Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

microbiology > sterilization, disinfection, and antisepsis- Exam IV > Flashcards

sterilization, disinfection, and antisepsis- Exam IV Flashcards

1
Q

transmission of infectious agents among patients and staff in a clinical environment:

A

cross-infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

management strategies for risk control:

A

cross-infection control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Possible sources of infection in the dental care setting includes:

A
  1. patients with infectious disease
  2. patients in the prodromal or convalescent stage of infection
  3. healthy (or asymptomatic) carriers of disease-causing organisms
  4. Environmental sources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Environmental sources of infection in the dental care setting include:

A

airborne organisms or biofilms in waterlines or on equipment or instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All patients are treated as though they are a potential source of infectious pathogens:

A

universal precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Routes of spread of cross infection includes:

A
  1. airborne routes
  2. contact routes
  3. parental spread of cross-infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Airborne routes of spread of cross infection include:

A

dust-borne routes and aerosol routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examples of dust-borne routes include:

____ from skin scales
___ from environmental dust

A

staph aureus; clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

sources of dust-borne routes include:

A

skin scales, wound dressings, & solid surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Examples of aerosol routes include:

A

large droplets and droplet nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

large droplets are classified as:

A

contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sources of aerosol routes include:

A

speaking, sneezing, and all intraoral procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In what situations is there a massive increase of aerosol routes of cross-infection?

A

when using ultrasonic scaling, air-rotor, and air/water syringe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

aerosols can occur with or without:

A

aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prevention of aerosol transmission includes:

A
  1. elimination or limitation of organisms at source
  2. interruption of transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Contact routes of spread of cross-infection include:

A
  1. person-to-person
  2. equipment
  3. fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Direct spread by hands and clothes or fomites; large droplets

A

person-to-person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Person-to-person transmission is a ___ route of transmission

A

contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Person-to-person contact route of transmission is:

A

direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

prevention of person to person contact spread =

A

hand washing, gloves, and protective clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the contact route “equipment” route of spread of cross infection includes:

A

chairs, instruments, impression materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prevention of equipment route of spread of cross infection includes:

A
  • sterilization of instruments
  • use of disposals
  • disinfection of dental instruments
  • environmental hygiene
  • defining zones in the dental operatory
  • disposal of infected waste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the contact route “fluids” route of spread of cross infection includes:

A

dental water supplies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prevention of fluid route of spread of cross infection includes:

A

flushing water supply lines, using sterile water and using biocide in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sources of parenteral spread of cross-infection include:

A

blood, saliva, secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Inoculation of parenteral spread of cross infection is via:

A

eye, skin breach, mucous membrane, & sharps injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A sharps injury would be what form of spread of cross infection?

A

parenteral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Prevention of parenteral spread of cross infection includes:

A

training in use and disposal of sharps, Hep B vaccine, wearing gloves, dressing wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The risk of infection following a needlestick from a seropositive HIV patient:

A

0.3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The risk of infection following a needlestick from a seropositive HBV patient:

A

7-30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Destruction of all microbial forms (including bacterial spores):

A

sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Destruction of most microbial forms:

A

disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What agents are typically used as disinfections:

A

usually chemical agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Disinfectants are typically used on:

A

inanimate objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

List the categories of disinfectants:

A
  1. high-level
  2. intermediate level
  3. low-level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Inhibition or elimination of microbes on living tissue:

A

antisepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chemical agents that kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms when applied to tissue:

A

antiseptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe (based on public health standards):

A

sanitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Agents that kill microorganisms or inhibit their growth:

A

antimicrobial agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

“-cidal” refers to agents that:

A

kill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

“-static” refers to agents that:

A

inhibit growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Microorganisms are not killed:

A

instantly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The population of microbial death usually occurs:

A

exponentially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Microorganisms are considered to be dead when:

A

they are unable to reproduce in conditions that normally support their reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When looking at an exponential plot of microbial survivors versus the minutes of exposure to heating t 121 degrees Celsius, once the population has been greatly reduced, the rate of killing may:

A

slow due to resistant individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Conditions influencing the effectiveness of antimicrobial agent activity include: (6)

A
  1. population size
  2. population composition
  3. concentration or intensity of an antimicrobial agent
  4. duration of exposure
  5. temperature
  6. local environment (pH, viscosity, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The use of physical methods in control of microbial agents include:

A

heat, low temps, filtration, and radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

heat type that is effective against all types of microorganisms:

A

moist heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Moist heat works by degrading ____, denaturing ____, and disrupting ___.

