Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of COPD

A

Persistent airflow limitation
FER = FEV1/FEC < 0.70 + symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Triggers of acute exacerbation of COPD

A

70% triggered by infection (viral and bacterial)
30% no clear aetiology i.e. “non-infective” –> environmental, PE, AMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Symptom reduction pharmacotherapy of COPD

A

First line: monotherapy with LAMA > LABA
Second line: combination therapy with LAMA/LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Exacerbation prevention pharmacotherapy of COPD

A

First line: ICS/LABA or LAMA/LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Indications of ICS in COPD

A
  • History of hospitalisations for exacerbations
  • > / 2 moderate exacerbations of COPD per year
  • Blood eosinophils >/ 300 cells/uL
  • History of concurrent asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Triple therapy options for COPD

A

Fixed triple therapy treatment
- Fluticasone/Vilanterol/Umeclidinium (daily breath activated)
- Beclomethasone/Formoterol/Glycopyrronium (twice daily MDI)
Open triple therapy
- ICS + LABA + LAMA (generally 2 inhalers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Non-pharmacological management of COPD

A

Pulmonary rehab
Smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pharmacotherapy for smoking cessation

A

Buproprion
Varenicline
NRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Contraindications for bupropion

A

Should not be used in patients with history of bipolar disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Contraindications for NRT

A

Should be avoided in unstable angina, recent MI, stroke or severe arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Contraindications of varenicline

A

Should not be used in patients with unstable psychiatric symptoms or history of suicidal ideation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition of asthma

A

History of respiratory symptoms (i.e. wheeze, SOB, chest tightness and cough varying over time and intensity) with variable expiratory airflow limitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clinical features of asthma

A

Episodic symptoms
Atopy
Triggers
Work-related exposures
Asthma symptoms in childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Triggers of asthma

A

Smoking
Dust mite
Air pollutions
Moulds, pets, cockroaches
Viral illness
Workplace exposure
GORD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Role of FeNO in asthma

A

Measure of NO exhaled in breath
Low FeNO can be helpful when reviewing patients who take puffer therapies - proves compliance and response to treatment
Seen in non-eosinophilic asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Role of methacholine bronchoprovocation test

A

Negative test excludes asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Spirometry findings in asthma

A

Can be normal
Could show obstruction (FER < 0.70 or < LLN)
Assess reversibility –> significant finding when > 12% and > 200mL increase in FEV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Role of bronchoprovocation in asthma

A

Used if strong clinical suspicion and normal spirometry

Direct challenge test with methacholine (>20% fall in FEV1) - good negative predictive valve for excluding active asthma
- false positive seen in allergic rhinitis, CF, heart failure, COPD, bronchitis

Indirect challenge with mannitol or hypertonic saline (>15% fall in FEV1)
- better PPV for asthma than methacholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Categories in asthma

A

Intermittent asthma
- Normal FEV1, symptoms/SABA <2/week, no limitations
Persistent asthma
- Mild – normal FEV1, symptoms/SABA >2/week, minor limitation
- Moderate – mildly abnormal FEV1 (60-80%), daily symptoms, some limitations
- Severe – abnormal FEV1 < 60%, daily symptoms + nocturnal, limited function

Notes
- Two or more flares requiring OCS in 12M –> persistent
- Hospital admission or ED presentation –> moderate
- ICU admission –> severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Formoterol preparations

A
  • Symbicort (budesonide/formoterol)
  • Fostair (beclomethasone/formoterol)
  • Flutiform (fluticasone/formoterol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Biologic therapies in asthma

A

Omalizumab - IgE
Mepolizumab - IL-5
Benralizumab - anti-IL5 receptor
Bupilimub - IL-4 and IL-13
Tezepelumab - TSLP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Typical HRCT features of UIP

A

Honeycombing
Traction bronchiectasis (least specific)
Reticular opacities (peripheral and lower lobe predominant)
No atypical features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Smoking related ILD

A

Idiopathic ILD
Respiratory bronchiolitis ILD
Desquamative interstitial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Other disease labels of ILD

A

ILD of known cause
- Dust (asbestosis, silicosis)
- CTD associated
- Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
- Radiation induced
- Drug induced

Granulomatous ILD
- Sarcoidosis

Idiopathic ILD
- Chronic/fibrosing – idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, idiopathic non-specific interstitial pneumonia
- Acute/subacute – cryptogenic organising pneumonia, acute interstitial pneumonia
- Smoking related – respiratory bronchiolitis ILD, desquamative interstitial pneumonia

Other
- Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)
- Pulmonary Langerhans histocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diagnosis of ILD

