SHB Category: I, Diseases Flashcards

Pages 295-381 LEFT OFF PAGE 326

1
Q

What is acute abdominal pain characterized by restlessness?

A

Colic

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2
Q

What is the term for a defect in form or function that interferes with the usefulness of the horse?

A

Unsoundness

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3
Q

What does the Coggins test determine?

A

If the horse is a carrier of equine infectious anemia (swamp fever)

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4
Q

Stringhalt is most easily detected by what simple test?

A

Backing or sharply turning the horse

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5
Q

What condition is a general term used to describe a variety of digestive disorders?

A

Colic

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6
Q

What is the general term that indicates abdominal pain in horses?

A

Colic

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7
Q

What is the most noticeable symptom of strangles?

A

Swelling of the lymph nodes

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8
Q

What term means to give an animal (usually by injection) protection or immunity from a specific disease?

A

Vaccinate

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9
Q

What is more critical: Heat exhaustion or heat stroke?

A

Heat stroke

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10
Q

What condition is caused by an anaerobic organism that causes necrosis of the tissue of the frog and a foul, blackish discharge?

A

Thrush

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11
Q

What is colic?

A

General term indicating abdominal pain

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12
Q

What is the general term indicating abdominal pain?

A

Colic

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13
Q

Heaves are caused by the inability to do what during the respiratory process?

A

Exhale or move air out of the lungs

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14
Q

What is another term for founder?

A

Laminitis

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15
Q

What do the letters EVR stand for?

A

Equine viral rhinopneumonitis

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16
Q

What is another name for lockjaw?

A

Tetanus

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17
Q

What term refers to defects in form or function that interfere with the usefulness of the horse?

A

Unsoundness

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18
Q

What is the most common medical emergency in horses?

A

Colic

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19
Q

What part of the horse becomes inflamed when founder attacks?

A

Laminae

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20
Q

What is an acquired physical defect that does not interfere with the usefulness of the horse but may diminish its value?

A

Blemish

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21
Q

Prolapse of the third eyelid is a characteristic of what equine disease?

A

Tetanus

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22
Q

Name the condition that is the most common cause of acute pain in the horse’s abdomen.

A

Colic

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23
Q

What is a split in the quarter area of the hoof wall?

A

Quarter crack

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24
Q

What term is not a disease in itself but is clinical signs and symptoms of abdominal pain?

A

Colic

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25
Q

Name 4 of the internal parts of the horse that are affected and damaged by the EIA virus.

A

Kidneys, liver, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, brain

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26
Q

Describe 6 symptoms of a horse in shock.

A

Apathy, prostration, rapid breathing, cool skin, low/falling blood pressure, subnormal temperature, sweating, rapid-shallow pulse, pale or blue mucous membranes

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27
Q

In reference to wound care, name 4 purposes of a bandage.

A

Immobilize wound to aid healing, keep wound clean, protect from infection, keep medicine on/in wound, protect from further trauma, reduce swelling, control hemorrhage

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28
Q

What is the more common term for borreliosis?

A

Lyme disease

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29
Q

What virus causes rhinopneumonitis?

A

Herpes

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30
Q

WHat type of colic is a blockage of the internal tract with normal ingesta or with foreign material?

A

Impaction colic

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31
Q

Where do most snakebites occur on horses and why?

A

On their heads because they are so curious

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32
Q

What is the visual symptom of exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage?

A

Epistaxis

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33
Q

What is a lower respiratory infection located in the bronchi?

A

Bronchitis

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34
Q

Which teeth are most commonly infected?

A

Premolars and first molars

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35
Q

Name the organ in the horse’s body that is affected by heaves.

A

Lungs

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36
Q

What genetic disease results from a failure to produce blood clotting factor causing bleeding into joints and the development of hematomas?

A

Hemophilia A

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37
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

Proportion of animals exposed to a virus that will develop the disease

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38
Q

What is a chronic, purulent, deep-seated inflammatory swelling of the lateral cartilage?