A

nucleic acids; proteins; membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

an example of moist heat use in a dental practice:

A

autoclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Heat type that is less effective, requiring higher temps and longer exposure times:

A

dry heat sterilization

52
Q

How does dry heat sterilization work?

A

by oxidizing cell constituents and denaturing proteins

53
Q

When measuring heat-killing efficiency what two values are we looking for?

A
  1. Thermal death time (TDT)
  2. Decimal reduction time (D or D-value)
54
Q

TDT=

A

thermal death time

55
Q

D or D-value=

A

decimal reduction time

56
Q

The shortest time needed to kill all microorganisms in suspension at a specific temp under defined conditions:

A

Thermal death time

57
Q

The time required to kill 90% of microorganisms or spores in a sample at a specific temperature:

A

Decimal reduction time

58
Q

Thermal death time is the shortest time needed to kill all microorganisms in a suspension at a ____ and under ____.

A

specific temperature; defined conditions

59
Q

The decimal reduction time (D or D-value) is the time required to kill ____ or ___ in a sample at a specific temperature

A

90% of microorganisms or spores

60
Q

The increase in temperature required to reduce D to 10% of original value:

61
Q

Used to kill endospores efficiently:

A

autoclaves

62
Q

Autoclaves use ____ to reach temps above boiling

A

saturated steam under pressure

63
Q

A moist heat process that involves controlled heating at temperatures well below boiling:

A

pasteurization

64
Q

What type of heat process is pasteurization?

A

moist heat

65
Q

Reduces the total microbial population and thereby increases the shelf life of treated material:

A

pasteurization

66
Q

Pasteurization of milk includes:

A
  1. flash pasteurization (high temp short-term: HTST)
  2. ultrahigh-temperature (UHT) sterilization
67
Q

Describe flash pasteurization:

A

High temp short term (HTST)
72 degrees Celsius for 15 seconds and then rapid cooling

68
Q

Describe ultra-high temperature (UHT) sterilization:

A

140-150 degrees Celsius for 1 to 3 seconds

69
Q

Low temperature processes include:

A

freezing & refridgeration

70
Q

stops microbial reproduction due to lack of liquid water:

71
Q

In freezing, some microorganisms are killed by:

A

ice crystal disruption of cell membranes

72
Q

How does freezing stop microbial reproduction?

A

due to lack of liquid water

73
Q

A low temperature method that involves the slowing of microbial growth and reproduction:

A

refigeration

74
Q

reduces microbial population or sterilizes solutions of heat-sensitive materials by removing microorganisms; also used to reduce microbial populations in air:

A

filtration

75
Q

What types of filters are available for filtering liquids?

A
  1. depth filters
  2. membrane filters
76
Q

thick fibrous or granular filters that remove microorganisms by physical screening, entrapment, and/or adsorption:

A

depth filters

77
Q

pours membranes with defined pore size that remove microorganisms primary by physical screening:

A

membrane filters

78
Q

What are two modes of filtering air?

A
  1. surgical masks
  2. high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters
79
Q

HEPA:

A

High-efficiency particulate air filters

80
Q

What are two types of radiation?

A
  1. ultraviolet (UV) radiation
  2. ionizing radiation
81
Q

UV radiation is limited to ____ because it does not penetrate ____.

A

surfaces; glass, dirt films, water, and other substances

82
Q

Radiation that penetrates deep into objects:

A

ionizing radiation

83
Q

Type of radiation that destroys bacterial endospores, but is not always effective against viruses

A

ionizing radiation

84
Q

Used for sterilization and pasteurization of antibiotics, hormones, sutures, plastic disposable supplies, and food:

A

ionizing radiation

85
Q

Phenolics include:

A

phenol & hexachlorophene

86
Q

Commonly used as laboratory and hospital disinfectants:

87
Q

____ is a mixture of phenolics

88
Q

How do phenolics work?

