive preflight planning, reduce up to _____ feet per NM from the required climb gradient.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 52
B. 48
C. 200
D. 152
10 (Core). An alternate is required when the weather forecast at the destination, including TEMPO
conditions, from ± 1 hour of ETA is less than:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Ceiling of 5,000 feet and visibility of 5 SM
B. Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility of 3 SM
C. Forecast crosswinds are outside aircraft limitations
D. B & C
11 (Core). For fixed wing aircraft, the prevailing weather at the alternate ± 1 hour of ETA, including
TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain showers, or snow showers) must be
forecasted to be at or above the highest of:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. A ceiling of 1,000 feet
B. A visibility of 2 SM
C. A ceiling of 500 feet above the lowest compatible minimums
D. A visibility of 1 SM above the lowest compatible minimums
E. All of the above
12 (Core). USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class C, D, E (below 10,000 feet MSL), or G (below
10,000 feet MSL) airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of _____SM and be _____ feet
below, ____ feet above, and _____ feet horizontal from the clouds.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 2; 500; 1,000; 2,000
B. 3; 500; 1,000; 2,000
C. 2; 1,000; 500; 2,000
D. 3; 1,000; 500; 2,000
13 (Core). The OG/CC (or equivalent) is the approval authority to allow aircrew to fly practice instrument
approaches under VFR (AETCSUP). Which of the following apply?
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities
B. Use terminal radar service when available
C. Make all required position reports
D. Receive ATC approval to fly the published missed approach.
E. All of the above
14 (Core). USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class E and G airspace (at or above 10’000 feet MSL) must
have a prevailing or flight visibility of _____ SM and be _____ feet below, _____ feet above, and _____
SM horizontal distance from the clouds.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 5; 500; 1,000; 1
B. 3; 500; 1,000; 2,000
C. 2; 1,000; 500; 2,000
D. 5; 1,000; 1,000; 1
15 (Core). For manned aircraft night operations, aircrew must have an operable flashlight.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
16 (Core). The PIC may make changes to the original filed flight plan without re-filing provided:
(AFMAN 11- 202 Vol 3)
A. The change does not penetrate an ADIZ
B. The controlling ATC agency approves the change for an IFR flight
C. The change complies with applicable host-nation rules
D. All of the above
17 (Core). By filing a fight plan, the PIC certifies all of the following except:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. The flight was authorized IAW AFMAN 11-401
B. The flight complies with ADIZ restrictions and special use airspace or MTR scheduling &
coordination procedures
C. The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight
D. The flight plan has been reviewed for completeness and accuracy
18 (Core). When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under IFR or
VFR, vigilance shall be maintained by each pilot operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
19 (Core). Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or flyovers are acceptable if approved by ATC.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
False
20 (Core). Aircrew will not fly if any alcohol was consumed within ____ hours prior to _____ or if
impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 12; preflight ground duties
B. 8; takeoff
C. 12; takeoff
D. 8; preflight ground duties
21 (Core). It is permissible for the PIC to retrieve all NAVAIDs, navigational fixes, and PBN instrument
procedures from an expired database, provided it can be verified with current FLIP.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
False
22 (Core). Aircrew have the requirement to tune, identify, monitor and _____ the appropriate groundbased NAVAID whenever practicable.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Disregard
B. Ignore
C. Deny
D. Display
23 (Core). VFR-on-Top is:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. An entirely VFR operation during which an aircraft departs VFR, maintains VFR cloud clearances
while operating atop an undercast cloud layer, and completes a VFR descent and landing at the
destination airfield
B. ATC authorization for an IFR aircraft to operate in VFR conditions at any appropriate VFR
altitude
C. ATC clearance for an aircraft on a VFR flight plan to operate in IMC
D. None of the above
24 (Core). Which is a correct standard holding pattern in the National Airspace System?
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Right turns, 1 minute outbound legs when holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL
B. Left turns, 1.5 minute inbound legs when holding at or above 14,000 feet MSL
C. Right turns, 1 minute inbound legs when holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL
D. Right turns, 1.5 minute inbound legs when holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL
25 (Core). While being radar vectored for an approach, ATC clears you for the approach, but you are
below a published altitude restriction. You must:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Climb to comply with the published altitude restriction.
B. Maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published instrument
procedure.
C. Terminate the current approach and request new vectors.
D. None of the above
26 (Core). Before starting the initial descent into an airfield:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Recheck the weather
B. Review the instrument procedures
C. Check the heading and attitude systems
D. Coordinate lost communication procedures, if necessary
E. All of the above
27 (Core). Unless the instrument procedure specifies otherwise, the remain within distance of a procedure
turn is measured from:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. The procedure turn fix.
B. The runway.
C. Final approach fix.
D. The MAP.
28 (Core). The final approach may be as much as _____ degrees off of the runway centerline and still be
considered a straight-in approach.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 20
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40
29 (Core). When flying an ILS, if the aircraft is more than half-scale below or full scale above glideslope:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Do not descend below localizer minimums
B. You must discontinue the approach
C. Descent may be continued to the DA if the glideslope is recaptured to within half-scale below or less
than full scale above glideslope
D. A or C
E. None of the above
31 (Core). Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than 200 feet AGL or a change in
terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval (Exception: 150ft for JOG). The worst case would be a
199-foot obstacle on terrain with an elevation just below the next higher contour. For a TPC with a
contour interval of 500 feet, this results in an uncharted obstacle existing 698 feet above charted terrain.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
32 (Core). Pilots must adhere to the following when entering Class C airspace:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Be in prior two-way radio communication with ATC
B. Do not exceed 200 knots at or below 2500ft AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport unless
authorized by ATC or required to maintain the minimum operating airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.
C. Either A or B
D. Both A and B
33 (Core). An aircraft is considered in two-way radio contact if a controller responds to a radio call with,
“[call sign] standby.” If a controller responds with “Aircraft calling approach, standby” then two-way
radio contact has not been established.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
34 (Core). In order to avoid inadvertent flight into IMC while operating under VFR, anticipate IMC and
alter route of flight to maintain VMC unless safety dictates otherwise. If unable to maintain VMC:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Immediately transition to instruments
B. Coordinate an IFR clearance
C. Cancel the VFR flight plan
D. All of the above
35 (Core). Aircrew will read back all taxi and hold short instructions.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
36 (Core). At an airport with an operating control tower, you must obtain clearance before (select the best answer):
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Taxiing and takeoff
B. Taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, takeoff
C. Taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, landing
D. Taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, takeoff and landing
37 (Core). Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of
less than _____ft AGL except over open water, in special use airspace, or in sparsely populated areas.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
38 (Core). Mission permitting, do not operate aircraft less than _____ ft. AGL over national recreation
areas and wildlife refuges.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. None of these
39 (Core). The PIC shall not intentionally fly into a thunderstorm.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
40 (Core). Do not fly an approach or land at an airport where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions
are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear or microbursts unless the
runway and flight path are clear of hazards.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
41 (Core). If the reported weather decreases below lowest compatible approach minimums after _____ ,
the approach may be continued to the appropriate MAP and a landing may be accomplished if all criteria
for landing are met.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Beginning a descent
B. Receiving radar vectors for an approach
C. Established on any segment of an approach prior to the missed approach point
D. All of the above
E. B and C only
42 (Core). For loss of cabin pressure, pilots should initiate an immediate descent to the lowest practical
altitude, preferably below _____ . Do not allow cabin altitude to remain above _____ unless occupants
are wearing functional pressure suits.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 10,000 ft MSL; 13,000 ft MSL
B. 10,000 ft MSL; 18,000 ft MSL
C. 13,000 ft MSL; 18000 ft MSL
D. 18,000 ft MSL; FL250
43 (Core). If conditions (weather, airspace, etc.) prevent completing the mission under VFR, the PIC will
alter the route of flight and continue VFR:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. Until reaching the destination
B. Until obtaining an IFR clearance
C. Until landing at a suitable location
D. Any of the above
44 (Core). If an aircrew member remains after flying to perform official duties, the crew rest period
begins after termination of these duties.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
45 (Core). Aircrew may initiate mission-related communication with official agencies without
interrupting crew rest.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
True
46 (Core). When the missed approach is initiated prior to the MAP, unless otherwise cleared by ATC,
_____ .
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. After announcing your intentions, begin the missed approach procedure from that point
B. Fly the instrument procedure as specified on the approach plate, including altitude restrictions, to the
MAP
C. Remain at or above the MDA, DA, or DH
D. B and C
47 (Core). IFR departure climb gradients. Pilots under IFR must plan to cross the DER at or above _____
feet per nautical mile, beginning at 16 feet above the departure end of the runway.
