Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Where is Virchow’s node located?

A

left supraclavicular nodes

could indicate gastric cancer

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2
Q

What are the treatments for acute and chronic gout?

A

Acute: NSAIDs (indomethacin), corticosteroids, colchicine
Chronic: allopurinol, febuxostat, probenecid, colchicine, NSAIDs

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3
Q

What is the common triad for sjogren syndrome?

A

xeropthalmia
xerostomia
arthritis

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4
Q

What is the difference b/w polymyositis and polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

polymyositis: weakness of muscles, increased CK and aldolase, (+) ANA (+) Anti-Jo-1
polymyalgia rheumatica: no weakness, just joint pain. Normal CK & ALdolase

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5
Q

What is wrong in myasthenia gravis? Which meds are used to treat it?

A

acetylcholine receptors are attacked by autoantibodies
increase ACh to treat it via acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
pyridostigmine & physostigmine
diagnosed via echothiophate

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6
Q
Embryo origin of the following
smooth part of L & R ventricles
Smooth part of RA
Trabeculated L & R atria
Trabeculated L & R Ventricles
A

smooth part of L & R ventricles: bulbus cordis
Smooth part of RA: R horn sinus venosus
Smooth part of LA: Primitive pulmonary vein
Trabeculated L & R atria: primitive atrium
Trabeculated L & R Ventricles: primitive ventricles
L horn of sinus venosus–>coronary sinus
R common cardinal vein and R anterior cardinal vein–>SVC

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7
Q

Which bacteria secrete enterotoxins?

A
ETEC
Shigella
Yersinia
S. aureus
V. cholera
Clostridium
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8
Q

What is Charcot’s neurological triad? What is it indicative of?

A
Multiple Sclerosis
SIIN
Scanning Speech
Intention tremor
Incontinence
Internuclear opthalmoplegia
nystagmus
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9
Q

What is subacute endocarditis? Which organisms are most likely to cause this?

A

subacute–endocarditis w/ small vegetations on congenitally malformed valves or diseased valves
Mainly think viridans strep
also think enterococci and s. epidermis (usually prosthetic valves tho)

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10
Q

What is this?
Obligate anaerobe
Gram +
Spore-forming ROd

A

Clostridium

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11
Q

Why can’t aminoglycosides be used for gram + anaerobes? What are they used for?

A

require O2 to be taken into the cell

used for gram neg.

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12
Q

What can fight gram + anaerobes?

A

metronidazole

clindamycin

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13
Q

What does MPTP exposure do?

A

depletes dopamine in substantia nigra

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14
Q

Hemiballismus is caused by a lesion where?

A

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

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15
Q

Which enzyme used in DNA replication has 5->3’ polymerase activity, as well as 3’-5’ exonuclease activity and 5’-3’ exonuclease activity?

A

DNA pol I

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16
Q

What does alkaline phosphatase activity reflect?

A

osteoblastic activity

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17
Q

Which markers reflex osteoclastic activity?

A

urinary deoxypyridinoline
urinary hydroxyproline
tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

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18
Q

What runs with the posterior circumflex artery?

A

axillary nerve

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19
Q

What runs w/ the deep brachial artery?

A

radial nerve

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20
Q

What runs w/ the brachial artery?

A

median nerve

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21
Q

What is albuminocytologic dissociation?

A

cell count normal.
protein high
Seen in Guillan Barre Syndrome

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22
Q

Give 4 causes of a rash on the palms and soles.

A

secondary syphilis
rocky mountain spotted fever
coxsackie A virus
kawasaki dx

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23
Q

What are lichtenburg figures?

A

dermatologic pattern indicative of a lightning strike

see branching redness on skin where the electric current traveled

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24
Q

Most antipsychotics act on which receptor? What about clozapine?

A

most–D2.

clozapine–acts on D4.