A

by disrupting cell membranes

89
Q

Tuberculocidal, effective presence of organic material, and long lasting:

90
Q

What are the downfalls of phenolics?

A

disagreeable odor and can cause skin irritation

91
Q

What are two examples of alcohols used as chemical for microbial control?

A

ethanol & isopropanol

92
Q

Alcohols can be describe as ___ & ____ but not ___

A

bactericidal & fungicidal; sporicidal

93
Q

Do alcohols work against viruses?

A

may inactivate SOME viruses

94
Q

What is the mechanism of action for alcohols?

A

denature proteins and possible dissolve membrane lipids

95
Q

alcohols are ___ % in water (cidal activity drops sharply when diluted below ___ concentration)

A

60-90%; 50%

96
Q

Contain fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine :

97
Q

skin antiseptic

98
Q

How does iodine work:

A

oxidizes cell constituents and iodinates proteins

99
Q

Can iodine kill spores?

A

yes at high concentrations

100
Q

What are the downfalls with iodine?

A
  1. skin damage
  2. staining
  3. allergies
101
Q

Iodine complexed with organic carrier:

102
Q

How does chlorine work?

A

oxidizes cell constituents

103
Q

Important in disinfection of water supplies and swimming pools, used in dairy and food industries, effective household disinfectant:

104
Q

What is chlorine able to destroy? What can it not destroy?

A

vegetative bacteria and fungi but NOT spores

105
Q

What can form when chlorine reacts with organic matter?

A

carcinogenic compounds

106
Q

Ions of mercury, silver, arsenic, zinc and copper are all examples of:

A

heavy metals

107
Q

Heavy metals can be described as ___ but ___

A

effective but usually toxic

108
Q

Heavy metals combine with and inactivate ___ but also may precipitate ___.

A

proteins; proteins

109
Q

Cetylpyridinium chloride and benzalkonium chloride are examples of:

A

quaternary ammonium compounds

110
Q

organic molecules with hydrophilic and hydrophobic ends:

A

quaternary ammonium detergents

111
Q

Quaternary ammonium compound detergents can act as ___ & ___.

A

wetting agents & emulsifiers

112
Q

What type of detergents are effective disinfectants?

A

cationic detergents

113
Q

Cationic detergents kill most ____ but not ___ or ___

A

bacteria; mycobacterium tuberculosis or endospores

114
Q

What is the advantage of cationic detergents? what is the disadvantage of cationic detergents?

A

advantage: safe & easy to use
disadvantage: inactivated by hard water & soap

115
Q
  • highly reactive molecules
  • sporicidal and can be used as chemical sterilants
  • combine with and inactivate nucleic acids and proteins
116
Q

Ethylene oxide and betapropriolactone are both examples of:

A

sterilizing gases

117
Q

Sterilizing gases are used to sterilize:

A

heat-sensitive materials

118
Q

Sterilizing gases can be described as ___ & ___

A

microbicidal and sporicidal

119
Q

How doe sterilizing gases work?

A

combine with and inactivate proteins

120
Q

Spaulding inanimate objects classification is used for:

A

instruments or objects used in dentistry

121
Q

Classify the following objects: category, level and risk:

-touch bone or penetrate tissue
-blood present (scalpels, forceps, scalers, probes, and implants)

A

category: critical
level: heat sterilization
risk: very high

122
Q

Classify the following objects: category, level and risk:

-touch mucous membrane but not penetrate
-no blood (mirrors, burnishers, amalgam carriers, etc.)

A

category: semi-critical
level: sterilization, high-level disinfection
risk: moderate

123
Q

Classify the following objects: category, level and risk:

  • unbroken skin contact
    -no blood (masks, clothing, BP cuffs)
A

category: non-critical
level: intermediate level
risk: low

124
Q

Classify the following objects: category, level and risk:

-no direct patient contact
-no blood (door knobs, floors, walls, counters, mops, and other housekeeping equipment)

A

category: environmental surfaces
level: low level disinfection; sanitation
risk: minimal

microbiology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions