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microbiology > Principles 1.1 - Exam I > Flashcards

Principles 1.1 - Exam I Flashcards

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1
Q

Microorganisms of the human body include:

A
  • bacteria
  • viruses
    -fungi
  • protozoa
  • helminths
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2
Q

A collection of microbial organisms that are present within the human body:

A

microbiome

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3
Q

Components of the human body microbiome include:

A
  • bacteria
  • viruses
  • fungi
  • protozoa
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4
Q

Why are helminths not necessarily considered microbes?

A

due to their size

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5
Q

Makes up the vast majority of the human microbiome:

A

bacteria

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6
Q

List three examples of the various shapes of bacteria:

A

Cocci- round
Bacilli- rod
Spirilla- corkscrew

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7
Q

Eukaryotic microbes include:

A

protozoa & fungi

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8
Q

Prokaryotic microbes include:

A

bactreia

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9
Q

Describe the relationship of parasitic organisms:

A

not considered a benign relationship

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10
Q

Symbionts that harm or live at the expense of their host:

A

parasitic organisms

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11
Q

Organisms that live within or on us:

A

symbionts

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12
Q

Normal microbiota would be considered ____ organisms

A

commensal organisms

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13
Q

Microbes frequently found on or within the bodies of healthy persons:

A

normal microbiota

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14
Q

Growth or multiplication of parasite on or within the host:

A

infection

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15
Q

disease resulting from infection

A

infectious diseases

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16
Q

Overgrowth of Candida albicans due to changes in homeostasis would be an example of:

A

endogenous infection

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17
Q

any parasitic organisms that causes infection disease:

A

pathogen

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18
Q

causes disease by DIRECT interaction with the host:

A

primary pathogen (frank pathogen)

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19
Q

causes diseases ONLY under certain circumstances

A

opportunistic pathogen

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20
Q

Give an example of an opportunistic pathogen:

A

candida albicans

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21
Q

ability of a parasite to cause disease:

A

pathogenicity

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22
Q

Pathogenicity is often mediated by:

A

virulence factors

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23
Q

Any component of a pathogenic microbe that is required for or that potentiates its ability to cause disease:

A

virulence factor

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24
Q

Give two examples of virulence factors:

A
  1. a toxin that a pathogen produces
  2. tropism for certain tissue types
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25
Q

List the steps in an infectious disease:

A
  1. encounter
  2. entry
  3. spread
  4. multiplication
  5. damage
  6. outcome
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26
Q

What are three types of encounters that may lead to an infectious disease?

A
  1. exogenous
  2. endogenous
  3. congenital
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27
Q

When the pathogen is encountered from the outside environment:

Give example!

A

exogenous encounter; inhalation of someones sneeze

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28
Q

When the pathogen is encountered from the internal environment (within us):

Give example!

A

endogenous encounter; pneumococcal pneumonia

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29
Q

When the pathogen is encountered in utero or during birth:

Give example!

A

congenital encounter; HIV

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30
Q

What are the 3 endogenous sources that may lead to pneumococcal pneumonia?

A
  1. imparted natural protection/clearance system allowing for increased colonization of nasopharynx
  2. Colonized oropharynx and gastric fluid pool along tube in neonates
  3. Colonized tracheal secretions
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31
Q

What are the two mechanisms leading to pneumococcal pneumonia?