A

Quittor

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39
Q

What type of colic is caused by a loop intestine becoming entrapped within a normal or abnormal structure within the abdominal cavity?

A

Incarceration colic

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40
Q

Which genetic disease results from a failure to form certain types of nerves in the intestinal tract causing foals to die of colic within several days after birth?

A

Lethal white foal syndrome

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41
Q

What type of Equine Encephalomyelitis has the lowest mortality rate?

A

Western

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42
Q

What is grating movement such as would occur in broken bones?

A

Crepitation

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43
Q

Which viral respiratory disease in horses can also cause abortion?

A

Equine viral rhinopneumonitis

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44
Q

What term describes accumulation of fluid within compartments of the brain, resulting in crushing of normal brain tissue?

A

Hydrocephalus

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45
Q

What are the 2 types of equid herpes virus associated with rhinopneumonitis?

A

Equid herpes virus 1 and 4

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46
Q

What term describes openings in the body wall at the naval that does not close normally, resulting in the presence of a sack into which intestines may fall?

A

Umbilical hemia

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47
Q

In bleeders, where does the blood originate?

A

Lungs

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48
Q

What is the scientific name for overheating?

A

Hyperthermia

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49
Q

What piece of equipment is used in preventing capped elbow?

A

Doughnut

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50
Q

What are 2 abnormalities of the jawbone?

A

Parrot mouth (overshot jaw) and Monkey mouth (undershot jaw)

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51
Q

What is the normal capillary refill time?

A

2 seconds or less

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52
Q

What type of colic is similar to simple indigestion in people?

A

Spasmodic colic

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53
Q

WHat is the most common cause of abdominal pain?

A

Parasite obstruction

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54
Q

During what time of the year do most cases of Potomac Horse Fever occur?

A

Summer (July, August, and early September)

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55
Q

What is the most common example of incarceration colic?

A

Strangulating hernia

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56
Q

Name 2 causes of a shoe boil.

A

Injury from heel calk and injury from contact with the floor

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57
Q

What is usually the mildest and most common type of colic?

A

Spasmodic colic (Although it can be severe)

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58
Q

What term describes an inflammation of bone?

A

Osteitis

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59
Q

What is the cause of the most complicated and life threatening form of colic?

A

Ingestion of excessive grains which distends the stomach

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60
Q

What is a degenerative condition of the frog?

A

Thrush

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61
Q

What term describes a cloudiness of the lens of the eye resulting in blindness?

A

Cataracts

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62
Q

What condition is a dysfunction or partial paralysis of the larynx such that it does not open completely when the horse inspires?

A

Laryngeal hemiplegia (roaring)

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63
Q

What is the most common term for metastatic abscessation, which occurs in the lungs, mesentery, liver, spleen, and kidneys and is a complication of strangles?

A

Bastard strangles

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64
Q

What disease is caused by a virus closely related to the human immunodeficiency virus and is characterized by fever, anemia, jaundice, depression, edema, and chronic weight loss?

A

EIA (equine infectious anemia)

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65
Q

What is another name for lyme disease in horses?

A

Borreliosis

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66
Q

What is a condition that affects some of the offspring produced by mating 2 overo paint horses?

A

Lethal white foal syndrome

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67
Q

WHy shouldn’t a collicky horse that is having trouble urinating be given a diuretic?

A

Could cause dehydration

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68
Q

Heaves develop gradually and the clinical signs are most commonly seen in horses of what ages?

A

5 years and older

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69
Q

WHat is the only breed to have CID (Combined immunodeficiency)

A

Arabians

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70
Q

What term is used to grade the severity of lameness in horses?

A

Obel grade

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71
Q

What is another name for hives?

A

Uticaria

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72
Q

A pounding digital pulse, warm feet, ‘camped in front’ stance and an abnormal gait are all signs of what problem?

A

Founder (laminitis)

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73
Q

What are the 2 distinct types of equine influenza A viruses?