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. 100
B. 200
C. 400
D. 500
E. None of these
48 (Core). Descent below MDA is not authorized until _____ .
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. No other aircraft are on the runway
B. Sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established
C. The aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing
D. B and C
E. All of the above
49 (Core). The definition of “runway environment” consists of one or more of the following:
(AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3)
A. The approach light system
B. The threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights
C. Taxiway lights
D. A and B
E. All of the above
156 (Core). A key concept of the VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON) is to ensure that an
aircraft will always be within 100 NM of an airport with an instrument approach that is not dependent on
GPS. If the pilot encounters a GPS outage, the pilot will be able to proceed via VOR-to-VOR navigation
at _____ through the GPS outage area or to a safe landing at a MON airport or another suitable airport, as
appropriate.
(AIM 1-1-3)
A. 3000 feet AGL
B. 5000 feet AGL
C. 7000 feet AGL
D. 10,000 feet AGL
157 (Core). The localizer provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold
from a distance of _____ NM.
(AIM para. 1-1-9)
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 18
E. None of the above
158 (Core). The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of _____ .
(AIM para. 1-1-9)
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 18
E. none of the above
159 (Core). The capability of a GPS receiver to perform integrity monitoring on itself by ensuring
available satellite signals meet the integrity requirements for a given phase of flight describes:
(AIM para. 1-1-17)
A. GPS Selective Availability
B. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
C. System Integrity and Availability
160 (Core). VFR waypoint names (for computer-entry and flight plans) consist of five letters beginning
with the letters _____ and are retrievable from navigation databases. The VFR waypoint names are not
intended to be pronounceable, and they are not for use in ATC communications.
(AIM para. 1-1-17)
A. V-GPS
B. V-Waypoint
C. VP
D. VFRP
161 (Core). GPS VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans.
(AIM 1-1-17)
True
162 (Core). All approaches that contain “GPS” in the title (e.g., “VOR or GPS RWY 24,” “GPS RWY
24,” or “RNAV (GPS) RWY 24”) can be flown using GPS.
(AIM para. 1-1-17)
True
163 (Core). A GPS missed approach automatically sequences the receiver past the missed approach
waypoint (MAWP) to the missed approach portion of the procedure without the need for manual pilot
action.
(AIM para. 1-1-17)
False
164 (Core). Class B airspace is generally from the surface to _____ feet MSL surrounding the busiest
(primary) airports in the NAS. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all
aircraft that are so cleared receive separation services within the airspace. Regardless of weather
conditions, an ATC clearance is _____ prior to operating within Class B airspace.
(AIM para. 3-2-3)
A. 10,000; required
B. 10,000; recommended
C. 13,000; recommended
D. 13,000; required
165 (Core). Pilot participation is _____ within the _____ NM outer area of Class C airspace and can be
discontinued, within the outer area, at the pilot’s request. ATC services will be provided in the outer area
unless the pilot requests termination of the service.
(AIM para. 3-2-4)
A. voluntary; 20
B. mandatory; 20
C. voluntary; 10
D. mandatory; 10
166 (Core). When a pilot checks in with the control tower and reports “…with the numbers” or “have
numbers”, it indicates receipt of _____ :
(AIM para. 4-1-13)
A. ATIS broadcast
**B. Wind, runway, and altimeter information only
**C. Situational awareness of traffic volume
167 (Core). Which of the following radio transmissions is correctly formatted for initial contact with the
respective ATC agency?