A
  1. aspiration of colonized fluids from endogenous sources into the lungs
  2. hematogenous source seeding the lungs (rare)
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32
Q

What are some manifestations that may occur in response to congenital infections? (3)

A
  1. growth retardation
  2. congenital malformation
  3. fetal loss
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33
Q

List the microbes that may cause congenital infections:

A
  1. rubella
  2. CMV
  3. HIV
  4. Toxoplasma
  5. T. Pallidum
  6. Parvovirus
  7. VZV
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34
Q

What are the two mechanisms of entry in contraction of an infectious disease:

A
  1. ingress
  2. penetration
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35
Q

Describe the entry mode “ingress”:

A

inhalation or ingestion

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36
Q

The mechanism of entry that occurs when microbes pass through epithelia DIRECTLY (via attachment and internalization)

A

penetration

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37
Q

Insect bites, cuts & wounds, organ transplants, and blood transfusions would all be considered ____ form of entry

A

penetration

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38
Q

Movement of pathogen within the human body:

A

spread

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39
Q

List the three components of spread of an infectious disease:

A
  1. lateral propagation vs. dissemination
  2. anatomical factors
  3. active participation by microbes
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40
Q

When the pathogen is spread far distant from the site of initial infection. Can give rise to systemic infection or complications :

A

dissemination

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41
Q

When spread of infection occurs from site of initial infection to adjacent tissue

A

lateral propagation

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42
Q

Separation but related to spread of infection; cell division/replication:

A

multiplication

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43
Q

What are the two components of multiplication?

A
  1. environmental factors
  2. subversion of host defences
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44
Q

When a virus encounters an increased body temperature this will turn on different genes within the microbe and allow for pathogenic factors to be expressed by the microbe which can further the infectious disease

This is an example of:

A

Environmental factors aiding in multiplication

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45
Q

Describe subversion of host defenses:

A

Pathogens don’t typically infect us without a defensive response from the immune system, and overtime pathogens have evolved and have many ways to conquer our host defenses

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46
Q

Fungal infection in rhino cerebral form, almost always with hyperglycemia and metabolic acidosis:

A

mucormycosis

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47
Q

A direct consequence of the actual pathogens replication:

A

direct damage

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48
Q

Damage that occurs as a result of the host defenses

A

immune response

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49
Q

What are two forms of damage due to an infectious disease:

A
  1. direct damage
  2. Immune response
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50
Q

List the outcomes of an infectious disease:

A
  1. microbe wins
  2. host wins
  3. coexistence
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51
Q

Microbes frequently found on or with the bodies of healthy persons:

A

normal microbiota

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52
Q

The normal microbiota is created by:

A

commensal organisms

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53
Q

colonization of bacterial rapidly after birth leads to:

A

our normal microbiota

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54
Q

The collection of all the microorganisms living in association with the human body:

A

the human microbiome

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55
Q

Components of the human microbiome include:

A

eukaryotes, archaea, bacteria & viruses

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56
Q

Describe the amount of bacteria in the human body relative to the human body cells:

A

bacteria are at an average of ten times more than the number of cells

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57
Q

Number of bacterial genes that are present in the human body due to bacteria:

A

1000 more genes than human genome

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58
Q

Percent of body mass comprised by bacteria:

A

1-3%

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59
Q

Bacteria in the microbiome are essential for producing:

A
  1. vitamins that we do not have the genes to make
  2. helpful anti-inflammatory compounds
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60
Q

Bacteria in the microbiome are essential for breaking down:

A

food to extract nutrients that we need to survive

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61
Q

Bacteria in the microbiome are essential for teaching:

A

our immune system how to recognize dangerous invaders

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62
Q

Bacteria in the microbiome are essential for occupying:

A

space to crowd out disease-causing microbes

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63
Q

Bacteria in the microbiome are essential for detoxification of:

A

carcinogens but sometimes are the source of carcinogen production

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64
Q

Changes in the composition of our microbiomes correlate with:

A

numerous disease states

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65
Q

What is a source of infection related to our microbiome:

A

changes in the composition of our microbiomes

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66
Q

manipulation of our microbiomes can be used to:

A

treat disease

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67
Q

List the locations in the body with the largest amounts of bacteria:

A
  1. skin (especially moist areas)
  2. respiratory tract (nose and oropharynx)
  3. digestive tract (mouth and large intestine)
  4. urinary tract (anterior parts of urethra)
  5. genital system (vagina)
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68
Q

List the locations of the body that are sterile:

A
  1. blood
  2. cerebrospinal fluid
  3. synovial fluid
  4. deep tissues
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69
Q

Whether a microbe gives rise to disease depends on: (2)

A
  1. inoculating number
  2. host organism
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70
Q

pathogenicity/virulence depend on the:

A

host & microbe

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71
Q

Give three examples where the normal flora are the source of infection:

A
  1. periodontitis
  2. pneumonia
  3. catheter-associated infections
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72
Q

Caused by overgrowth of particular bacteria in gingival crevices:

A

periodontitis

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73
Q

Occurs when defenses are lowered and microaspirations of pneumococci

A

pneumonia

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74
Q

Catheter-associated infections are commonly due to:

A

staphylococci

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75
Q

Oral flora include:

A
  • bacteria (and archaea)
  • fungi
  • protozoa (eukaryotes)
  • viruses
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76
Q

How many types of Bactria are usually present in the oral cavity?

A

~700 different species

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77
Q

Because the oral habitats each have different properties, this will promote the growth of:

A

different bacteria

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78
Q

List the different oral habitats:

A
  1. buccal mucosa
  2. dorsum of tongue
  3. tooth surfaces
  4. crevicular epithelium
  5. dental appliances
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79
Q

List the issues microbial cells may encounter:

A
  1. nutritional fluxes
  2. maintaining occupancy
  3. resistance to damage
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80
Q

Describe nutritional fluxes experienced by microbial cells:

A

nutrients are not constantly available & being metered out to microbes

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81
Q

Describe why it may be a challenge for microbial cells to maintain occupancy:

A

specifically a challenge along the alimentary canal due to constant flux of movement of fluids and foods that can create environments in which it is difficult to maintain occupancy

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82
Q

microbial cells in the human body must have the ability to resist:

A

damage brought on by immune response/host defenses

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83
Q

Factors modulating oral microbial growth include _____ that create areas that are ____.

A

anatomical features that are difficult to clean

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84
Q

List some anatomical features that create areas that are difficult to clean aiding in oral microbial growth:

A
  • shape and topography of teeth (fissures)
  • malalignment of teeth
  • poor quality of restorations
  • non-keratinized sulcular epithelium
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85
Q

List the two components of saliva:

A

inorganic ions & organic constituents

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86
Q

What makes up the organic constituents in saliva:

A
  1. proteins
  2. glycoproteins
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87
Q

Promotes adhesion of bacteria on tooth surfaces

A

saliva

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88
Q

organic components of saliva that form a coating on tooth surfaces:

A

salivary pellicle

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89
Q

Saliva is a source of ___ for oral microbial growth

A

food

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90
Q

Saliva promotes ____, facilitating their clearance from mouth

A

aggregation of bacteria

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91
Q

saliva inhibits growth of ___ by ____.

A

microbes; non-specific defense factors

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92
Q

Saliva allows for the maintenance of:

A

pH

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93
Q

fluid within the gingival crevice that has a different composition than saliva; a bit more like serum

A

gingival crevicular fluid

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94
Q

List the roles of gingival crevicular fluid:

A
  1. flushing microbes out of crevice
  2. source of nutrients for microbes
  3. maintains pH
  4. specific and non-specific defense factors
  5. phagocytosis
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95
Q

What is the main phagocyte in GCF

A

neutrophils

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96
Q
  • competition for adhesion receptors
  • toxin production
  • metabolic end products
  • coaggregation

These are all ___

A

microbial factors modulating oral microbial growth

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97
Q

List the microbial factors modulating oral microbial growth:

A
  1. competition for adhesion receptors
  2. toxin production
  3. metabolic end products
  4. coaggregation
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98
Q

The ability of a microbe to provide binding sites for other microbes:

A

coaggregation

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99
Q

List the factors modulating oral microbial growth:

A
  1. anatomical features creating hard to clean areas
  2. saliva
  3. gingival crevicular fluid
  4. microbial factors
  5. local pH
  6. redox potential
  7. antimicrobial therapy
  8. diet
  9. iatrogenic factors
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100
Q

varies with diet as a result of bacterial metabolism which in turn modulates oral microbial growth

A

local pH

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101
Q

A measure of the oxygen levels in locality that serves to modulate oral microbial growth:

A

redox potential

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102
Q

Dental scaling is an example of ____ which is a factor modulating oral microbial growth:

A

iatrogenic factors

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103
Q

3 domains of life include:

A
  1. bacteria
  2. archaea
  3. Eucarya
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104
Q

prokaryotic but distinct from true bacteria:

A

archaea

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105
Q

The word “extremophiles” can be used to refer to:

A

archaea

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106
Q

Life is presumed to have diverged from a common ancestor on Earth ~4 billion years ago and is based on the scientific deduction of the:

A

genetic structure of highly conserved genes within all cells

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107
Q

Life is presumed to have diverged from a common ancestor on Earth ~4 billion years ago and is based on the scientific deduction of the genetic structure of highly conserved genes within all cells, specifically:

A

ribosomes

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108
Q

A capsule of material surrounded by a plasma membrane that is reinforced by a cell wall:

A

prokaryotic cells

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109
Q

____ are an absolute requirement for all living organisms (prokaryotes & eukaryotes)

A

membranes

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110
Q

In prokaryotic cells, the plasma membrane encompasses the:

A

cytoplasm

111
Q

IN addition to the plasma membrane, some prokaryotes also have:

A

internal membrane systems (though most bacteria do not have internal membrane systems)

112
Q

The plasma membrane contains:

A

lipids and proteins

113
Q

In the plasma membrane, more ___ are present than ____ in number but there is a 50/50 ratio of mass (due to the ___ being so much smaller)

A

lipids; proteins; lipids

114
Q

The lipids of the plasma membrane usually form a:

A

bilayer

115
Q

Describe the structure of the proteins in the plasma membrane:

A

usually embedded in PM or associated with the lipids

116
Q

Give 4 descriptive words for the plasma membrane:

A
  1. highly organized
  2. asymmetric
  3. flexible
  4. dynamic
117
Q

Most of the lipids making up the plasma membrane are:

A

amphipathic

118
Q

The polar ends of the lipid membrane is considered ____.

A

charged

119
Q

Describe the polar end of the lipids comprising the plasma membrane

A

charged, interacts with water, & hydrophillic

120
Q

Describe the nonpolar end of the lipids comprising the plasma membrane:

A

insoluble in water, and hydrophobic

121
Q

Long, non polar, hydrophobic ____ , also considered the R group, make up the non polar end of the lipids in the plasma membrane:

A

fatty acid chains

122
Q

both polar and nonpolar components:

A

amphitpathic

123
Q

Eukaryotes have ____ in addition to the amphipathic lipids making up the lipid bilayer:

A

cholesterol

124
Q

bacterial version of cholesterol:

A

hopanoid

125
Q

Bacteria have ____ in addition to the amphipathic lipids making up the lipid bilayer:

A

hopanoids

126
Q

Another name for hopanoid:

A

bacteriohopanetetrol

127
Q

Proteins that are loosely associated with the membrane and easily removed:

A

peripheral proteins

128
Q

proteins embedded within the membrane and not easily removed:

A

integral proteins

129
Q

sugar chains or saccharides added to lipids:

A

glycolipids

130
Q

sugar chains or saccharides added to proteins:

A

glycoproteins

131
Q

Separation of the cell from its environment is a function of:

A

plasma membrane

132
Q

the plasma membrane can be described as a _____ barrier

A

selectively permeable

133
Q

What does it mean when we say the plasma membrane is a “selectively permeable barrier”?

