skeletal system Flashcards
1
Q
functions of the skeletal system
A
1.) body support
2.) organ protection
3.) body movement
4.) mineral storage
5.) Blood cell production
2
Q
provides firm yet flexible support to areas
A
cartilage
2
Q
by weight, it is i normally about 35% organic and 65% inorganic material
A
bone matrix
3
Q
strong bands of fibrous connective tissues that hold bones together
A
ligaments
4
Q
inorganic materials in the bone primarily consist of ?
A
calcium phosphate crystal
4
Q
organic materials in the bone primarily consist of ?
A
collagen and proteoglycans
5
Q
responsible for the major functional characteristics of the bone
A
collagen and minerals
5
Q
what are calcium phosphate crystal called
A
hydroxyapatite
5
Q
if mineral in the bone is reduced, it results to what?
A
collagen becomes primary constituent and bone becomes overly flexible
6
Q
the matrix ground substance consist of molecules called
A
proteoglycans
7
Q
three types of bone cells
A
osteoclast
osteoblast
osteocytes
8
Q
it means imperfect bone formation, a rare disorder caused by any one of the number of faulty genes that results in too little collagen production.
A
brittle bone disease/ osteogenesis imperfecta
9
Q
are bone building cells
A
osteoblast
10
Q
cells that have extensive endoplasmic reticulum and numerous ribosomes
A
osteoblast
11
Q
osteoblast secrete high concentration of
A
Ca+ and phosphate ions
12
Q
acts as templates that stimulate formation and mineralization of the matrix
A
hydroxyapatite
13
Q
formation of new bone by osteoblast is called?
A
ossification
13
Q
can occur multiple times during life; as a fetus, when growing larger and time in life when fracture is repaired
A
ossification
14
Q
osteocytes account how much of the bone cells?
A
90-95%
14
Q
osteoblast become what?
A
osteoclast
15
Q
osteocytes has a life span of how many years?
A
up to 25 years
16
Q
osteocytes cell bodies are housed with the bone matrix in spaces called?
A
lacunae
17
Q
osteocyte cell extensions are housed in narrow, long spaces called
A
canaliculi
18
Q
are bone destroying cells
A
osteoclasts
19
breakdown of bone is called
reabsorption
20
osteoclast develop from?
red bone marrow cells
21
osteoclast develop a
ruffled border
22
a specialized reabsorption of a specific area of the membrane
ruffled border
23
mature bone is called?
lamellar bone
23
is a solid, outer layer surrounding each bone
compact bone/CORTICAL BONE
24
spongy bone consist of interconnecting rods or plates of bone called
trabeculae
25
osteon is composed of
concentric rings of matrix
25
the functional unit of compact bone is called
osteon
26
in cross section, an osteon resembles a circular target
central canal
27
is the center portion of the bone and is primarily composed of bone tissue
diaphysis
28
hollow center
medullary cavity
29
the ends of long bones are called
epiphyses
30
is a connective tissue membrane covering the outer surface of the bone
periosteum
31
the end of the long bones that are covered with hyaline membrane is called
articular cartilage
32
when bone stops growing in length, the epiphyseal plate becomes ossified called
epiphyseal line
32
is located between the epiphysis and diaphysis
epiphyseal
33
is the site for blood cell formation
red marrow
34
is mostly adipose tissue
yellow marrow
35
is a single cell layer of connective tissue that lines the internal surfaces of cavities within bones
endosteum
35
bone formation in the fetus follows two processes
1.) intramembranous ossification
2.) endochondral ossification
36
the locations in the membrane where intramembranous ossification begins is called
center of ossification
37
soft spots, are the larger, membrane-covered spaces between the developing skulls
fontanels
38
the formation of cartilage begins at approximately the end of the fourth week of embryonic development
endochondral
38
a hyaline cartilage model is produced by cells called
chondrocytes
39
endochondral ossification starts at the
eight week of embryonic development
40
the osteoblast produce bone on the surface of the cartilage model forming a
bone collar
41
the chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage model absorb some of the
cartilage matrix and hypertrophy
42
formation of hydroxyapatite is called
calcified cartilage
43
forms as osteoblast produce bone on the surface of the calcified cartilage
primary ossification center
44
are created in the epiphyses by osteoblasts that migrate into the epiphysis
secondary ossification center
45
the cartilage model is surrounded by
perichondrium
46
the osteoblasts produce compact bone on the surface of the cartilage model, forming a
bone collar
47
the chondrocytes initiate in the formation of hydroxyapatite crystals in the cartilage matrix, at this point the cartilage is called
calcified cartilage
48
the chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage model absorb some of the
cartilage matrix and hypertrophy
49
forms as osteoblasts produce bone on the surface of the calcified cartilage
primary ossification center
49
are created in the epiphysis by the osteoclasts that migrate into the epiphysis
secondary ossification center
49
blood vessels grow into the enlarged lacunae of the calcified cartilage
primary ossification center formation
50
when all the original perichondrium that has surrounded the cartilage model has become?
periosteum
51
long bones increase in length because of
epiphyseal plate
52
zone where chondrocytes produce new cartilage by dividing and forming columns resembling stack of plates or coins
zone of proliferation
52
new formations of bones through
interstitial cartilage growth
53
is the nearest the epiphysis contains slowly dividing chondrocrytes
zone of resting cartilage
54
where chondrocytes produced in the zone of proliferation mature and enlarge
zone of hypertrophy
55
very thin and contains hypertrophied chondrocytes and calcified cartilage matrix
zone of calcification
56
bone that becomes old is replaced with new bone in process called
bone remodeling
57
where osteoclast remove old bone and osteoblast deposit new bone
bone remodeling
58
is critical physiological regulator of many processes required to achieve and maintain homeostasis
calcium homeostasis
58
in bone remodeling, it coverts ____ into______
woven bone into lamellar bone
58
is a mass of bone tissue that forms at the fracture site
callus
59
is a localized mass of blood released from the blood vessels but confined within an organ or a space
hematoma
59
the cartilage in the callus is replaced by spongy bone through
endochondral ossification
60
major storage site of calcium
bones
61
increases blood calcium levels by exerting direct regulatory control of osteoblast and osteocytes
PTH
61
secreted by the cells in the the parathyroid gland and essential for maintenance of blood calcium levels
parathyroid hormones
62
PHT stimulates the reabsorption of calcium from the urine
kidney tubules
63
regulates Ca+ levels by indirectly increasing Ca+ uptake from the small intestine
PHT
64
increases blood Ca+ levels. is a steroid hormone deprive from vitamin D
calcitriol
65
is secreted from C cells in the thyroid gland when blood Ca+ levels are too high
calcitonin
66
is a bacterial infection in the bones, usually the aggressive pathogen staphylococcus is the causative organism
osteomyelitis
67
are approximately as wide as they are long, examples are wrist and ankle
short bones
68
a hole in the brain is called
foramen
68
a rounded projection in the bone is called
tubercle
68
have a relatively thin, flattened shape
such as skull bones, ribs, sternum
flat bones
69
have shapes that do not fit readily into the three categories. bones have specialized functions
irregular bones
70
a depression in a bone is called
fossa
71
a hole is elongated into a tunnel- like passage through the bone
canal or meatus
72
a sharp projection from a bone is called a
process
73
smooth rounded end of a bone where it forms a joint with another bone is called
condyle
73
skull consist of how many bones?
8 cranial bones
14 facial bones
total of 22 bones
74
the 4 sutures
1.) coronal
2.) sagittal
3.) lambdoid
4.) squamous
74
the top of the skull is called
calvaria
74
Which structure of the frontal bone forms the forehead?
A. Supraorbital margin
B. Frontal squama
C. Zygomatic process
D. Nasal notch
Answer: B. Frontal squama
74
cranial bones are connected by immovable joints called
sutures
74
connected to the two parietal bones
the frontal
75
What is the anatomical name for the small indentation above the eye sockets that allows passage of nerves and blood vessels?
A. Supraorbital foramen
B. Infraorbital foramen
C. Superciliary arch
D. Glabella
Answer: A. Supraorbital foramen
75
Which feature marks the lateral surface of the parietal bone and serves as an attachment point for the temporalis muscle?
A. Temporal line
B. Sagittal suture
C. Parietal foramen
D. Superior nuchal line
Answer: A. Temporal line
75
Which suture connects the two parietal bones at the top of the skull?
A. Lambdoid suture
B. Coronal suture
C. Sagittal suture
D. Squamous suture
Answer: C. Sagittal suture
75
What is the smooth area between the eyebrows on the frontal bone called?
A. Superciliary arch
B. Supraorbital margin
C. Glabella
D. Frontal squama
C. Glabella
75
Which part of the frontal bone articulates with the nasal bones?
A. Frontal crest
B. Nasal notch
C. Zygomatic process
D. Temporal line
Answer: B. Nasal notch
76
Which feature of the parietal bone allows passage of emissary veins to connect with the superior sagittal sinus?
A. Parietal foramen
B. Temporal line
C. Superior temporal ridge
D. External occipital protuberance
Answer: A. Parietal foramen
76
Which part of the occipital bone surrounds the foramen magnum and provides articulation with the cervical vertebra?
A. Squamous part
B. Basilar part
C. Occipital condyles
D. External occipital protuberance
Answer: C. Occipital condyles
76
Which process of the temporal bone forms part of the zygomatic arch?
A. Styloid process
B. Mastoid process
C. Zygomatic process
D. Temporal squama
Answer: C. Zygomatic process
76
Which canal in the occipital bone transmits the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)?
A. Jugular foramen
B. Hypoglossal canal
C. Foramen magnum
D. Condylar canal
Answer: B. Hypoglossal canal
76
The mastoid process is an important feature of the temporal bone. What is its primary function?
A. Transmission of sound waves
B. Attachment of neck muscles
C. Passage of the facial nerve
D. Formation of the temporomandibular joint
Answer: B. Attachment of neck muscles
76
The external occipital protuberance is a prominent feature on the occipital bone. What is its function?
A. Articulates with the atlas
B. Passage of blood vessels
C. Muscle attachment
D. Supports the occipital lobe
Answer: C. Muscle attachment
77
Which part of the occipital bone is involved in the formation of the clivus and articulates with the sphenoid bone?
A. Squamous part
B. Basilar part
C. Lateral part
D. Condylar part
Answer: B. Basilar part
77
hich canal in the temporal bone houses the internal carotid artery?
A. Carotid canal
B. External acoustic meatus
C. Stylomastoid foramen
D. Jugular foramen
Answer: A. Carotid canal
78
What structure is located on the inferior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone and transmits the facial nerve (CN VII)?
A. Stylomastoid foramen
B. Jugular foramen
C. Internal acoustic meatus
D. Foramen lacerum
Answer: A. Stylomastoid foramen
78
Which structure of the sphenoid bone houses the pituitary gland?
A. Pterygoid process
B. Sella turcica
C. Lesser wings
D. Greater wings
Answer: B. Sella turcica
79
What is the purpose of the superior and middle nasal conchae in the ethmoid bone?
A. Provide support for the optic canal
B. Help in warming, moistening, and filtering air
C. Serve as an attachment for muscles
D. Form the lateral walls of the orbit
B. Help in warming, moistening, and filtering air
80
What is the name of the downward projection of the sphenoid bone that provides attachment for the pterygoid muscles?
A. Pterygoid process
B. Medial pterygoid plate
C. Lateral pterygoid plate
D. Greater wings
81
bending
82
straightening
83
movement away from the midline
abduction
84
movement toward the midline
abduction
85
rotation of the forearm with palms down
pronation
86
rotation of the forearm with palms up
supination
87
movement of a structure about the long axis
rotation
88
is an abnormal lateral curvature of the thoracic spine
scoliosis
89
a spinal disorder with an excessive outward curve of the spine
kyphosis
90
an exaggerated lumbar curve, is often seen in pregnancy or obesity
lordosis
91
thigh
femur
91
knee cap
patella
91
non movable joint
synarthrosis
92
freely movable joints
diarthrosis
92
slightly movable joint
amphiarthrosis
93
large lower leg
tibia
94
small lower lag
fibula
95
ankle
tarsals
96
foot
metatarsals
96
forearm
ulna, radius
96
toes and fingers
phalanges
96
upper limb
humerus
97
wrist
carpals
98
hand
metacarpals
99
directly attached to the sternum
true ribs
100
indirectly attached to the sternum by cartilage
false ribs
101
the only bone that does not articulate with another bone
hyoid bone
102
upper jaw
maxilla
103
lower jaw
mandible
104
cheek bone
zygomatic
105
roof of mouth
hard palate
106
hole where spinal cord joins brainstem
foramen magnum
107
attachment site for tongue
styloid process
108
depression where lower jaw and skull meet
mandibular fossa
109
where humerus meets scapula
glenoid fossa
110
bone is crushed
compression
110
bone breaks into many fragments
comminuted
111
broken bone portion is pressed inward
depressed
111
ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to the bone
spiral
111
bone breaks incompletely
greenstick
112
broken bone ends where are forced into each other
impacted