A

A Equine 1 and A Equine 2

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74
Q

WHat term describes a disturbance in the circulation and bond of sensitive laminae to the hoof and is usually caused by gastrointestinal disturbances?

A

Laminitis (Founder)

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75
Q

What is a protrusion of a piece of the intestines into the scrotum?

A

Scrotal hernia

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76
Q

WHat are radiographs?

A

X-rays

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77
Q

What is inflammation of structures of a joint?

A

Arthritis

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78
Q

WHen you are taking the vital signs of a horse, what does TRP refer to?

A

Temperature, pulse, and respiration

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79
Q

What is dourine?

A

Venereal disease of the horse

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80
Q

WHat is an acute and progressive failure of the peripheral circulation to the outer limbs of the body?

A

Shock

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81
Q

WHat is a dynamic process in which the body responds to a sublethal injury by trying to destroy, dilute, or wall of an irritation agent?

A

Inflammation

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82
Q

What are the white spots called that occur in the inner surface of the external ear?

A

Aural placques

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83
Q

In what breed is Equine Night Blindness most predominant?

A

Appaloosa

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84
Q

What is the disease of Quarter horses that is characterized by intermittent attacks of muscle weakness, disorientation, tremors, and convulsion?

A

HYPP (Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis)

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85
Q

A skin pinch test and capillary refill time of 10 seconds is an indication of what problem?

A

Dehydration

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86
Q

What happens when the lacrimal duct is plugged?

A

Tears from the horse’s eye pour onto the face

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87
Q

What condition can be alleviated by resting the animal, providing fresh air, and eliminating dust?

A

Heaves (COPD)

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88
Q

What breed is usually affected by Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis?

A

Quarter horse

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89
Q

What term describes a disease of a muscle?

A

Myopathy

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90
Q

Which one of the 2 bones of the forearm is most likely to break?

A

Ulna

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91
Q

What is the test used to detect equine infectious anemia?

A

Coggins

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92
Q

What is unusually high levels of fat in the blood?

A

Hyperlipemia

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93
Q

What are the 2 types of laminitis?

A

Acute and chronic

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94
Q

Which condition is similar to a severe blood blister under a human fingernail?

A

Laminitis

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95
Q

What deformity is an accumulation of fluids in the brain resulting in the crushing of the brain tissue?

A

Hydrocephalus

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96
Q

What genetic disorder is a cloudiness of the lens of the eye, resulting in blindness?

A

Cataracts

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97
Q

Name the most severe and the least severe diseases affecting the hoof.

A

Least severe-thrush

Most severe-Laminitis

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98
Q

WHere on the body to papillomas usually occur?

A

Nose and lips

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99
Q

What is an infectious disease of the nervous system caused by the toxin clostridium tetani?

A

Tetanus

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100
Q

What is another name for blind staggers?

A

Selenium poisoning

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101
Q

What is a pus pocket or an infection of the sensitive structures of the foot?

A

Abscess

102
Q

What is a specific type of sole bruises in the heel area of the foot>

A

Corns

103
Q

What does EVA stand for?

A

Equine Viral Arteritis

104
Q

What causes a dropped sole?

A

Downward rotation of the coffin bone

105
Q

What does DOD stand for?

A

Developmental Orthopedic Disease

106
Q

What is a destruction of the frog by anaerobic bacteria and usually has a foul smell and black discharge?

A

Thrush

107
Q

Incised wounds, lacerations, tears, punctures, penetrating wounds, and abrasions can all be classified as what?

A

Open wounds

108
Q

What are the 2 types of poultices, and when do you use them?

A

Hot poultice-either to increase blood supply, draw out an infection, or encourage an abscess to open.
Cold poultice-decrease inflammation

109
Q

What does the bacteria, Streptococcus Equi, cause?

A

Strangles (distemper)

110
Q

What problem is compared to nail or bone bruises in humans?

A

Sole bruises

111
Q

What disease is often compared to athletes foot in humans?