A

some molecules are allowed to pass into or out of the cell

134
Q

____ aid in the movement of molecules (large & charged) through the plasma membrane

A

transport systems

135
Q

____ & ____ can pass easily through the plasma membrane

A

water & other similar small molecules

136
Q

The plasma membrane is a location of _____ processes

A

crucial metabolic processes

137
Q

The crucial metabolic process that occur in the plasma membrane of bacteria include:

A

ETC

138
Q

Functions in detection of and response to chemicals in surroundings with the aid of special receptor molecules:

A

plasma membrane

139
Q

granules of organic or inorganic material that are stockpiled by cell for future use:

A

inclusion bodies

140
Q

Some inclusion bodies are enclosed by:

A

Single-layered membrane (unusual though)

141
Q

The (unusual) single-layered membrane that surrounds inclusion bodies varies in ____ (different from the PM) and some are made of ____ while others contain ____.

A

composition; proteins; lipids

142
Q

_____, also known as nano machines, are complex structures consisting of protein and RNA

A

ribosomes

143
Q

Component that is the basis for the tree of life:

A

RNA

144
Q

Sites of protein synthesis:

A

Ribosomes

145
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes are _____ than eukaryotic ribosomes

A

smaller

146
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes can be labeled as ____, while eukaryotic ribosomes are labeled as ____.

A

70S; 80S

147
Q

S when labeling ribosomes is the ____ unit which is a measure of ____.

A

Svedberg unit; sedimentation rate

148
Q

Although ribosomes are ancient, highly-conserved nanomachines within cells, there are some fundamental differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomes that manifest at a _____ level in terms of overall structure.

A

macro level

149
Q

At a ____ level we will see differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes that can be exploited to create ____ that preferentially target prokaryotic ribosomes which is the basis for many therapies for microbial infections

A

micro level; antibiotics

150
Q

What is the basis for many therapies for microbial infections?

A

targeting prokaryotic ribosomes

151
Q

Bacteria do not usually have a membrane enclosed nucleus, but instead a region of compacted DNA called the:

A

nucleoid

152
Q

The nucleiod region can be described as ____ shaped and the location of ___.

A

irregularly shaped; chromosome

153
Q

There is usually only 1 ____ per cell in the nucleoid region of the cell.

A

chromosome

154
Q

Is the nucleiod membrane bound?

A

NO

155
Q

In actively growing cells, the nuceloid has projections; these probably contain:

A

DNA being actively transcribed

156
Q

Why would there be multiple nucleioids within rapidly dividing cells?

A

DNA region replicates and divides before cell division so that each daughter cell contains its own set of DNA

157
Q

Describe a prokaryotic chromosome:

A

closed circular, double stranded, looped and coiled extensively

158
Q

What probably aids in folding of the prokaryotic chromosome?

A

nucleoid

159
Q

Nucleoid proteins differ from:

A

histones

160
Q

Unusual nucleoids:

  1. Some prokaryotes (refers to # of chromosomes)
  2. Some prokaryotes have chromosomes composed of:
  3. A few genera have ____ nucleoids
A
  1. greater than 1 chromosome
  2. linear double-stranded DNA
  3. membrane-delimited
161
Q

____ are usually small, closed circular DNA molecules dependent of main chromosomal DNA

A

plasmids

162
Q

Plasmids exist and replicate:

A

independently of chromosome

163
Q

T/F: Plasmids are required fro growth and reproduction

A

False

164
Q

T/F: Plasmids may carry genes that confer selective advantage (e.g., drug resistance)

A

True

165
Q

Plasmids that are particularly notable are ones that confer drug resistance genes and this creates a population of bacteria:

A

resistant to therapy

166
Q

The prokaryotic cell wall is a ____ structure that lies just _____ the plasma membrane

A

rigid; outside

167
Q
  • provides characteristic shape to cell
  • protects the cell from osmotic lysis
  • may contribute to pathogenicity
  • may protect cell from toxic substances
A

cell wall

168
Q

The plasma membrane is freely permeable to water and the interior of the cell is concentrated with solutes and so H20 will flow into the cells. The _____ functions to control the water flow to avoid the limit and prevent ____.