(AIM para. 4-2-3)
A. “Miami Center, request flight following for Eagle Four One.”
B. “Lufthansa Niner Alpha Seven Six calling Forth Worth Approach with Information X-ray, request
visual approach, runway 13C, full stop.”
C. “Columbia Ground, Wombat Three One, south ramp, I-F-R Memphis, request clearance.”
D. “Talon Two Three request direct RANDY for one turn in holding followed by the HI-ILS Runway
168 (Core). In an ATC clearance or instruction, read back _____ .
(AIM para 4-4-7)
A. Altitudes
B. Altitude restrictions
C. Vectors
D. All of the above
169 (Core). If non-RVSM equipped, the pilot will report “Negative RVSM”:
(AIM para. 4-6-8)
A. On the initial call on any frequency in the RVSM airspace
B. In all requests for flight level changes pertaining to flight levels within the RVSM airspace
C. In all read backs to flight level clearances pertaining to flight levels within the RVSM airspace
D. In read back of flight level clearances involving climb and descent through RVSM airspace
E. All of the above
170 (Core). VFR flight plans are not automatically closed. USAF pilots will notify ATC by any means
available to ensure their VFR flight plan is closed. Failure to ensure a VFR flight plan is closed within
_____ of the ETA will cause initiation of search and rescue efforts.
(AIM para. 5-1-14)
A. 1 hour
B. ½ hour
C. 20 minutes
D. ¼ hour
171 (Core). Pilots should not change to the departure control frequency until requested.
(AIM para. 5-2-8)
True
172 (Core). Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse,
is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of
runway elevation, climbing to _____ feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the
initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of _____ feet per nautical mile, unless required to
level off by a crossing restriction, until the _____ .
(AIM para. 5-2-9)
A. 200; 400; minimum IFR altitude
B. 400; 200; minimum obstacle clearance altitude
C. 400; 200; minimum IFR altitude
D. 200; 400; minimum obstacle clearance altitude
173 (Core). When no delay is expected, ATC should issue a clearance beyond the fix as soon as possible
and, whenever possible, at least ____ minutes before the aircraft reaches the clearance limit. When an
aircraft is ____ minutes or less from a clearance limit and clearance beyond the fix has not been received,
the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix, initially, at or below
the maximum holding airspeed.
(AIM para. 5-3-8)
A. 3; 5
B. 5; 3
C. 3; 3
D. 5; 5
174 (Core). You enter holding at a DME fix that does not specify the outbound leg length, and you are at
FL 180; you should _____ .
(AIM para. 5-3-8)
A. Fly outbound for 10 miles, then turn.
B. Fly outbound until you are ready to turn inbound, then turn.
C. Fly outbound for a period of time that will permit a 1-minute inbound leg.
D. Fly outbound for 1.5 minutes.
176 (Core). If an aircraft is established in a published holding pattern at an assigned altitude above the
published minimum holding altitude and subsequently cleared for the approach, the pilot may descend to
the published minimum holding altitude.
(AIM para. 5-3-8)
True
177 (Core). For those holding patterns where there are no published minimum holding altitudes, the pilot,
upon receiving an approach clearance, must maintain the last assigned altitude until leaving the holding
pattern and established on the inbound course.
(AIM para. 5-3-8)
True
178 (Core). Pilots cleared for vertical navigation using the phraseology “Descend Via” must inform ATC
upon initial contact with a new frequency, of the following:
(AIM para. 5-4-1)
A. altitude leaving
B. “descending via (procedure name”
C. the runway transition or landing direction if assigned
D. any assigned restrictions not published on the procedure
**E. all of the above **
179 (Core). If unable to comply with the requirements of an RNAV or RNP procedure,:
(AIM para. 5-5-16)
A. Pilots must advise air traffic control as soon as possible
B. Pilots must ensure they back up the GNSS source with ground-based NAVAIDs
C. Pilots must ensure they can clear visually
D. Any of the above
180 (Core). Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure (instrument approach,
departure, or arrival procedure) unless:
(AIM para. 5-5-16)
A. It is retrievable by the procedure name from the current aircraft navigation database and
conforms to the charted procedure
B. The pilots are able to manually enter all points and verify correct courses, headings and altitudes
C. A or B
181 (Core). Whenever possible, _____ should be extracted from the database in their entirety, rather than
loading RNAV route waypoints from the database into the flight plan individually. However, selecting
and inserting individual, named fixes from the database is permitted, provided all fixes along the
published route to be flown are inserted.
