SLK 310 Sem test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

define clinical assessment

A

the systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in an individual presenting with a possible psychological disorder

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2
Q

what 2 components does the diagnostic process rely on in order to reach a diagnostic conclusion

A

1- securing symptoms and signs and interpreting adjunctive sources of info
2- knowledge of normal functioning and behaviour and their pathological counterparts.

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3
Q

what are the 4 purposes of a clinical assessment
PUTE

A

predicting behaviour
understanding the individual
treatment planning
evaluating outcomes

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4
Q

what is the hypothetico deductive method

A

the clinician will form a hypothesis about the problem right from the outset.

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5
Q

what are the 6 types of diagnoses
PPPSDF

A

Pathognomonic diagnosis
Phenomenological/experiential diagnosis
Pathogenic and aetiological diagnosis
Syndromal diagnosis
Differential diagnosis
Functional diagnosis

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6
Q

what is a pathognomonic diagnosis

A

there is one symptom/sign or a set of symptoms/signs that uniquely define a condition

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7
Q

what is a phenomenological diagnosis

A

solely reliant on clinical info. it is made if only observed and reported info is available

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8
Q

what is a pathogenic and aetiological diagnosis

A

where the pathological process and cause are unknown

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9
Q

what is syndromal diagnosis

A

enough phenomena can be observed to recognise clustering and more is known about the presentation.

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10
Q

what is differential diagnosis

A

there are many possible explanations to account for the presentation.

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11
Q

what is functional diagnosis

A

it allows us to consider the functional implications of a condition.

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12
Q

what are the 3 key concepts in assessment and diagnosis
RVS

A

reliability
validity
standardisation

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13
Q

define reliability

A

the degree to which a measurement is consistent

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14
Q

define validity

A

whether something measures what it is designed to measure

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15
Q

what are the 4 types of validity
CCPF

A

Concurrent/descriptive validity
Construct validity
Predictive validity
Face validity

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16
Q

define standardisation

A

when a certain set of standards is determined for a technique to make its use consistent across different measurements

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17
Q

what are the 3 legs of the clinical encounter
HMB

A

History
Mental state examination
Behavioural observations

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18
Q

what are the 4 domains that the clinical enounter assesses
CAPD

A

current and past behaviour
attitudes and emotions
presenting problem
detailed history

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19
Q

what are the 6 elements of a clinical history
PPMISH

A

Primary complaint
Psychosocial adaptation and functioning
Medical history
Identifying and demographic info
Systematic enquiry
Habits

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20
Q

what is the mental state examination

A

the systematic observation of a person’s state of consciousness, cognitive ability, feelings and emotions, and behaviour

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21
Q

what 5 domains are considered when using a systematic approach to describing a mental state
GCMRB

A

General Appearance
Cognition
Mood and affect
Reality testing and organisation
behaviour

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22
Q

what are the 13 components of a physical examination
RREE PONG CAM DV

A

Respiratory
Rectal examination
Ear, nose and throat
Eyes
Pelvic, urological and gynaecological
Oral cavity and teeth
Neurological
General observations
Cardiovascular
Abdominal
Musculoskeletal
Dermatological
Vital signs

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23
Q

what are the ABCs of observation

A

antecedents
behaviours of interest
consequences

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24
Q

what is the brief psychiatric rating scale

A

it assesses 18 general areas of concern for behaviour. each symptom is rated on a 7 point scale

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25
Q

what 3 responses are determined using the tools of psychological testing

A

Cognitive
Emotional
Behavioural

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26
Q

what are the 2 most used projective tests

A

rorschach inkblot test
thematic apperception test

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27
Q

what are the strengths of projective testing

A

useful as an icebreaker
a way to gather qualitative data

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28
Q

what are the weaknesses of projective testing

A

hard to standardise
reliability and validity data tend to be mixed

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29
Q

what are the 3 kinds of psychological tests

A

projective testing
personality inventories
intelligence testing

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30
Q

define personality inventories

A

self-report questionnaires that assess personal traits by asking respondents to identify descriptions that apply to them