A

Thrush

112
Q

What is another name for a tumor?

A

Neoplasm

113
Q

Melanomas are most common in horses of what color?

A

Gray, by age 15 almost all gray horses have a melanoma

114
Q

A skin pliability test is used to check for what?

A

Dehydration

115
Q

What is another name for ringworm?

A

Girth itch

116
Q

WHat is another name for heaves?

A

Chronic alveolar emphysema

117
Q

What term describes a failure to produce blood clotting factor, bleeding into joints, and the development of hematomas?

A

Hemophilia A

118
Q

WHat term describes the defect in movement of sodium and potassium in and out of muscle, causing the animal to have intermittent attacks of muscle weakness, tremors, and collapse?

A

HYPP (Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis)

119
Q

How long can a horse be infected with EIA or swamp fever?

A

Rest of its life

120
Q

Name the horse disease that can be detected in seemingly healthy horses by giving them a coggins test.

A

Equine Infectious Anemia

121
Q

Wat is the laboratory blood test for the presence of antibodies against the Equine Infectious Anemia virus?

A

Coggins test

122
Q

HYPP is a genetic disease of the Quarter horse in which there is a defect prohibiting what 2 things from moving in and out of the muscles correctly?

A

Sodium and potassium

123
Q

What disorder is considered to be a wound disease?

A

Tetanus

124
Q

What term describes a preventative injection of bacteria or viruses that have been modified or inactivated to protect the horse against certain diseases?

A

Vaccination

125
Q

What is the condition where the frog is narrow and shrunken and the heels of the foot are pulled together?

A

Contracted heels

126
Q

Give 2 examples of why you would use a hot poultice.

A

To increase blood supply to an injured area, to draw out infection from an abscess or puncture wound

127
Q

In which condition does cerebrospinal fluid accumulate, causing the foal’s head to enlarge before birth?

A

Hydrocephalus

128
Q

Name the most common lameness in horses.

A

Laminitis (founder)

129
Q

Name the disease caused by streptococcus equi.

A

Strangles (distemper)

130
Q

Name the genetic disease of foals caused by a deficiency of B and T lymphocytes.

A

Combined immunodeficiency syndrome

131
Q

Where is the inflammation when a horse has pleurisy?

A

In the membranes surrounding the lungs

132
Q

What is the term fro the examination performed on sale horses by the buyer’s veterinarian prior to the sale’s final approval?

A

Pre-purchase exam

133
Q

Describe a thoroughpin.

A

Soft, fluid filled enlargement in the hollow on the outside of the hock. It can be pushed freely from the outside to the inside.

134
Q

The salivary glands can become the site for an acute contagious bacterial infection called what?

A

Strangles (distemper)

135
Q

What is an enlarged dorsal swelling of the tarsocrural joint capsule?

A

Bog spavin

136
Q

What is the swelling of the subcutaneous bursa over the calcaneal tuber caused by repeated blows such as those from kicks against a trailer tailgate?

A

Capped hocks

137
Q

What causes Potomac Horse Fever?

A

Rickettsia Ehrlichia

138
Q

Name 2 of the most common problems concerning a newborn foal’s bowel movements.

A

Constipation and diarrhea.

139
Q

Horses that are shown or mixed with other horses during the year should be given at least what 5 vaccinations?

A

Eastern and Western encephalomyelitis, tetanus, influenza, rhinopneumonitis, potomac horse fever

140
Q

Septicemia in the foal is often caused by bacteria entering the blood stream. What is the common route of the infection?

A

Umbilical cord

141
Q

What is enteritis?

A

Inflammation of the intestines

142
Q

If a veterinarian said that your horse has scratches, what area would be affected?

A

Fetlock and/or heel area

143
Q

Tetanus is caused by what bacteria?

A

Clostridium tetani

144
Q

Equine encephalomyelitis is caused by what insect?

A

Mosquito

145
Q

Strangles usually affects a horse between what ages?