(AIM 5-5-16)
A. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)
B. Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs)
C. T- and Q-routes
D. All of the above
182 (Core). An aircraft is considered to be established on-course during RNAV and RNP operations any
time it is within:
(AIM para. 5-5-16)
A. 3 NM
B. 1 times the required accuracy for the segment being flown
C. The accuracy requested by ATC
D. The accuracy required by the given airspace category
183 (Core). _____ communications have absolute priority over all other communications, and the word
_____ commands radio silence on the frequency in use.
(AIM para. 6-3-1)
A. Distress; MAYDAY
B. Urgency; PAN-PAN
C. Emergency Fuel; BINGO
D. Joker Fuel; JOKER
184 (Core). _____ communications have priority over all other communications except distress, and the
word _____ warns other stations not to interfere with urgency transmissions.
(AIM para. 6-3-1)
A. Emergency Fuel; BINGO
B. Joker Fuel; JOKER
C. Urgency; PAN-PAN
184 (Core). _____ communications have priority over all other communications except distress, and the
word _____ warns other stations not to interfere with urgency transmissions.
(AIM para. 6-3-1)
A. Emergency Fuel; BINGO
B. Joker Fuel; JOKER
C. Urgency; PAN-PAN
185 (Core). In the event of two-way radio failure in IFR conditions, which of the following correctly lists
the order of options available to the pilot for the route to be flown?
(AIM para. 6-4-1)
D. If VFR conditions are encountered, continue VFR and land as soon as practicable; fly the route
last assigned by ATC; fly the direct route to the fix/route/airway of the vector clearance; fly the
route ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance; fly the flight plan route
AvenueF
186 (Core). In the event of two-way radio failure in IFR conditions, which of the following correctly
outlines the procedures for the altitude to be flown?
(AIM para. 6-4-1)
A. Fly the altitude or flight level in the last ATC clearance or the altitude or flight level ATC advised may
be expected in a further clearance
B. Fly the highest of: the altitude or flight level in the last ATC clearance, the minimum altitude or
flight level for IFR operations, or the altitude or flight level ATC advised may be expected in a
further clearance
C. Fly the altitude or flight level in the last ATC clearance, the altitude or flight level ATC advised may
be expected in a further clearance, or the flight plan altitude to an IAF of a compatible instrument
approach at the planned destination airfield
187 (Core). In the event of two-way radio failure in IFR conditions, which of the following correctly
outlines the procedures for leaving a clearance limit that is a fix from which an approach begins? (AIM
para. 6-4-1)
A. Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival
(ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En Route (ETE)
B. Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance
time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the Estimated
Time of Arrival (ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En
Route (ETE)
C. Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival
(ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En Route (ETE), or as close
as possible to the expected further clearance time, whichever occurs first
188 (Core). In the event of two-way radio failure in IFR conditions nearing a clearance limit that is not a
fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect further clearance time if one
has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix
from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to
the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.
(AIM para. 6-4-1)
True
189 (Core). If an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder experiences a loss of two‐way radio
capability, the pilot should adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A/3, Code _____ .
(AIM para. 6-4-2)
A. 1200
B. 4000
C. 7500
D. 7600
E. 7700
190 (Core). _____ are designed for visual navigation of slow to medium speed aircraft. The topographic
information consists of contour lines, shaded relief, drainage patterns, and an extensive selection of visual
checkpoints and landmarks used for flight under VFR. Cultural features include cities and towns, roads,
railroads, and other distinct landmarks.
(AIM para. 9-1-4)
A. Sectional Aeronautical Charts
B. IFR En Route High Altitude Charts
C. IFR En Route Low Altitude Charts
D. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts
E. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts
191 (Core). _____ are designed to expedite clearance delivery and to facilitate transition between takeoff
and en route operations.