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31
Q

what does MMPI stand for

A

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

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32
Q

what is the MMPI

A

an objective personality test that is based on an empirical approach. the collection and evaluation of data and give us a sense of the personality features and traits of the individual

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33
Q

what are the 3 neuropsychological tests that assess neural damage and cognitive dysfunction

A

Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological battery
Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological battery
Bender Visual-motor gestalt test

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34
Q

what are the 3 problems with neuropsychological tests

A

False positives
False negatives
Require hours to administer

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35
Q

what are the 2 categories of neuroimaging

A

structural and functional

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36
Q

what is structural neuroimaging

A

includes procedures that show the structure of the brain (size of various parts and the presence of lesions)

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37
Q

what are the 2 processes involved in structural neuroimaging

A

CAT/CT scans and MRI scans

38
Q

what is a CAT scan and what does it stand for

A

Computerised Axial Tomography
It employs multiple x-ray views, focused at different planes and re-assembled using complicated mathematical algorithms

39
Q

what is an MRI and what does it stand for

A

Magnetic Resonance imaging
uses nuclear magnetic resonance in which a hydrogen ion changes its rotation and orientation when subjected to a magnetic field

40
Q

what is functional neuroimaging

A

neural functioning is indirectly analyzed by mapping

41
Q

what are the 3 processes involved in functional neuroimaging

A

PET scans
SPECT scans
FMRI scans

42
Q

What does PET stand for

A

Positron Emission Tomography

43
Q

what does SPECT stand for

A

Single photon emission computed tomography

44
Q

what does FMRI stand for

A

Functional Magnetic resonance imaging

45
Q

define psychophysiological assessment

A

it is a measurement of changes in the nervous system that reflect emotional or psychological events

46
Q

define taxonomy

A

classification in a scientific context

47
Q

define nosology

A

Taxonomy in a psychological/medical phenomena

48
Q

define nomenclature

A

labels in a nosological system

49
Q

what are the 3 main sections of the DSM 5

A

1- introduces the manual and describes how to use it
2- presents the disorders themselves
3- descriptions of disorders/conditions that need further research before they can qualify as official diagnoses

50
Q

which area of the brain is most commonly associated with anxiety

A

the limbic system

51
Q

what are the 2 pharmacological treatments for Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Benzodiazepines
Antidepressants

52
Q

what are the 2 psychological treatments for generalised anxiety disorder

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy
Meditation

53
Q

define interoceptive avoidance

A

when one removes oneself from situations/activities that might produce the physiological arousal that somehow resembles the beginnings of a panic attack

54
Q

what is panic control treatment (PCT)

A

patients with panic disorder are exposed to the cluster of physical sensations that remind them of their panic attacks

55
Q

what are the 4 main kinds of specific phobias
BANS

A

Blood-Injection-Injury phobia
Animal phobia
Natural Environment phobia
Situational phobia

56
Q

what are the 4 causes of specific phobias
VIPD

A

Vicarious experience
Information transmission
Prepared
Direct experience

57
Q

define graduated and structured exposure

A

systematic progression through hierarchy of feared situations related to phobia

58
Q

what are the 3 pathways to social anxiety disorder

A

Biological vulnerability
Stress
Social trauma

59
Q

which diagnostic label was introduced to account for symptoms in the immediate aftermath of severe trauma when PTSD cannot yet be diagnosed

A

Acute stress disorder

60
Q

define catharsis

A

reliving trauma in psychoanalytic therapy to relieve emotional suffering

61
Q

what are the 4 major types of obsessions with regard to OCD
SFCH

A

Symmetry/exactness
Forbidden thoughts or actions
Cleaning/contamination
Hoarding

62
Q

what is the most effective psychological approach to OCD

A

Exposure and ritual prevention (ERP)

63
Q

what is exposure and ritual prevention treatment for OCD

A

rituals are actively prevented, and the patient is systematically and gradually exposed to the feared thoughts or situations

64
Q

what are the 5 basic somatic symptom and related disorders
SPIFC

A

Somatic symptom disorder
Psychological factors affecting medical condition
Illness anxiety disorder
Factitious disorder
Conversion disorder

65
Q

what is somatic symptom disorder

A

a person’s belief that they are suffering or will develop a serious illness/disease based on the misinterpretation of symptoms. this causes anxiety and panic

66
Q

what 3 additional factors may contribute to illness anxiety disorder
SIB

A

Stressful life events
Illness in family during childhood
Benefits of illness

67
Q

what are the 5 links between somatic symptom disorder and antisocial personality disorder
VIPTO

A

Vandalism
Irresponsibility with finances and at work
Persistent lying
Theft
Out right physical aggression

68
Q

what are the 4 shared features of antisocial personality disorder and somatic symptom disorder
BMCL

A

Both begin early in life
More common in lower socioeconomic groups
Chronic and difficult to treat
Linked to marital discord, substance abuse and interpersonal problems

69
Q

what are the 3 treatments for somatic symptom disorders

A

Psychoeducation
Psychotherapy
Biological treatments

70
Q

what are the 4 faculties of influence regarding conversion disorder symptoms
MMPS

A

Motor symptoms
Mixed Symptoms
Pseudo-seizure
Sensory symptoms

71
Q

factitious disorder seems particularly common among people who…
RCH

A

Received extensive medical treatment as children
Carry a grudge against the medical profession
Have worked in medical related fields where substantial knowledge of illnesses may have been gained

72
Q

define depersonalisation

A

altering of perception that causes people to temporarily lose a sense of their own reality.

73
Q

define derealisation

A

an individual loses a sense of the reality of the external world

74
Q

define depersonalisation-derealisation disorder

A

dissociative disorder in which feelings of depersonalisation are so severe they dominate the client’s life and prevent normal functioning

75
Q

define dissociative amnesia

A

dissociative disorder featuring the inability to recall personal info, usually of a stressful or traumatic nature

76
Q

what is the diathesis-stress model

A

only with the appropriate vulnerabilities will someone react to stress with pathological dissociation

77
Q

define anhedonia

A

a general loss of interest in things and an inability to experience any pleasure from life

78
Q

define major depressive disorder

A

a mood disorder involving one or more major depressive episodes separated by periods of remission (at least 2 months)

79
Q

what is dysthymia

A

persistent depressive disorder

80
Q

define persistent depressive disorder

A

depressed mood that continues for at least 2 years, during which the patient cannot be free of symptoms for more than 2 months at a time.

81
Q

what are the 3 types of persistent depressive disorder

A

Mild depressive symptoms without any major depressive episodes (pure dysthymic syndrome)
Mild depressive symptoms with additional major depressive episodes occurring intermittently
Major depressive episode lasting 2 or more years

82
Q

define disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

A

condition in which a child has chronic negative moods without any accompanying mania

83
Q

what is the defining feature of bipolar disorders

A

occurrence of mania/hypomania, with a tendency to recur and alternate/ cycle with depressive episodes

84
Q

what is Bipolar 1 disorder

A

alternations between major depressive episodes and full manic episodes

85
Q

what is Bipolar 2 disorder

A

alternations between major depressive episodes and hypomanic episodes

86
Q

what is cyclothymic disorder

A

a milder form of bipolar where there are alternations between less severe depressive and hypomanic periods

87
Q

define learned helplessness

A

people become anxious and depressed when they make an attribution that they have no control over the stress in their lives

88
Q

what are the 3 features of the depressive attribution style
ISG

A

Internal
Stable
Global

89
Q

what are the 2 cognitive errors associated with depression

A

Arbitrary inference
Overgeneralization

90
Q

what are the 3 areas of the depressive cognitive triad

A

Thinking negatively about oneself
Thinking negatively about the world
Thinking negatively about the future

91
Q

what are the 4 risk factors of suicide
FENS

A

Family history
Existing psychological disorders and other psychological risk factors
Neurobiology
Stressful life events