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microbiology > Protozoa- Exam IV > Flashcards

Protozoa- Exam IV Flashcards

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1
Q

Protozoa have typically been classified as:

A

parasites

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2
Q

What’s a parasite?

A

an organism that lives on or within another organism (the host) and benefits from the associated while harming its host

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3
Q

Where does a parasite typically obtain its nutrients from?

A

host

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4
Q

Types of parasites include:

A

protozoa & helminths

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5
Q

Describe protozoa:

A

Diverse group of eukaryotic microbes

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6
Q

How are protozoa related?

A

related only by their simple organization

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7
Q

The simple organization relating protozoa includes:

A

unicellular or multicellular without specialized tissues

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8
Q

Most protozoa are ___ in ___ environments or on ___ .

A

free-living in aquatic environments; decaying organic matter

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9
Q

Some protozoa are considered ___.

A

parasitic

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10
Q

Many protozoa are capable of:

A

encystation

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11
Q

Formation of a cyst:

A

encystation

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12
Q

Formation of a cyst by protozoa involves a ___ state with:

A

resting state; a wall and low metabolic activity

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13
Q

Describe the metabolic activity of protozoa during encystation:

A

low metabolic activity

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14
Q

List the functions of cysts (3):

A
  1. protection from changes in environment
  2. sites for nuclear reorganization and cellular division
  3. transfer from one host to another
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15
Q

Escape from vegetative form from cyst:

A

excystation

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16
Q

Encystation is usually triggered by: (2)

A
  1. return to favorable environment
  2. entry into new host
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17
Q

What is the vegetative form released by parasitic species?

A

trophozoite

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18
Q

Discuss the locomotion of protozoa:

A

some are non-motile and some are motile

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19
Q

The motile species of protozoa use one of the following:

A
  • cilia
  • flagella
  • pseudopodia
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20
Q

Pseudopodia are:

A

cytoplasmic extensions

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21
Q

Reproduction of protozoa may be:

A

asexual or sexual

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22
Q

Asexual reproduction of protozoa usually occurs through:

A

binary fission

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23
Q

describe binary fission:

A

mitosis followed by cytokinesis

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24
Q

Sexual reproduction of protozoa typically occurs through:

A

conjugation

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25
Q

Describe conjugation:

A

exchange of gametic nuclei between paired protozoa of opposite mating types

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26
Q

Zooflagellates are motile due to:

A

one or more flagella

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27
Q

Species of protozoa that causes giardiasis:

A

giardia lamblia

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28
Q

Giardiasis is a:

A

gastro-intestinal disorder

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29
Q

Species of protozoa that causes trichomoniasis:

A

trichomonas vaginalis

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30
Q

Trichomoniasis is a:

A

STD

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31
Q

Hemoflagellates that are important blood pathogens:

A

trypanosomes

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32
Q

Trypanosomes are:

A

hemoflagellates

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33
Q

Hemoflagellates AKA:

A

blood parasite

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34
Q

Give an example of a trypanosome:

A

African sleeping sickness

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35
Q

Most common cause of epidemic water-borne diarrheal disease:

A

giardiasis

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36
Q

Giardiasis is a ___ disorder

A

GI

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37
Q

Giardia lamblia forms ___ & ____

A

cysts and trophozoites

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38
Q

Giardia lamblia form cysts and trophozoites. The trophozoites attach to ___ and interfere with ___.

A

intestinal epithelium; nutrient absorption

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39
Q

Discuss the transmission of Giardia lamblia:

A

cyst-contaminated water

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40
Q

Discuss the reservoirs of Giardia lamblia:

A

numerous animal reservoirs & asymptomatic carriers

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41
Q

The clinical manifestations of ____ include severe diarrhea, epigastric pain, cramps, voluminous flatulence, and anorexia

A

acute giardiasis

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42
Q

The clinical manifestations of ___ include intermittent diarrhea with periodic appearance and remission of symptoms

A

chronic gastritis

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43
Q

What anti-protozoal agents are used for treatment of giardiasis?

A

metronidazole

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44
Q

How might one prevent contracts of giardiasis?

