skeletal system Flashcards

1
Q

functions of the skeletal system

A

1.) body support
2.) organ protection
3.) body movement
4.) mineral storage
5.) Blood cell production

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2
Q

provides firm yet flexible support to areas

A

cartilage

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2
Q

by weight, it is i normally about 35% organic and 65% inorganic material

A

bone matrix

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3
Q

strong bands of fibrous connective tissues that hold bones together

A

ligaments

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4
Q

inorganic materials in the bone primarily consist of ?

A

calcium phosphate crystal

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4
Q

organic materials in the bone primarily consist of ?

A

collagen and proteoglycans

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5
Q

responsible for the major functional characteristics of the bone

A

collagen and minerals

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5
Q

what are calcium phosphate crystal called

A

hydroxyapatite

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5
Q

if mineral in the bone is reduced, it results to what?

A

collagen becomes primary constituent and bone becomes overly flexible

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6
Q

the matrix ground substance consist of molecules called

A

proteoglycans

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7
Q

three types of bone cells

A

osteoclast
osteoblast
osteocytes

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8
Q

it means imperfect bone formation, a rare disorder caused by any one of the number of faulty genes that results in too little collagen production.

A

brittle bone disease/ osteogenesis imperfecta

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9
Q

are bone building cells

A

osteoblast

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10
Q

cells that have extensive endoplasmic reticulum and numerous ribosomes

A

osteoblast

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11
Q

osteoblast secrete high concentration of

A

Ca+ and phosphate ions

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12
Q

acts as templates that stimulate formation and mineralization of the matrix

A

hydroxyapatite

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13
Q

formation of new bone by osteoblast is called?

A

ossification

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13
Q

can occur multiple times during life; as a fetus, when growing larger and time in life when fracture is repaired

A

ossification

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14
Q

osteocytes account how much of the bone cells?

A

90-95%

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14
Q

osteoblast become what?

A

osteoclast

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15
Q

osteocytes has a life span of how many years?

A

up to 25 years

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16
Q

osteocytes cell bodies are housed with the bone matrix in spaces called?

A

lacunae

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17
Q

osteocyte cell extensions are housed in narrow, long spaces called

A

canaliculi

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18
Q

are bone destroying cells

A

osteoclasts

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19
Q

breakdown of bone is called

A

reabsorption

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20
Q

osteoclast develop from?

A

red bone marrow cells

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21
Q

osteoclast develop a

A

ruffled border

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22
Q

a specialized reabsorption of a specific area of the membrane

A

ruffled border

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23
Q

mature bone is called?

A

lamellar bone

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23
Q

is a solid, outer layer surrounding each bone

A

compact bone/CORTICAL BONE

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24
Q

spongy bone consist of interconnecting rods or plates of bone called

A

trabeculae

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25
Q

osteon is composed of

A

concentric rings of matrix

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25
Q

the functional unit of compact bone is called

A

osteon

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26
Q

in cross section, an osteon resembles a circular target

A

central canal

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27
Q

is the center portion of the bone and is primarily composed of bone tissue

A

diaphysis

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28
Q

hollow center

A

medullary cavity

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29
Q

the ends of long bones are called

A

epiphyses

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30
Q

is a connective tissue membrane covering the outer surface of the bone

A

periosteum

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31
Q

the end of the long bones that are covered with hyaline membrane is called

A

articular cartilage

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32
Q

when bone stops growing in length, the epiphyseal plate becomes ossified called

A

epiphyseal line

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32
Q

is located between the epiphysis and diaphysis

A

epiphyseal

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33
Q

is the site for blood cell formation

A

red marrow

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34
Q

is mostly adipose tissue

A

yellow marrow

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35
Q

is a single cell layer of connective tissue that lines the internal surfaces of cavities within bones

A

endosteum

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35
Q

bone formation in the fetus follows two processes

A

1.) intramembranous ossification
2.) endochondral ossification

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36
Q

the locations in the membrane where intramembranous ossification begins is called

A

center of ossification

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37
Q

soft spots, are the larger, membrane-covered spaces between the developing skulls

A

fontanels

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38
Q

the formation of cartilage begins at approximately the end of the fourth week of embryonic development

A

endochondral

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38
Q

a hyaline cartilage model is produced by cells called

A

chondrocytes

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39
Q

endochondral ossification starts at the

A

eight week of embryonic development

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40
Q

the osteoblast produce bone on the surface of the cartilage model forming a

A

bone collar

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41
Q

the chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage model absorb some of the

A

cartilage matrix and hypertrophy

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42
Q

formation of hydroxyapatite is called

A

calcified cartilage

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43
Q

forms as osteoblast produce bone on the surface of the calcified cartilage

A

primary ossification center

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44
Q

are created in the epiphyses by osteoblasts that migrate into the epiphysis

A

secondary ossification center

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45
Q

the cartilage model is surrounded by

A

perichondrium

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46
Q

the osteoblasts produce compact bone on the surface of the cartilage model, forming a

A

bone collar

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47
Q

the chondrocytes initiate in the formation of hydroxyapatite crystals in the cartilage matrix, at this point the cartilage is called

A

calcified cartilage

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48
Q

the chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage model absorb some of the

A

cartilage matrix and hypertrophy

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49
Q

forms as osteoblasts produce bone on the surface of the calcified cartilage

A

primary ossification center

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49
Q

are created in the epiphysis by the osteoclasts that migrate into the epiphysis

A

secondary ossification center

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49
Q

blood vessels grow into the enlarged lacunae of the calcified cartilage

A

primary ossification center formation

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50
Q

when all the original perichondrium that has surrounded the cartilage model has become?

A

periosteum

51
Q

long bones increase in length because of

A

epiphyseal plate

52
Q

zone where chondrocytes produce new cartilage by dividing and forming columns resembling stack of plates or coins

A

zone of proliferation

52
Q

new formations of bones through

A

interstitial cartilage growth

53
Q

is the nearest the epiphysis contains slowly dividing chondrocrytes

A

zone of resting cartilage

54
Q

where chondrocytes produced in the zone of proliferation mature and enlarge

A

zone of hypertrophy

55
Q

very thin and contains hypertrophied chondrocytes and calcified cartilage matrix

A

zone of calcification

56
Q

bone that becomes old is replaced with new bone in process called

A

bone remodeling

57
Q

where osteoclast remove old bone and osteoblast deposit new bone

A

bone remodeling

58
Q

is critical physiological regulator of many processes required to achieve and maintain homeostasis

A

calcium homeostasis

58
Q

in bone remodeling, it coverts ____ into______

A

woven bone into lamellar bone

58
Q

is a mass of bone tissue that forms at the fracture site

A

callus

59
Q

is a localized mass of blood released from the blood vessels but confined within an organ or a space

A

hematoma

59
Q

the cartilage in the callus is replaced by spongy bone through

A

endochondral ossification

60
Q

major storage site of calcium

A

bones

61
Q

increases blood calcium levels by exerting direct regulatory control of osteoblast and osteocytes

A

PTH

61
Q

secreted by the cells in the the parathyroid gland and essential for maintenance of blood calcium levels

A

parathyroid hormones

62
Q

PHT stimulates the reabsorption of calcium from the urine

A

kidney tubules

63
Q

regulates Ca+ levels by indirectly increasing Ca+ uptake from the small intestine

A

PHT

64
Q

increases blood Ca+ levels. is a steroid hormone deprive from vitamin D

A

calcitriol

65
Q

is secreted from C cells in the thyroid gland when blood Ca+ levels are too high

A

calcitonin

66
Q

is a bacterial infection in the bones, usually the aggressive pathogen staphylococcus is the causative organism

A

osteomyelitis

67
Q

are approximately as wide as they are long, examples are wrist and ankle

A

short bones

68
Q

a hole in the brain is called

A

foramen

68
Q

a rounded projection in the bone is called

A

tubercle

68
Q

have a relatively thin, flattened shape
such as skull bones, ribs, sternum

A

flat bones

69
Q

have shapes that do not fit readily into the three categories. bones have specialized functions

A

irregular bones

70
Q

a depression in a bone is called

A

fossa

71
Q

a hole is elongated into a tunnel- like passage through the bone

A

canal or meatus

72
Q

a sharp projection from a bone is called a

A

process

73
Q

smooth rounded end of a bone where it forms a joint with another bone is called

A

condyle

73
Q

skull consist of how many bones?

A

8 cranial bones
14 facial bones
total of 22 bones

74
Q

the 4 sutures

A

1.) coronal
2.) sagittal
3.) lambdoid
4.) squamous

74
Q

the top of the skull is called

A

calvaria

74
Q

Which structure of the frontal bone forms the forehead?

A. Supraorbital margin
B. Frontal squama
C. Zygomatic process
D. Nasal notch

A

Answer: B. Frontal squama

74
Q

cranial bones are connected by immovable joints called

A

sutures

74
Q

connected to the two parietal bones

A

the frontal

75
Q

What is the anatomical name for the small indentation above the eye sockets that allows passage of nerves and blood vessels?

A. Supraorbital foramen
B. Infraorbital foramen
C. Superciliary arch
D. Glabella

A

Answer: A. Supraorbital foramen

75
Q

Which feature marks the lateral surface of the parietal bone and serves as an attachment point for the temporalis muscle?

A. Temporal line
B. Sagittal suture
C. Parietal foramen
D. Superior nuchal line

A

Answer: A. Temporal line

75
Q

Which suture connects the two parietal bones at the top of the skull?

A. Lambdoid suture
B. Coronal suture
C. Sagittal suture
D. Squamous suture

A

Answer: C. Sagittal suture

75
Q

What is the smooth area between the eyebrows on the frontal bone called?

A. Superciliary arch
B. Supraorbital margin
C. Glabella
D. Frontal squama

A

C. Glabella

75
Q

Which part of the frontal bone articulates with the nasal bones?

A. Frontal crest
B. Nasal notch
C. Zygomatic process
D. Temporal line

A

Answer: B. Nasal notch

76
Q

Which feature of the parietal bone allows passage of emissary veins to connect with the superior sagittal sinus?

A. Parietal foramen
B. Temporal line
C. Superior temporal ridge
D. External occipital protuberance

A

Answer: A. Parietal foramen

76
Q

Which part of the occipital bone surrounds the foramen magnum and provides articulation with the cervical vertebra?

A. Squamous part
B. Basilar part
C. Occipital condyles
D. External occipital protuberance

A

Answer: C. Occipital condyles

76
Q

Which process of the temporal bone forms part of the zygomatic arch?

A. Styloid process
B. Mastoid process
C. Zygomatic process
D. Temporal squama

A

Answer: C. Zygomatic process

76
Q

Which canal in the occipital bone transmits the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)?

A. Jugular foramen
B. Hypoglossal canal
C. Foramen magnum
D. Condylar canal

A

Answer: B. Hypoglossal canal

76
Q

The mastoid process is an important feature of the temporal bone. What is its primary function?

A. Transmission of sound waves
B. Attachment of neck muscles
C. Passage of the facial nerve
D. Formation of the temporomandibular joint

A

Answer: B. Attachment of neck muscles

76
Q

The external occipital protuberance is a prominent feature on the occipital bone. What is its function?

A. Articulates with the atlas
B. Passage of blood vessels
C. Muscle attachment
D. Supports the occipital lobe

A

Answer: C. Muscle attachment

77
Q

Which part of the occipital bone is involved in the formation of the clivus and articulates with the sphenoid bone?

A. Squamous part
B. Basilar part
C. Lateral part
D. Condylar part

A

Answer: B. Basilar part

77
Q

hich canal in the temporal bone houses the internal carotid artery?

A. Carotid canal
B. External acoustic meatus
C. Stylomastoid foramen
D. Jugular foramen

A

Answer: A. Carotid canal

78
Q

What structure is located on the inferior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone and transmits the facial nerve (CN VII)?

A. Stylomastoid foramen
B. Jugular foramen
C. Internal acoustic meatus
D. Foramen lacerum

A

Answer: A. Stylomastoid foramen

78
Q

Which structure of the sphenoid bone houses the pituitary gland?

A. Pterygoid process
B. Sella turcica
C. Lesser wings
D. Greater wings

A

Answer: B. Sella turcica

79
Q

What is the purpose of the superior and middle nasal conchae in the ethmoid bone?

A. Provide support for the optic canal
B. Help in warming, moistening, and filtering air
C. Serve as an attachment for muscles
D. Form the lateral walls of the orbit

A

B. Help in warming, moistening, and filtering air

80
Q

What is the name of the downward projection of the sphenoid bone that provides attachment for the pterygoid muscles?

A. Pterygoid process
B. Medial pterygoid plate
C. Lateral pterygoid plate
D. Greater wings

A
81
Q

bending

A
82
Q

straightening

A
83
Q

movement away from the midline

A

abduction

84
Q

movement toward the midline

A

abduction

85
Q

rotation of the forearm with palms down

A

pronation

86
Q

rotation of the forearm with palms up

A

supination

87
Q

movement of a structure about the long axis

A

rotation

88
Q

is an abnormal lateral curvature of the thoracic spine

A

scoliosis

89
Q

a spinal disorder with an excessive outward curve of the spine

A

kyphosis

90
Q

an exaggerated lumbar curve, is often seen in pregnancy or obesity

A

lordosis

91
Q

thigh

A

femur

91
Q

knee cap

A

patella

91
Q

non movable joint

A

synarthrosis

92
Q

freely movable joints

A

diarthrosis

92
Q

slightly movable joint

A

amphiarthrosis

93
Q

large lower leg

A

tibia

94
Q

small lower lag

A

fibula

95
Q

ankle

A

tarsals

96
Q

foot

A

metatarsals

96
Q

forearm

A

ulna, radius

96
Q

toes and fingers

A

phalanges

96
Q

upper limb

A

humerus

97
Q

wrist

A

carpals

98
Q

hand

A

metacarpals

99
Q

directly attached to the sternum

A

true ribs

100
Q

indirectly attached to the sternum by cartilage

A

false ribs

101
Q

the only bone that does not articulate with another bone

A

hyoid bone

102
Q

upper jaw

A

maxilla

103
Q

lower jaw

A

mandible

104
Q

cheek bone

A

zygomatic

105
Q

roof of mouth

A

hard palate

106
Q

hole where spinal cord joins brainstem

A

foramen magnum

107
Q

attachment site for tongue

A

styloid process

108
Q

depression where lower jaw and skull meet

A

mandibular fossa

109
Q

where humerus meets scapula

A

glenoid fossa

110
Q

bone is crushed

A

compression

110
Q

bone breaks into many fragments

A

comminuted

111
Q

broken bone portion is pressed inward

A

depressed

111
Q

ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to the bone

A

spiral

111
Q

bone breaks incompletely

A

greenstick

112
Q

broken bone ends where are forced into each other

A

impacted