A

cell wall; osmotic lysis

169
Q

The bacteria are divided into two major groups based on the cell walls response to:

A

gram stain procedure

170
Q

Gram positive bacteria stain ____.

Gram negative bacteria stain ____.

A

positive= purple

negative= pink

171
Q

The gram staining reaction is due to the:

A

cell wall structure

172
Q

Single membrane bilayer underneath a thick peptidoglycan layer with small periplasmic space

A

gram-positive cell wall

173
Q

Double membrane structure with each membrane being a bilayer (outer membrane and plasma membrane), with periplasmic space and a thin peptidoglycan layer:

A

gram-negative cell wall

174
Q

The gap between the plasma membrane and cell wall (for gram-positive bacteria) or between the plasma membrane and outer membrane (for gram negative bacteria)

A

Periplasmic space

175
Q

The periplasmic space is the gap between what structures in the gram positive cell?

A

between plasma membrane and cell wall

176
Q

The periplasmic space is the gap between what structures in the gram negative cell?

A

between plasma membrane and outer membrane

177
Q

substance that occupies the periplasmic space

A

periplasm

178
Q

found in periplasm of gram NEGATIVE bacteria:

A

periplasmic enzymes

179
Q

What are some functions of the periplasmic enzymes found in gram NEGATIVE bacteria?

A
  1. nutrient acquisition
  2. electron transport
  3. peptidoglycan synthesis
  4. modification of toxic compounds
180
Q

Secreted by gram POSITIVE bacteria that perform many of the same functions that periplasmic enzymes do for gram negative bacteria:

A

exoenzymes

181
Q

important component of BOTH gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria:

A

peptidoglycan

182
Q

Peptidoglycan is a ____ formed from peptidoglycan subunits:

A

polysaccharide

183
Q

The two alternating sugars that form the backbone of peptidoglycan include:

A

N-acteylglucosamine (NAG) & N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

184
Q

Peptidoglycan contains some amino acids that:

A

are not observed in proteins (D-amino acids)

185
Q

In gram negative Bactria, we often see a ___ side-chain linkage between ____ & ____ (linking adjacent subunits of peptidoglycan layer)

A

direct; D-alanine & DAP

186
Q

Gram positive bacteria often contain a linkage of:

A

peptide interbridges (GLY-GLY-GLY-GLY)

187
Q

The peptide interbridges that form in gram positive bacteria are linked between:

A

D-ala & L-lys

188
Q

Composed primarily of peptidoglycan and contain large amounts of techoic acid:

A

gram-positive cell walls

189
Q

In some cases, there is a lipid component at one end of the techoic acid which is referred to as:

A

lipotechoic acid

190
Q

The lipotechoic acid will anchor ___ layer to the ___ .

A

peptidoglycan layer to the plasma membrane

191
Q

polymers of glycerol or ribitol joined by phosphate groups

A

techoic acids

192
Q

techoic acids are polymers of ___ or ____ joined by ____. They have both non polar and polar components to them!

A

glycerol or ribitol; phosphate groups.

193
Q

Consist of a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane

A

gram-negative cell walls

194
Q

The outer membrane in gram-negative cells walls is composed of:

A

lipids, lipoproteins, and lipopolysaccharides (LPS)

195
Q

What component is NOT found in gram-negative cell walls?

A

techoic acids

196
Q

____ connect outer membrane to peptidoglycan

A

Braun’s lipoproteins

197
Q

sites of DIRECT contact (possible true membrane fusions) between plasma membrane and outer membrane

A

adhesion sites

198
Q

Substances may move directly through the cell through:

A

adhesion sites

199
Q

What are located on the surface of gram-negative cells?

A

Lipopolysaccharides

200
Q

What three parts make up lipopolysaccharides?