A

avoiding contaminated water or purify it by boiling or filtering (cysts are resistant to chlorine treatment)

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45
Q

The cysts formed in Giardia lamblia are resistant to:

A

chlorine treatment

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46
Q

One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases:

A

trichomonas vaginalis

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47
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis is found in:

A

15% of all women

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48
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks a ___ stage but does produce ___.

A

cyst stage; trophozoites

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49
Q

Discuss the clinical manifestations of trichomoniasis:

A
  1. accumulation of leukocytes at site of infection
  2. in females, results in yellow purulent vaginal discharge and itching
  3. in males, usually asymptomatic or burning urination
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50
Q

Discuss how we diagnose trichomoniasis?

A

observation of parasite in vaginal discharge, semen, or urine

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51
Q

What is the treatment for trichomoniasis?

A

anti-parasite therapy of metrodiazole

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52
Q

Resides in the mouth and is usually associated with poor oral hygiene:

A

trichomonas tenax

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53
Q

Trichomonas tenar aspiration is associated with:

A

pneumonia

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54
Q

Hemoflagellate diseases are caused by:

A

flagellated protozoa

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55
Q

Two major groups of flagellate protozoa include:

A

leishmanias & trypanosomes

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56
Q

Hemoflagellate diseases are transmitted by:

A

bites of infected arthropods

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57
Q

Hemoflagellate diseases infect:

A

blood and tissues of humans

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58
Q

Also called African sleeping sickness:

A

african trypanosomiasis

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59
Q

african trypanosomiasis is transmitted by:

A

tsetse flies

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60
Q

The reservoirs of african trypanosomiasis include:

A

domestic cattle and wild animals

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61
Q

african trypanosomiasis symptoms are characterized by:

A

chronic bloodstream infection with bouts of parasitemia

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62
Q

What happens after months to years with african trypanosomiasis infection?

A

CNS invasion

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63
Q

The clinical manifestations of african trypanosomiasis include:

A

Interstitial inflammation and necrosis within lymph nodes and small blood vessels of brain and heart, leading to lethargy and death within one to three years

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64
Q

Disease characterized by interstitial inflammation and necrosis within lymph nodes and small blood vessels of brain and heart leading to lethargy and death within about 1-3 years:

A

african trypanosomiasis

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65
Q

The causative agent of african trypanosomiasis is:

A

trypanosoma brucei

66
Q

How is african trypanosomiasis diagnosed?

A

observation of motile parasites in the blood

67
Q

treatment of african trypanosomiasis includes:

A

drug therapy during systemic stage, but not as effective when CNS is involved

68
Q

Describe vaccination for african trypanosomiasis:

A

Vaccine not useful due to antigenic variation

69
Q

Why is a vaccine not useful for african trypanosomiasis?

A

Due to antigenic variation due to genetic rearrangements (multiple silent copies and one expression locus)

70
Q

What is the intermediate host between animal reservoir and humans for african trypanosomiasis?

A

tsetse fly

71
Q

What determines the disease range of african trypanosomiasis?

A

tsetse fly

72
Q

American trypanosomiasis (Latin America; sporadic in southern USA):

A

Chagas Disease

73
Q

Chugs disease is transmitted by:

A

Kissing bug (Reduviid bug)

74
Q

Reservoirs of Chagas disease include:

A

domestic cattle and other animals

75
Q

In endemic regions, who is typically infected with chagas disease?

A

most people in population infected in childhood

76
Q

Describe the progression of chagas disease:

A

early disease = mild; small % develop complications 10-20 years later

77
Q

When would people develop complications from chagas disease?

A

10-20 years later

78
Q

chagas disease can result in heart disease and other disorders due to destruction of parasitized cells in the:

A

liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and CNS

79
Q

Chana’s Disease can result in heart disease and other disorders due to ____ in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes and CNS

A

destruction of parasitized cells

80
Q

___ & ___ may occur in chagas disease due to damage to nerves in the GI tract:

A

megaesophagus & megacolon

81
Q

___ may occur in chagas disease due to damage to heart muscle

A

cardiomyopathy

82
Q

cardiomyopathy may occur in chagas disease due to damage of heart muscle which can ultimately result in:

A

sudden death from arrhythmia

83
Q

What is the treatment for chagas disease?

A

No treatment available for late complications, vaccines not useful due to antigenic variation

84
Q

Why are vaccines not useful against chagas disease?

