6, 9, 10, 14 exam MULTIPLE choice Flashcards

1
Q

1.What is the result of microbial growth
A. Increase in cell size
B. Discrete colony formation
C. Production of ATP
D. Death of cell

A

B

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2
Q

6-What is the function of nitrogen fixation in bacteria
A. Breaking down proteins
B. Synthesizing nitrogenous bases
C. Converting nitrogen gas into usable forms
D. Releasing nitrogen gas into the atmosphere

A

C

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2
Q

2.which element is NOT commonly required by microbes for growth?
A Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Mercury

A

D

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2
Q
  1. Autotrophs acquire carbon from:
    A. Organic compounds
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. Nitrogen sources
    D. Hydrogen molecules
A

B

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2
Q
  1. Why is oxygen deadly for obligate anaerobes?
    A. It is required for their metabolism.
    B. It causes oxidative damage to cells.
    C. it inhibils ATP production.
    D. It blocks nutrient absorption.
A

B

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3
Q
  1. Which type of microorganism uses light as anenergy source?
    A. Chemotrophs
    B. Phototrophs
    C. Organatrophs
    D. Lithotrophs
A

B

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4
Q

7.Which of the following is an organic growth factor?
A. Phosphorus
B. Sulfur
C. Vitamin B 12
D. Hydrogen peroxide

A

C

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5
Q
  1. What happens to microbial cell membranes at very high temperatures?
    A. They become rigid and fragile.
    B. They dissolve completely.
    C. They become too fluid.
    D. They grow thicker.
A

C

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6
Q
  1. Acidophiles thrive in:
    A. Neutral pH environments
    B. Alkaline conditions
    C. Acidic conditions
    D. High-pressure environments
A

C

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7
Q
  1. Organisms that live in environments with high salt concentrations are called:
    A. Psychrophiles
    B. Halophiles
    C. Mesophiles
    D. Acidophiles
A

c

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8
Q
  1. What relationship describes microorganisms working together for mutual benefit?
    A. Antagonistic
    B. Synergistic
    C. Symbiotic
    D. Parasitic
A

B

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9
Q
  1. What structure forms as a result of quorum sensing in bacteria?
    A. Endospore
    B. Biofilm
    C. Colony-forming unit
    D. Cyst
A

B

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10
Q
  1. Which culture medium is designed to suppress unwanted microbes while encouraging desired ones?
    A. Defined medium
    B. Selective medium
    C. Differential medium
    D. Transport medium
A

B

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11
Q
  1. What is the purpose of aseptic techniques?
    A. To preserve microbial DNA
    B. To prevent contamination
    C. To enhance microbial growth
    D. To isolate large microbes
A

B

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12
Q
  1. Which method is used to isolate single colonies on solid media
    A. Pour plate method
    B. Streak plate method
    C. Serial dilution
    D. Membrane filtration
A

B

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13
Q
  1. At which phase of the bacterial growth curve is the population size constant?
    A. Lag phase
    B. Log phase
    C. Stationary phase
    D. Death phase
A

C

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14
Q
  1. How does a chemostat maintain a microbial population?
    A. By continuously adding fresh medium and removing old medium
    B. By exposing microbes to high-pressure environments
    C. By isolating individual cells
    D. By limiting nutrient availability
A

A

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15
Q
  1. What The purpose of turbidity measurements in microbiology?
    A. To measure metabolic activity
    B. To estimate population size Indirectly
    C. To count bacterial colonies
    D. To isolate pure cultures
16
Q
  1. What is the main difference between defined and complex media?
    A. Defined media use only organic compounds.
    B. Complex media contain ingredients of unknown composition.
    C. Defined media require selective growth factors.
    D. Complex media inhibit bacterial growth.
17
Q
  1. All are correct pairing among the types of symbiosis, EXCEPT
    A. Mutualism-Bacteria in human colon
    B. Commensalism- mites in human hair
    C. Parasitism- fungus inhibiting nearby bacteria
    D. Amensalism- TB bacteria in human lung
    E. None of the Above
18
Q
  1. The following resident microbiota is present in both male and female reproductive system, EXCEPT
    A. Bacteroides
    B. Lactobacillus
    C. StaphylocoCCUS
    D. Clostridium
    E. StreptocoCCUS
19
Q

Conditions that create opportunities for pathogens Include the following, EXCEPT
A. Introduction of a member of the normal microbiota into an unusual site in the body
B. Immune suppression
C. Changes in the normal microbiota
D. Stressful conditions
E. None of the Above

20
Q
  1. To prove that a given Infectious agent causes a given disease, a scientist must satisfy all of Koch’s postulates, EXCEPT
    A. The suspected agent (bacterium, virus, etc.) must be present in every case of the disease.
    B. That agent must be isolated and grown in blood culture.
    C. The culture agent must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible experimental host.erimental host
    D. The same agent should be found in the diseased experimental host.
20
Q
  1. A type of reservoir of infection where it can harbor species of Clostridium bacteria, which cause botulism, tetanus, and other diseases.
    A. Human carriers
    B. Nonliving reservoirs
    C. Animal reservoirs
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above
20
Q
  1. means any change from a state of health
    A. Morbidity
    B. Disease
    C. Toxemia
    D. Virulence
20
Q
  1. The following are pathogens that cross the placental barrier, EXCEPT
    A. Toxoplasma gondii
    B. Treponema pallidum
    C. Cytomegalovirus
    D. Hantavirus
    E. Lentivirus
21
Q
  1. This stage of infectious disease where there is a short time of generalized, mild symptoms (such as malaise and muscle aches) that precede lliness. and not all infectious disease has this stage.
    A. Incubation period
    B. Prodromal period
    C. Illness
    D. Decline
    E. Convalescence
22
Q
  1. The following are modes of infectious disease fransmission, EXCEPT
    A. Portal transmission
    B. Contact transmission
    C. Vehicle transmission
    D. Vector
23
Q

. All are the or transmiting for vehicle transmission. EXCEPT
A. Airborne transmission-AIDS
B. Waterborne transmission-tuberculosis
C. Foodborne transmission cholera
D. Bodily fluid transmission-hepatitis A
E. All of the above

24
Q
  1. The following are biological vectors for selected arthropod vectors, EXCEPT
    A. Houseflies
    B. Mosquitoes
    C. Bloodsucking flies
    D. Mites
    E. Fleas
25
Q
  1. The following are examples of direct contact transmission, EXCEPT
    A. Handwashing
    B. Punctures
    C. Bites
    D. Kissing
    E. Sexual intercourse
25
Q
  1. An approach used by epidemiologists to study in population and is often retrospective; attempt to identify causation and mode of transmission after an outbreak has occurred.

A. Descriptive epidemiology
B. Analytical epidemiology
C. Experimental epidemiology
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

25
Q
  1. Disease that is transmitted from one host to another
    A. Latent disease
    B. Communicable disease
    C. Contagious disease
    D. Noncommunicable disease
    E. Chronic disease
25
Q
  1. The number of new cases of a disease in a given area or population during a given period of time
    A. Incidence
    B. Prevalence
    C. Endemic
    D. Sporadic
    E. Index case
26
Q

36.A type of healthcare associated infection that ironically are the direct result of modern medical procedures such as the use of catheters, surgery. and Invasive diagnostic procedures.
A. Exogenous HAIS
B. latrogenic HAls
C. Endogenous Hals
D. All of the above
E None of the above

27
Q
  1. The Interplay of factors that result in healthcare-associated infections (HAIs), EXCEPT
    A. Presence of microorganism in hospital environment
    B. Immunocompromised patients
    C. Transmission of pathogens between staff and patients and among patients
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above
28
Q
  1. 85 -year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with a fever and a painful swelling in her right armpit. She was initially diagnosed with an abscess, but a blood culture later identified the plague. The causative agent for this bacterial disease, Bubonic plague, is

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Yersinia pestis
D. Salmonella spp
E. None of the above

29
Q
  1. The animal reservoir is____
    A. Dogs
    B. Rodents
    C. Cats
    D. Domesticated livestock
    E. Deer
30
Q
  1. The mode of transmission for this case is due to the_____
    A. Direct contact with infected animals
    B. Inhalation
    C. Flea bites
    D. Tick biles
    E. Ingestion of fecally contaminated water or food
31
Q
  1. Philmar, a previously healthy 55-year-old man with to She Emergency Department (ED) of a hospital in South Florida due to cyclic fever for 7 days. The patient’s family reported mental status changes since symptom onsert the patient had returned from a 10-day onse to Ghana 18 days prior to admission. What is the probable diagnosis?
    A. Anthrax
    B. Toxoplasmosis X
    C. Malaria
    D. Yellow fever
    E. Lyme disease
32
Q
  1. What is the causative agent
    A. Toxoplasma gondii
    B. Plasmodium spp.
    C. Flavivirus sp.
    D. Borrelia burgdorferi
    E. Bacillus anthracis
33
Q
  1. The animal reservoir
    A. Domestic livestock
    B. Monkeys
    C. Deer
    D. Cats and other animals
    E. Rodents
34
Q
  1. What is the mode of Transmission
    A. Bite of Anopheles mosquito
    B. Ingestion of contaminated meat
    C. Direct contact
    D. Bite of infected animal
    E. Tick bites
35
Q
  1. viral infection that has the same animal reservoir and mode of transmission for this case
    A: Anthrax
    B. Toxoplasmosis
    C. Malaria
    D. Yellow fever
    E. Lyme disease