(AIM para. 9-1-4)
A. Sectional Aeronautical Charts
B. IFR En Route High Altitude Charts
C. IFR En Route Low Altitude Charts
D. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts
E. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts
192 (Core). _____ provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000
feet MSL.
(AIM para. 9-1-4)
A. Sectional Aeronautical Charts
B. IFR En Route High Altitude Charts
C. IFR En Route Low Altitude Charts
D. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts
E. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts
193 (Core). _____ are designed to expedite ATC arrival procedures and to facilitate transition between en
route and instrument approach operations.
(AIM para. 9-1-4)
A. Sectional Aeronautical Charts
B. IFR En Route High Altitude Charts
C. IFR En Route Low Altitude Charts
D. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts
E. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts
193 (Core). _____ are designed to expedite ATC arrival procedures and to facilitate transition between en
route and instrument approach operations.
(AIM para. 9-1-4)
A. Sectional Aeronautical Charts
B. IFR En Route High Altitude Charts
C. IFR En Route Low Altitude Charts
D. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts
E. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts
194 (Core). _____ are designed for navigation at or above 18,000 feet MSL.
(AIM para. 9-1-4)
A. Sectional Aeronautical Charts
B. IFR En Route High Altitude Charts
C. IFR En Route Low Altitude Charts
D. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts
E. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts
195 (Core). _____ is an in-flight weather advisory issued only to amend the Aviation Surface Forecast,
Aviation Cloud Forecast, or area forecast concerning weather phenomena which are of operational
interest to all aircraft and potentially hazardous to aircraft having limited capability because of lack of
equipment, instrumentation, or pilot qualifications. It covers moderate icing, moderate turbulence,
sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the surface, widespread areas of ceilings less than 1,000 feet
and/or visibility less than 3 miles, and extensive mountain obscuration.
(AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary)
A. Airmen’s Meteorological Information (AIRMET)
B. Significant Meteorological Information (SIGMET)
C. Convective SIGMET
196 (Core). _____ is a weather advisory issued concerning weather significant to the safety of all aircraft.
It covers severe and extreme turbulence, severe icing, and widespread dust or sandstorms that reduce
visibility to less than 3 miles.
(AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary)
A. Airmen’s Meteorological Information (AIRMET)
B. Significant Meteorological Information (SIGMET)
C. Convective SIGMET
197 (Core). _____ is a weather advisory issued concerning weather significant to the safety of all aircraft.
It is issued for tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms of any intensity level, areas of
thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 with an area coverage of 4/10 (40%) or more, and hail
3/4 inch or greater.
(AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary)
A. Airmen’s Meteorological Information (AIRMET)
B. Significant Meteorological Information (SIGMET)
**C. Convective SIGMET **
199 (Core). A minimum safe altitude is the altitude depicted on approach charts that provide at least 1,000
feet of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile radius (2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas) of the
navigation facility, waypoint, or airport reference point upon which.
(AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary)
False
200 (Core). An emergency safe altitude is the altitude depicted on approach charts that provide at least
1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 100-mile radius (2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas) of
the navigation facility or waypoint used as the center reference.
(AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary)
True
201 (Core). Flight toward a NAVAID, without correcting for wind, by adjusting the aircraft heading to
maintain a relative bearing (the angular difference between the aircraft heading and the direction to the
station, measured clockwise from the nose of the aircraft) of zero degrees describes _____ .
(AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary)
A. homing
B. intercepting a course inbound
C. proceeding direct
D. intercepting a course outbound
202 (Core). DME information is relatively unaffected by line-of-sight restrictions and altitude.
(FAA-H8083-15B, Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 9)
False
203 (Core). The NAVAIDs that appear in the name of the IAP are the types of navigation aids that
provide final approach course guidance.
(FAA-H-8083-15B, Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 1)
True
204 (Core). When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer degrees from the reference point
for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc.
(FAA-H8083-15B, Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 9)
A. 10, 5
B. 10, 15
C. 10, 20
D. 5, 15
205 (Core). The altimeter should indicate the surveyed elevation of the airport. If the indication is off by
more than feet, the altimeter should be referred to maintenance for repair or recalibration.