A

antigenic variation due to genetic switching

85
Q

What is the causative agent of chagas disease?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

86
Q

Describe how the parasite is discharged in chagas disease:

A

discharged in feces

87
Q

How does the vector enter the human body in chagas disease?

A

enters the human body through bite wound

88
Q

disease caused by leishmania species (several, with different tissue tropisms)

A

leshmaniasis

89
Q

Leishmaniasis is transmitted by:

A

sand flies when they a blood meal (usually tropical)

90
Q

What reservoirs for leishmania species?

A

canines and rodents

91
Q

Leishmania survives and differentiates in:

A

macrophages (superoxide dismutase)

92
Q

The three forms of leishmaniasis infection include:

A
  1. mucocutaneous
  2. cutaneous
  3. visceral
93
Q

Form of leishmaniasis that involves lesions of the mouth, nose, throat, and skin, that cause extensive scarring and disfigurement:

A

mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

94
Q

Form of leishmaniasis that involves papules that develop into crustated ulcers:

A

cutaneous leishmaniasis

95
Q

cutaneous leishmaniasis healing occurs with ___ & ___

A

scarring and permanent immunity

96
Q

Form of leishmaniasis that involves tissue macrophage disfunction with clinical manifestations of intermittent fever and enlargement of spleen and liver:

A

visceral leishmaniasis

97
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis ____ disfunction

A

tissue macrophage

98
Q

Recovery from visceral leishmaniasis provides:

A

permanent immunity

99
Q

Treatment of leishmaniasis includes:

A

several types of drugs available including amphotericin B, the polyene anti-fungal agent

100
Q

What are ways to control contraction of leishmaniasis?

A

vector and reservoir control, along with epidemiological surveillance

101
Q

Amoebiasis (Amoeboid protozoa) causes:

A

amoebic dysentery

102
Q

The causative agent of amoebiasis:

A

entamoeba histolytica

103
Q

transmission of amoebiasis occurs through:

A

ingestion of cysts

104
Q

The clinical manifestations of amoebiasis includes:

A

asymptomatic to fulminating dysentery, exhaustive diarrhea, and abscesses of the liver, lungs, and brain

105
Q

How is amoebiasis diagnosed?

A

observation of trophozoites in fresh warm stools or cysts in ordinary stools, and serological tests

106
Q

What treatment may be used for amoebiasis?

A

metronidazole therapy

107
Q

Why is metronidazole therapy effective against amoebiasis?

A

amoebas carry out anaerobic metabolism and the drug penetrates tissue well to destroy invasive pathogens

108
Q

What is one way to control the contraction of amoebiasis?

A

avoiding contaminated water and food and hyperchlorination/iodination of water supplies to destroy waterborne cysts

109
Q

Phylum apicomplexa lack ____ except for ___ or ___

A

locomotor organells; male gametes and zygotes

110
Q

All Phylum apicomplexa contain:

A

apical complex

111
Q

Arrangement fibrils, tubules, vacuoles, and other organelles at one end of the cell:

A

apical complex

112
Q

spirally arranged fibers:

A

conoid

113
Q

Contains materials that are secreted and aid in penetration of host cell:

A

rhoptry

114
Q

The lifecycle of ___ involves two different hosts (usually mammal and mosquito):

A

apicomplexan life cycle

115
Q

The apicomplexan life cycle involves both:

A

sexual and asexual phases

116
Q

The asexual phase of the apicomplexan life cycle involving a rapid series of mitotic events producing infective organisms:

A

schizogeny

117
Q

What is produced during the sexual phase of the apicomplexan life cycle?

A

oocyst

118
Q

Describe the oocyst produced during the sexual phase of the apicomplexan life cycle:

A

thick-walled diploid structure that undergoes meiosis to produce haploid spores

119
Q

apicomplexan=

A

sporozoan

120
Q

Important sporozoan (ampicomplexan) generas include:

A
  1. plasmodium
  2. cryptosporidium
  3. toxoplasma
121
Q

The sporozoan (ampicomplexan) responsible for malaria:

A

plasmodium

122
Q

The sporozoan (ampicomplexan) responsible for cryptosporidiosis:

A

cryptosporidium

123
Q

The sporozoan (ampicomplexan) responsible for toxoplasmosis:

A

toxoplasma

124
Q

Malaria is caused by four species of:

A

plasmodium

125
Q

What species of plasmodium that causes malaria is most virulent?