A

1-5 years

146
Q

What is a venereal disease that is characterized by pus or fluid coming from the uterus?

A

Contagious equine metritis

147
Q

What is excessive breathing noise during exercise caused by upper airway obstruction?

A

Roaring

148
Q

What is the most common vector for transmission of equine encephalomyelitis?

A

Mosquitos

149
Q

What problem would be suspected if your horse’s back cannon area was sore to the touch, hot, swelling, and had a tendency to flex in the knee in order to raise the heel and relieve pressure?

A

Bowed tendon

150
Q

What is the term used when EVR (equine rhinopneumonitis) causes a high percentage of mares on one farm to abort?

A

Abortion storm

151
Q

Name the bacterial disease that may cause abscessed lymph nodes under the lower jaw and in the throatlatch region.

A

Strangles (distemper)

152
Q

What is the destruction of the frog by anaerobic bacteria called?

A

Thrush

153
Q

Selenium deficiency can cause muscles to become very pale in young foals. This disease is called what?

A

White muscle disease (muscular dystrophy)

154
Q

Which type of colic is considered to be the mildest and most common?

A

Spasmodic

155
Q

What is another term for grease heel?

A

Scratches

156
Q

Where would you find osselets?

A

Fetlock joint

157
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

Slower than normal heart beat

158
Q

What is an acute upper respiratory tract infection caused by a specific herpes virus that may cause abortions and all ages of horses are susceptible?

A

Equine Viral Arteritis

159
Q

How do horses get rabies?

A

Bitten by infected rabid wildlife

160
Q

What is an inflammation of the distal intertarsal, tarsometatarsal, and sometimes the proximal intertarsal joints and the surrounding bone, resulting in excess bone formation?

A

Bone spavin

161
Q

Classifications of ringbone depend on the location of the new bone growth. What are the 2 classifications?

A

High and low

162
Q

Any injury to the navicular bone of the front foot is called what?

A

Navicular disease

163
Q

What is an incomplete development of an organ so that it fails to reach adult size?

A

Hypoplasia

164
Q

What condition is characterized by sudden, brief attacks of sleep?

A

Narcolepsy

165
Q

What is a bone enlargement or destruction to the inner surface of the hock?

A

Bone spavin

166
Q

What disorder results from an infection by Sarcocystis neurona or Neospora hughesi protozoa that causes inflammation of the brain and spinal cord and can be traced to the opossum?

A

Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)

167
Q

What do the initials, NSAID stand for?

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

168
Q

When referring to the process of a disease, what does ‘acute’ mean?

A

Symptoms appear quite suddenly

169
Q

What is the trade-name for flunixin meglumine?

A

Banamine

170
Q

A horse with chronic founder may not show pain, but how will it move?

A

In a heel to toe step

171
Q

If your horse gets cut on a sharp metal object, what type of wound would this most likely be?

A

Incision

172
Q

Name the breed that is most affected by CIDS.

A

Arabian

173
Q

What is an inflammation of the epiphyseal cartilage plate of the long bones?

A

Epiphysitis

174
Q

What is an atrophy of the muscles in the shoulder due to paralysis of the suprascapular nerve?

A

Sweeney

175
Q

What is the technical term for heaves?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

176
Q

What problem can cause a horse to shorten his stride, go up on his toes, have increased tendency to stumble, and results from any injury to the distal sesamoid bones?

A

Navicular disease

177
Q

What is ‘Big Head’ disease caused by?

A

Excessive phosphorous and low levels of calcium

178
Q

Name the unsoundness that is manifested by a chronic, purulent, inflammatory swelling of the lateral cartilage resulting in sub-coronary abscesses.

A

Quittor

179
Q

What is an artificially produced drug which is similar to the natural hormone that controls inflammation?

A

Steroid

180
Q

What is any inflammation of the periosteum?

A

Periostitis

181
Q

What is any inflammation or swelling of the soft tissue of the hock?

A

Bog spavin

182
Q

Name a disease of the horse’s foot, characterized by a putrid dark or black discharge.

A

Thrush

183
Q

How is the rabies virus transmitted to humans and horses?

A

Through the saliva when bitten by an infected animal

184
Q

What is the progressive degeneration of the navicular bone?

A

Navicular disease

185
Q

What ligament attaches to the back of the cannon bone just below the knee, travels downward, and splits above the sesamoid bones with each part connecting to a sesamoid bone?

A

Suspensory ligament

186
Q

Name the organ whose disorder causes a jaundice appearance.

A

Liver

187
Q

What is a blood disorder caused when toxic oxidants, such as those contained in onions or red maple leaves, damage the body’s red blood cells, producing microscopic round granules known as Heinz bodies?

A

Heinz body anemia

188
Q

What is bleeding into the angle of the sole of the hoof or adjacent white line in response to chronic pressure or shearing force?

A

Corn

189
Q

What is another name for popped knee?

A

Carpitis

190
Q

What is any agent that increases urine production?

A

Diuretic

191
Q

What is a diagnostic test that involves draining fluid from the abdominal area using a hypodermic needle?

A

Belly tap

192
Q

What is usually fatal food poisoning from contaminated feed or water characterized by paralysis that begins with the muscles of swallowing?

A

Botulism

193
Q

What is high frequency sound waves used to break down unwanted tissue and promote healing by stimulating circulation and aid in accurate diagnosis?

A

Ultrasound

194
Q

What is a type of antibody found in blood, colostrum, and most secretions and is an important part of the body’s immune mechanism?

A

Immunoglobulin

195
Q

What is a shortage of red blood cells, commonly caused by excessive bleeding, infection, dietary deficiency, or presence of toxins in the body?

A

Anemia

196
Q

What is a flexible tube inserted into a body opening to remove or administer fluids?

A

Catheter

197
Q

What is Xylazine used for?

A

Sedative/analgesic widely used to calm horses

198
Q

What is a defect in form or function that interferes with the usefulness of a horse?

A

Unsoundness

199
Q

Where is septicemia frequently located?

A

In the joints

200
Q

What term describes an inflammation of the stifle joint?

A

Goritis

201
Q

Sidebones are more common in what type of horses?

A

Draft breeds

202
Q

Side bones are more common in horses that have what conformation defects?

A

Toe in or out

203
Q

A deficiency of what 2 lymphocytes has been found in some Arabian foals and causes death from Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome?

A

B and T Lymphocytes

204
Q

In what area of the horse wold goritis occur?

A

Stifle

205
Q

What is the condition called when the lower jaw is shorter than the upper jaw?

A

Parrot mouth or overshot jaw

206
Q

What is the more common term for laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

Roaring

207
Q

What is epiphysitis?

A

Inflammation of the epiphyseal cartilage plate (growth plates) of the long bones

208
Q

What is another name for foal septicemia?

A

Naval ill

209
Q

What is the usual cause of Sweeney?

A

Usually caused by a direct injury to the point of shoulder & subsequent damage to the nerve

210
Q

What is a heredity defect in the clotting mechanism of the blood called?

A

Hemophilia

211
Q

What is a partial or complete esophageal obstruction?

A

Choke

212
Q

What is another term for nosebleed?

A

Epistaxis

213
Q

Inadequate amounts of iron in the diet can result in which condition?

A

Anemia

214
Q

What does the suffix “oma” refer to?

A

Tumor or neoplasm

215
Q

What is a therapeutic shoe in which the heels are joined by a bar, allowing greater pressure on the bar & frog of the foot?

A

Bar shoe

216
Q

Equine viral rhinopneumonitis (EVR) is caused by what type of virus?

A

Herpes virus

217
Q

Swelling under the skin caused by leakage of blood from damaged vessels are called what?

A

Hematoma

218
Q

What 3 vaccines should you give performance horses annually?