A
  1. lipid A
  2. core polysaccharide
  3. O side chain (O antigen)
201
Q

A very long polysaccharide chain which tells us there is something on the exterior of the bacterium. Its visible to our immune system & we mount an immune response to it:

A

O-side chain (O antigen)

202
Q

Portion of a LPSs that is visible to our immune system:

A

O antigen

203
Q

portion of the LPS that is the hydrophobic tail that inserts into the plasma membrane:

A

lipid A

204
Q

Portion of the LPS that contains heptose (Hep) and keto-doxyoctogenic acid (KDO):

A

core polysaccharide

205
Q

Portion of the LPS that is a set of sugars that then is repeated creating a hair-like projection present all across the surface of the gram-negative cell

A

O side chain

206
Q

Importance of LPS: (4)

A
  • protection from host defenses (O-antigen)
  • contributes to negative charge on cell surface (Core polysaccharide)
  • helps stabilize outer membrane structure (lipid A)
  • can act as an endotoxin (lipid A)
207
Q

Portion of LPS that provides protection from host defenses:

A

O-antigen

208
Q

Portion of LPS that contributes to negative care on cell surface:

A

core polysaccharide

209
Q

Portion of LPS that helps stabilize outer membrane structure

A

Lipid A

210
Q

Portion of LPS that can act as an endotoxin

A

Lipid A

211
Q

The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is ____ than the plasma membrane

A

more permeable

212
Q

The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is more permeable than the plasma membrane due to the presence of:

A

porin proteins and transporter proteins

213
Q

form channels through the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria through which small molecules (600-700 daltons) can pass

A

portin proteins

214
Q

Outside of the cell wall, many bacteria have: (3)

A

capsules, slime layers, and s-layers

215
Q

Layers of material lying outside the cell wall: (2)

A

capsules & slime layers

216
Q

layer of material lying outside the cell wall, usually composed of polysaccharides and well organized, not easily removed from cell:

A

capsule

217
Q

layer of material lying outside the cell all, usually diffuse, unorganized and easily removed:

A

slime layer

218
Q

network of polysaccharides extending from the surface of the cell:

A

glycocalyx

219
Q

A capsule or slime layer composed of polysaccharides can also be referred to as a:

A

glycocalyx

220
Q
  • provides protection from viral infection of predation by bacteria
  • provides protection from chemicals in environment (like detergents)
A

capsular layers

221
Q

Capsular layers aid in the ___ of gliding bacteria

A

motility

222
Q

capsular layers provide protection against ____ stress

A

osmotic

223
Q

Short, thin, hairlike, proteinaceous appendages, up to 1000/cell

A

fimbriae

224
Q

Function of fimbriae is to:

A

mediate attachment to surfaces

225
Q

Similar to fimbriae except longer, thicker, and less numbers (1-10/cell)

A

sex pili

226
Q

Sex pili are required for:

A

mating

227
Q

Some bacteria are motile due to:

A

flagella

228
Q

One flagellum:

A

monotrichous

229
Q

flagellum at the end of the cell:

A

polar flagellum

230
Q

One flagellum at each end of the cell:

A

amphitrichous

231
Q

Cluster of flagella at one or both ends of the cell:

A

lophotrichous

232
Q

Flagella spread over the entire surface of the cell:

A

peritrichous

233
Q

Flagella are ____ in structure

A

proteinaceous

234
Q

Nanomachines involved in creating movement by transfusing energy in cells:

A

flagella

235
Q

What are the 3 parts of a flagellum?