(FAA-H-8083-
15B Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 5)
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 150
07 (Core). Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within _____
of the dew point, and the spread between the two is _____ .
(AFH 11-203 Vol 1)
A. 7° F; decreasing
B. 4° F; decreasing
C. 7° F; increasing
D. 4° F; increasing
206 (Core). VFR-over-the-Top is:
(FAA-H-8083-15B Instrument Flying Handbook, chapter 10)
A. An entirely VFR operation during which an aircraft departs VFR, maintains VFR cloud
clearances while operating atop an undercast cloud layer, and completes a VFR descent and
landing at the destination airfield
B. ATC authorization for an IFR aircraft to operate in VFR conditions at any appropriate VFR altitude
C. ATC clearance for an aircraft on a VFR flight plan to operate in IMC.
D. none of the above
208 (Core). Thunderstorms are responsible for two out of every three windshear events and often
responsible for the most hazardous form of windshear, the microburst.
(AFH 11-203 Vol 1)
True
209 (Core). Water droplets in the free air, unlike bulk water, do not freeze at 0° C. Instead, their freezing
temperature varies from -10 to -40o C. The smaller the droplets, the lower the freezing point. As a general
rule, serious icing is rare in clouds with temperatures below -20° C since these clouds are almost
completely composed of ice crystals.
(AFH 11-203 Vol 1)
True
210 (Core). When reading a METAR, AUTO refers to an observation taken from:
(AFH 11-203 Vol 2)
A. a scheduled hourly observation
B. an unattended Automated Meteorological Observation System
C. A & B
D. none of the above
211 (Core). Reported wind direction is the direction from which the winds are blowing and wind direction
relayed by ATC agencies is in magnetic north.
(AFH 11-203 Vol 2)
True
212 (Core). If winds are gusting, the next two or three digits immediately following the letter “G” (on the
METAR or TAF line) will be the gust speed or _____ speed.
(AFH 11-203 Vol 2)
A. peak wind
B. average wind
C. suspected wind
D. none of the above
213 (Core). Runway Visual Range (RVR) is reported when the prevailing visibility is _____ or less
and/or the RVR for the designated runway is _____ or less.
(AFH 11-203 Vol 2)
A. 1 NM; 5,000 feet
B. 2 SM; 5,000 feet
C. 1 SM; 6,000 feet
D. 2 NM; 6,000 feet
214 (Core). Students in formal flying training programs do not perform duties in excess of _____ hours
per day, unless authorized in the applicable AETCI 36-2605 volume or syllabus.
(AETCI 36-2605 Vol 1)
A. 8
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
215 (Core). The objective of the Commander’s Awareness Program (CAP) is to focus supervisory
attention on a student’s progress in training, specific deficiencies, and potential to complete the program.
CAP may also be used to monitor personal issues requiring supervisory attention.
(AETCI 36-2605 Vol 1)
True
216 (Core). Professional conduct and relationships are essential to a quality training environment.
Students and instructors are expected to maintain high standards of bearing and behavior, and
demonstrate a professional attitude toward _____ .
(AETCI 36-2605 Vol 1)
A. Superiors
B. Subordinates
C. Superiors and subordinates.
217 (Core). While leading a formation, you notice that your wingman holds a closed fist to the top of the
canopy with the thumb extended downward. He or she then moves his or her arm up and down rapidly.
(AFPAM 11-205)
A. He or she wants to land immediately.
B. He or she is HEFOE with an oxygen problem.
C. He or she needs to descend.
D. He or she is indicating a low fuel state.
218 (Core). In formation, you notice your wingman holds his or her hand at the top of the canopy, palm
down, fingers extended and joined. He or she moves his or her hand forward and down. He or she is
trying to tell you:
(AFPAM 11-205)
A. Descend to lower altitude.
B. He or she desires to land.
C. He or she needs to land immediately.
D. He or she must land on your wing.
219 (Core). The formation signal for attention in the air is to:
(AFPAM 11-205)
A. Execute a large wing rock.
B. Execute rapid, shallow wing rock.
C. Execute a series of porpoising maneuvers.
D. Turn the anti-collision strobe lights off then on.