A

Tetanus, encephalomyelitis & rabies

219
Q

What type of wound has clean straight edges & often bleeds quite freely?

A

Incised wound (Incision)

220
Q

Name 2 types of wounds that have torn rather than cut edges, may be irregular in shape & may have some associated bruising.

A

Laceration & tears

221
Q

What is thrush compared to in humans?

A

Athlete’s foot

222
Q

What type of wound is characterized by a small skin opening with soft-tissue penetration to a variable depth?

A

Puncture wound

223
Q

What type of wound enters into one of the body cavities, such as the thorax or abdomen, are
very serious & may or may not injure internal organs?

A

Penetrating wound

224
Q

What type of wound is a very superficial skin wound resulting from rubbing or scraping
against an irritant surface?

A

Abrasion

225
Q

In treating a wound, what is the first step to be taken?

A

Stop the bleeding

226
Q

What type of wound is characterized by swelling, heat & pain at the site of injury &
discolorations of the overlying skin?

A

Contusion

227
Q

What does COPD stand for?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

228
Q

A horse suffering from acute laminitis will have a pounding pulse, where can this be felt?

A

Over the fetlock joint in the digital artery

229
Q

What is the name given to pain in the area of the navicular bone & may involve inflammation
of the navicular bursa, ligament sprains, cartilage or tendon destruction & bone changes?

A

Navicular disease

230
Q

What is a disturbance in the circulation & bond of the sensitive laminae of the bone to the
horny laminae of the hoof?

A

Founder or laminitis

231
Q

If a horse becomes ill with a potentially contagious disease, it should be promptly isolated
from the remainder of the herd for how long?

A

At least 10 days beyond complete recovery

232
Q

What disease is caused by a spore-forming, toxin-producing bacterium which is present in
the intestinal tract & feces of humans, horses & other animals & is abundant in the soil on all horse facilities?

A

Tetanus

233
Q

What is an infrequently encountered neurologic disease of horses which results when horses
are bitten by infected wildlife?

A

Rabies

234
Q

Where on the horse are most bites located that are caused by rabid animals?

A

Muzzle, face & lower legs

235
Q

Potomac Horse Fever is a seasonal disease, with most cases occurring in which months of
the year?

A

July, August & September

236
Q

The ‘golden period’ for the elapsed time from injury to closure by suturing is generally
considered to be how long?

A

About 6 hours

237
Q

What is an infection that penetrates the white line of the sole & travels under the hoof wall
between the sensitive & insensitive laminae until it abscesses at the coronet?

A

Gravel

238
Q

What is the roll placed around the horse’s pastern to prevent capped elbow or shoe boils?

A

Doughnut

239
Q

What are the 2 most dangerous locations for wounds in regards to hemorrhage control?

A

Lower part of neck (jugular vein & carotid artery), & sides of the pastern (digital arteries)

240
Q

What is a condition where the hoof wall separates at the toe?

A

Seedy toe

241
Q

Where would you find conjunctivitis?

A

In the eye

242
Q

What is the most common cause of colic?

A

Parasites

243
Q

Calcification of the lateral cartilages of the third phalanx or coffin bone is called what?

A

Sidebones

244
Q

What is the term for a soft, fluid-filled enlargement in the hollow on the outside of the hock?

A

Thoroughpin

245
Q

What is the medical term for inflammation of the pedal (coffin) bone?

A

Pedal osteitis

246
Q

What is conjunctivitis?

A

An irritation of the eye

247
Q

What are the 3 types of encephalomyelitis?

A

Eastern, Western & Venezuelan

248
Q

What condition is caused by an incompatibility of blood groups between a mare & foal?

A

Neonatal isoerthryolsis (jaundice foal, isohemolytic icterus or NI)

249
Q

What are fecaliths?

A

Balls of ingesta containing a small unnatural object (rock hard mineral accumulations in the
horse’s gut)

250
Q

What is another name for an intravascular clot?

A

Thrombus