A

Clinical data (history and examination)
HRCT
PFTs – helpful to evaluate severity and monitor progress
Pathology (features of autoimmunity)
BAL/biopsy – not always required and not always possible
- If probable UIP pattern on HRCT can be diagnosed as IPF by MDM without biopsy
- Surgical lung biopsy (elective)
* ~1-2% mortality
* Consider if age < 50 yrs, atypical HRCT findings, rapidly progressive disease
- No role in transbronchial biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Indications for lung transplant

A

Risk of death > 50% within 2 years
Likelihood of surviving > 90 days post TP > 80%
No life-limiting comorbidity (in 5 yrs post TP)
Satisfactory supports/psychosocial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Contraindications of lung transplant

A

Age > 65 yrs
Smoking/EtOH/drug dependence
Malignancy (5 yrs disease)
Chronic infection
Obesity or malnutrition
Osteoporosis in severe symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Indications for lung transplant in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

DLCO < 40% predicted
FVC < 80% predicted
Dyspnoea or functional limitation attributable to lung disease
Decrease in SpO2 to 88%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Role of prednisone/AZA/NAC in ILD

A

PANTHER study
- Found to be harmful with increased death and hospitalisation
- no physiological or clinical benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Role of antifibrotic therapy for ILD

A

Nintedanib and pirfinedone have been shown to alter disease progression
- suitable for mild/moderate IPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Nintedanib mechanism of action and side effects

A

Inhibits multiple tyrosine kinases

Side effects
- Diarrhoea (>60%)
- Nausea (up to 25%)
- LFT derangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pirfenidone mechanism of action and side effects

A

Inhibits TGF-beta and fibroblast proliferation

Side effects
- Rash (30%)
- Nausea (up to 35%)
- Diarrhoea (25%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

HRCT features of non-specific interstitial pneumonia

A
  • Ground glass opacity (partial filling of air spaces but preserved bronchial and vascular markings)
  • Reticular opacity
  • Traction bronchiectasis
  • Diffuse – can have subpleural sparing
  • Fibrotic vs cellular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Management of NSIP

A
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Second agents – mycophenolate or azathioprine
  • Those with more severe disease
  • Failure to respond
  • Worsens as steroids reduced
  • Third line agents – IV cyclophosphamide (monthly), rituximab
  • Lung transplantation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

HRCT features of hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A
  • Typical features
  • Centrilobular nodules and/or ground glass opacities
  • Mosaic attenuation (inspiratory), three density pattern, gas trapping (expiratory)
  • Fibrosis – linear opacities, coarse reticulation and lung distortion, traction bronchiectasis, honey combing (relative sparing of lower zones, random involvement both axially and craniocaudally)
  • Some HP have radiological pattern consistent with UIP  reinforces diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis generally only reached if no features suggestive of alternative diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Clinical features of hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A
  • Recurrent ‘atypical’ pneumonia
  • Symptoms after moving to new job or home
  • Exposure to pets
  • Exposure to moulds
  • Hot tub/sauna/swimming pool exposure
  • Improvement when on holiday or over weekends
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bronchoscopy and lung biopsy features of hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A
  • BAL – lymphocytic pattern suggestive (~30% lymphocytes)
  • TBBx can demonstrate non-caseating granulomas
  • Surgical lung biopsy or cryobiopsy where imaging, exposure or BAL are inconclusive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HRCT features of sarcoidosis

A
  • Bilateral hilar and mediastinal LAD
  • Nodular (upper zone) + hilar and mediastinal LAD
  • Parenchymal – at least stage II disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Features of Lofgren syndrome

A

Fever, polyarthritis, erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bronchoscopy features of sarcoidosis

A
  • BAL – elevated CD4:CD8 – supportive finding
  • Endobronchial biopsy – positive in 40-70%
  • Transbronchial biopsy – positive in 50-75%
  • EBUS – positive in 80-90%
  • Combined approach may have highest yield (>90%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Extrapulmonary complications and features of sarcoidosis

A
  • Ocular – ophthalmology review
  • Calcium – urinary calcium excretion rate, serum Ca2+, vitamin D (1,25)
  • Cardiac – ECG, TTE, MRI or PET
  • Brain – MRI, LP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Indications and treatment for sarcoidosis

A
  • Indications
  • Progressive symptomatic pulmonary disease
  • Asymptomatic pulmonary disease with persistent infiltrates or progressive loss of lung function
  • Cardiac disease
  • Neurological disease
  • Eye disease not responding to topical therapy
  • Symptomatic hypercalcaemia
  • Other symptomatic/progressive extrapulmonary disease
  • Treatment
  • Inhaled corticosteroids +/- steroid sparing agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Clinical classification of pulmonary hypertension

A

Group 1: pulmonary arterial hypertension
Group 2: PH associated with LHD
Group 3: PH associated with lung disease and/or hypoxia
Group 4: PH associated with obstruction
Group 5: PH associated with unclear and/or multifactorial mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Haemodynamic characteristics of pulmonary HTN