A
  1. filament
  2. basal body
  3. hook
236
Q

Part of the flagellum that projects out from the cell surface:

A

filament

237
Q

Part of the flagellum that is anchored within the plasma membrane or within the plasma membrane & outer membrane in gram negative cells:

A

basal body

238
Q

Part of the flagellum that gives the bend to the flagellum that is important for the motion:

A

hook

239
Q

Created when the bacteria encounter environmentally challenging conditions that make it difficult for the cell to continue growing:

A

bacterial endospore

240
Q

when a bacteria form a bacterial endospore they are considered to be in a:

A

Dormant state

241
Q

bacterial endospores are resistant to numbers environmental conditions such as:

A
  • heat
  • radiation
  • chemicals
  • desiccation
242
Q

a specialized form of cell division that essentially creates a daughter cell within the “mother cell”

A

endospore

243
Q

The endospore is located within the “mother cell” also known as:

A

sporangium

244
Q

membrane delimited nuclei:

A

eukaryotic cell

245
Q

Eukaryotic cells are generally ____ and ____ when compared to a prokaryotic cell

A

larger and more structurally complex

246
Q

Irregular network of branching and fusing membranous tubules and flattened sacs (cisternae)

A

endoplasmic reticulum

247
Q

The rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the synthesis of:

A

secreted proteins

248
Q

The rough ER is also referred to as:

A

the granular ER

249
Q

The smooth ER is also referred to as:

A

the agranular ER

250
Q

The smooth ER is devoid of:

A

ribosomes

251
Q

Functions of the ER include:

  1. transports ___, ___ and other materials within the cell
  2. major site of _____ synthesis
  3. synthesis of ____
A
  1. proteins, lipids
  2. cell membrane
  3. lysosomes
252
Q

membraneous organelle made of cisternae stacked on each other:

A

Golgi apparatus

253
Q

stacks of cisternae:

A

dictyosomes

254
Q

involved in modification, packaging, and secretion of membrane components (lipids) and proteins

A

Golgi apparatus

255
Q

The __ face of the Golgi apparatus is associated with the ER (ER components delivered here)

A

cis

256
Q

_____ move the ER components through the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus

A

transport vesicles

257
Q

Components exit the Golgi apparatus through the ____.

A

trans face

258
Q

lysosomes are produced from the:

A

ER

259
Q

membrane-bound vesicles that contain hydrolytic enzymes needed for digestion of macromolecules

A

lysosomes

260
Q

uptake of solutes or particles from outside to inside the cell, by enclosing them in vesicles or vacuoles pinched off from the plasma membrane

A

endocytosis

261
Q

endocytosis bringing in particles or bacterial cells:

A

phagocytosis

262
Q

endocytosis involved in bringing in solutes:

A

pinocytosis

263
Q

site of TCA cycle activity:

A

mitochondria

264
Q

Site where ATP is generated by electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation

A

mitochondria

265
Q

What are the 3 components to the structure of mitochondria?

A

outer membrane, inner membrane, and matrix

266
Q
  • highly folded to form cristae
  • location of enzymes and electron carriers for electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
A

mitochondrial inner membrane

267
Q
  • contains ribosomes, mitochondrial DNA and large calcium phosphate granules
  • contains enzymes of the tricarboxylic acid cycle and the b- oxidation pathway for fatty acids
A

mitochondrial matrix

268
Q

the mitochondrial matrix contains: (5)

A
  1. ribosomes
  2. mitochondrial DNA
  3. large calcium phosphate granules
  4. enzymes for TCA cycle
  5. enzymes for B-oxidation of fatty acids
269
Q

membrane bound structure that houses genetic material of cell:

A

nucleus

270
Q
  • dense fibrous material within the nucleus
  • contains DNA
  • condenses during cell division
A

chromatin

271
Q
  • double membrane structure that delimits the nucleus ( 2 sets of lipid bilayers that create a boundary)
A

nuclear envelope

272
Q

The nuclear envelope is penetrated by:

A

nuclear pores

273
Q

Allow for materials to be transported into or out of the nucleus

A

nuclear pores

274
Q

The molecular unity of prokaryotes and eukaryotes includes:

A
  1. same basic chemical composition
  2. same genetic code
  3. same basic metabolic processes

microbiology (24 decks)

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