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25
Derivatives of the 3rd aortic arch?
common carotid | proximal part of the internal carotid
26
Derivatives of the 4th aortic arch?
L part: aortic arch | R part: proximal part of the R subclavian artery
27
Derivatives of the 6th aortic arch?
proximal pulmonary arteries | ductus arteriosus
28
What is the flow of aqueous humor?
made by ciliary bodies-->posterior chamber-->thru angle by iris and lens-->anterior chamber-->reabsorbed by canal of schlemm
29
What is the MOA of metoclopramide?
inhibits D2, stimulates 5-HT receptors | stimulates GI motility, good for gastroparesis
30
What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome ?
muscle rigidity hyperthermia cardiovascular collapse (autonomic instability)
31
What are the risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?
``` Hep B, C hemochromatosis alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency hepatic adenoma-OCP cirrhosis ```
32
Damage to R optic nerve prior to pretectal nucleus. What happens?
Afferent Defect R eye light-->no constriction of either eye. Info can't get to pretectal nucleus to message the edinger westphal nucleus L eye light--> constriction of both eyes. as long as it gets to the pretectal nucleus, both eyes should respond.
33
What are the features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
muscle rigidity-->myoglobinuria and hyperpyrexia delirium, mental status changes autonomic instability-tachycardia treat w/ dantrolene, inhibits Ca++ release from SR in skeletal muscle, relaxation
34
What are the HTN meds used to treat aortic dissection?
beta blockers
35
What are some causes of ARDS that might not be so obvious?
Heroin OD acute pancreatitis high conc'n O2 for long periods of time.
36
Which anti-HTN drugs act on MLCK to decrease BP?
dihydropyridine epinephrine prostaglandin E2
37
What are the acute phase cytokines?
IL-1 IL-6 TNFalpha
38
What are the tumor markers for pancreatic cancer?
CA 19-9 | CEA: also elevated in gastric cancer
39
What are the 2 nervous tissue bundles in the GI tract ?
Meissner's plexus: submucosa | Auerbach/Myenteric plexus: b/w 2 layers of the mucsularis mucosa
40
Which dx targets the destruction of the anterior horn of the spinal cord?
Polio West Nile Virus ALS Werdnig-Hoffman (spinal musculodystrophy)
41
What is the treatment for nephrogenic DI?
possible cause: Lithium HCTZ amiloride (to inhibit lithium) indomethacin to decrease renal blood flow
42
Does alkalosis mean high extracellular K+ or low?
alKaLosis K+ low extracellulary b/c H+ being pushed into serum as K+ is pushed into cells.
43
What is the Z score for 99% confidence interval? 95%?
99%: 2.5 | 95%: 2
44
What are some causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
``` sarcoidosis amyloidosis hemochromatosis Loeffler disease endocardial fibroelastosis post-radiation fibrosis ```
45
Which substance inhibits RNA pol II in eukaryotes?
Death cap mushroom | alpha-amantin
46
What does WAGR complex stand for?
complications of a Wilms tumor, seen in children A-aniridia (congenital absence of the iris) genitourinary malformations Retardation (mental and motor)
47
What is the change to BMP that you see w/ status asthmatics patients?
they are on beta agonists get hypokalemia, shift of K+ into cells. maybe think of repolarization?
48
Which vitamin should vegetarians make sure they get supplemented?
Vit B12
49
Focal myocardial inflammation w/ multinucleate giant cells?
Aschoff bodies, rheumatic fever
50
Eosinophilic cytoplasmic globules near nucleus in liver?
Mallory Bodies, Alcoholic Liver
51
Pseudopalisading tumor?
glioblastoma
52
What is the cup:disc ratio for glaucoma?
>1:2
53
What are the presenting features of meniere's disease?
vertigo tinnitus hearing loss
54
What do signet ring cells signify?
gastric adenocarcinoma
55
What does a nutmeg liver signify?
R sided heart failure | Budd Chiari
56
Goal a1c for diabetic patient?
less than 7
57
What is the MOA of the treatment lactulose?
binds up and decreases ammonium levels | good for patients w/ cirrhosis and high ammonium
58
What are painful raised lesions on the finger pads and fever?
Osler's nodes | infective endocarditis
59
Which conditions can cause posterior cervical LAD?
EBV-mono Cat Scratch Dx-Bartonella Otitis media
60
What stimulates prolactin secretions?
TRH
61
Pigmented hamartomas of iris?
Lisch nodules | neurofibromatosis
62
Owl's eye protozoan?
Giardia Lamblia
63
Which organism is associated w/ puppy feces?
Yersinia
64
Which organism is associated w/ animal urine?
leptospira | hantavirus
65
Which diseases can cause strawberry tongue?
kawasaki disease scarlet fever toxic shock syndrome
66
Which diseases can cause rash on palms and soles?
2ndry syphilis Rocky Mountain SPotted Fever Coxsackie A virus