A

plasmodium falciparum

126
Q

What are the four species of plasmodium that cause malaria?

A
  1. P. falciparum
  2. P. vivax
  3. P. malariae
  4. P. ovale
127
Q

Malaria is treated by bite of an infected:

A

female anopheles mosquito

128
Q

What is the reservoir of malaria?

A

humans

129
Q

What is the intermediate host of malaria:

A

humans asexual reproduction

130
Q

What is the definitive host of malaria?

A

mosquito sexual reproduction

131
Q

P. Vivax and P. ovale form ____ which are the ___ forms within liver cells

A

hypnozoites; dormant forms

132
Q

The hypnozoids formed from P. Vivax and P. ovale within liver cells cause:

A

recurrent malaria (months to years after initial disease)

133
Q

The clinical manifestations of malaria include:

A

periodic attacks of chills and fever

134
Q

The periodic attacks of chills and fever seen with malaria coincide with:

A

RBC lysis and merozoite release, which stimulates cytokine production

135
Q

describe the hepatocellular cycle involved in malaria infection:

A

8-14 days; multiply asexually

136
Q

describe the erythrocyte cycle involved in malaria infection:

A

2-3 days; multiply asexually

137
Q

In a malaria infection, a small number of merozoites develop into:

A

gametocytes

138
Q

How is malaria diagnosed?

A

demonstration of parasites within Wright- or Giemsa-stained red blood cells and serological tests (but these are of little value in acutely ill patient)

139
Q

What is the treatment for malaria?

A

antimalarial drugs

140
Q

What are the classic antimalarial drugs and how do they function?

A

chloroquine and other quinine based drugs- these block heme detoxification in plasmodium food vacuole

141
Q

In treatment of malaria, ____ resistance is widespread due to the drug being pumped out of the vacuole

A

chloroquine resistance

142
Q

What is the mechanism of chloroquine resistance in malaria infections?

A

drug pumped out of vacuole

143
Q

For individuals traveling to high endemic malaria areas, what is recommended?

A
  1. chemoprophylaxis
  2. netting
  3. insect repellants
144
Q

What is characteristic of early stages of malarial infection?

A

early ring formation

145
Q

Endemic to the USA and transmitted by same exodus tick as borrelia burgdoferri:

A

babesia

146
Q

Babesia is caused by:

A

babesia species

147
Q

Infections of babesia range from:

A

subclinical to severe disease

148
Q

Infections of babesia can be described as:

A

“summer flu”

149
Q

Describe what happens when protozoa infect red blood cells in babesia:

A

once protozoa infect red blood cells they cause fever upon release

150
Q

Babesia infection is similar to ___ but there is no ___

A

malaria; intermediate liver stage

151
Q

What is the reservoir for babesia?

A

White-footed mouse (NOT HUMANS)

152
Q

Diagnosis of babesia is by:

A

microscopy of Giemsa-stained blood samples & PCR

153
Q

What is the treatment of babesia?

A

clindamycin + quinine (different from malaria)

154
Q

The causative agent of toxoplasmosis:

A

toxoplasma gondii

155
Q

Transmission of toxoplasmosis is by:

A

ingestion of undercooked meat, congenital transfer, blood transfusion, tissue transplant and ingestion of cat feces

156
Q

Toxoplasma gondii invade:

A

macrophages

157
Q

What is the definitive host of toxoplasma gondii?

A

Cats

158
Q

What are two common modes of transmission of toxoplasmosis for humans (list the most common one first)?

A
  1. undercooked meat containing tissue cysts
  2. humans handling kitty litter or soil
159
Q

The clinical manifestations of toxoplasmosis include:

A
  • usually asymptomatic (in greater than 99% or resembles mono
  • can be fatal fatal in immunocompromised hosts (mass lesions in the brain)
  • congenital infections
160
Q

Treatment for toxoplasmosis includes:

A

antiparasite therapy for immunocompromised patients

161
Q

Control of toxoplasmosis contraction includes:

A
  • minimizing exposure by avoidance of: raw meat and eggs, washing hands after in soil, and cat handling practices
  • women screened for anti toxoplasma antibody at marriage or very early in pregnancy

microbiology (24 decks)

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