A

mPAP > 20mmHg

45
Q

Haemodynamic characteristics of pre-capillary PH (group 1, 3, 4, 5)

A

mPAP > 20mmHg
PAWP </ 15mmHg
PBR > 2 WU

46
Q

Haemodynamic characteristics of isolated post-capillary PH (group 2 and 5)

A

mPAP > 20mmHg
PAWP > 15mmHg
PVR </ 2WU

47
Q

Haemodynamic characteristics of combined post-capillary PH

A

mPAP > 20mmHg
PAWP > 15mmHg
PVR > 2WU

48
Q

Risk factors for PAH

A

CTD (systemic sclerosis, Raynaud’s disease, SLE, MCTD, RA)
HIV infection
Portal hypertension
Congenital heart disease
Schistosomiasis

49
Q

Gene mutations associated with PAH

A

Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPR) –> inhibits smooth muscle proliferation and induces apoptosis
Activin1 like kinase receptor (ALK1, ACVR1)
Serotonin transporter gene mutations (5HTT)
Endoglin (ENG)
Mothers against decapentaplegic homologue 9 (SMAD9)
Potassium channel subfamily K member 3 (KCNK3)
Caveolin (CAV1)

50
Q

Vascular mediators of PAH

A

Increased endothelin levels (vasoconstrictor and mitogen)
Decreased nitric oxide levels (vasodilator and antiproliferative)
Decreased prostacycline levels (vasodilator, antiproliferative, inhibits platelet function)

51
Q

Symptoms of pulmonary HTN

A

Dyspnoea on exertion
Fatigue
Bendopnoea
Palpitations
Haemoptysis
Exercise-induced abdominal distension and nausea
Weight gain due to fluid retention
Syncope

52
Q

PAH treatment targets which pathways

A

Endothelial dysfunction pathways
- Endothelin pathway
- NO pathway (sGC stimulator and PDE5 inhibitors)
- Prostacyclin pathway

53
Q

Endothelin receptor antagonists examples

A

Dual ERA
- Bosentan
- Macitentan
Selective ERA
- Ambrisentan

54
Q

Drugs affecting nitrous oxide pathway in PAH

A

PDE5 inhibitors - sildenafil and taladalafil
- increases intracellular concentration of cAMP and cGMP

Riociguat - vasodilator by stimulating soluble guanylate cyclase (sGC)
- also worked for chronic thromboembolism pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH)

55
Q

Drugs affecting prostacycline pathway

A

Prostacycline analogues
- Epoprostanol
- Treprostinil
- Iloprost
Non-prostanoid IP receptor agonists
- Selexipag

56
Q

Initial treatment for low/intermediate risk patients with PAH

A

Combined therapy with ERA and PDE5 inhibitor unless cardiopulmonary comorbidities

57
Q

Initial treatment for high risk patients with PAH

A

Combined ERA + PDE5 inhibitors and IV/SCA PCA
Consider referral for lung transplantation

If adding IV/SC PCA, add selexipag or switch PDE5i to riociguat

58
Q

Further treatment intermediate-low risk patients despite receiving combined ERA/PDE5i therapy

A

Addition of selexipag (Non-prostanoid IP receptor agonists)
Can consider switch from PDE5 inhibitor to riociguat

59
Q

Indication for lung transplant in PAH

A

PAH refractory to medical therapy (intermediate-high or high or REVEAL > 7)
Rapidly progressive disease
Use of IV prostanoid therapy
Known or suspected pulmonary veno-occlusive disease (PVOD) or pulmonary capillary hemangiomatosis
Renal or hepatic compromise secondary to PAH

60
Q

Pathophysiology of OSA

A

Increased upper airway collapsibility
Poor muscle control and function
Low arousal threshold
High loop gain

61
Q

Symptoms of OSA

A

Snoring
Witnessed apnoea
Noctural choking or gasping
Excessive daytime sleepiness

62
Q

Symptoms that typically present in women with OSA

A

Insomina
Depression, irritability, mood changes
Anxiety
Non-restorative sleep
Lethargy
Fatigue
Sleep fragmentation
Frequent awakenings

63
Q

Clinical phenotypes of OSA and how they respond to PAP

A

Sleepy
- best response to PAP with improvement in almost all symptoms
Minimally symptomatic
- some night time or daytime symptoms related to sleep
- some improvement in ED and physical fatigue
Disturbed sleep
- more insomnia type symptoms
- some improvement occurring with PAP but no difference in most symptoms than no PAP

64
Q

Cardiovascular changes in OSA

A

Increase SNS activity
Increase inflammation
Increase endothelial dysfunction

65
Q

Metabolic changes in OSA

A

Decrease insulin sensitivity
Increase leptin resistance
Increase lipolysis
Increase impairment of lipoprotein clearance dysfunction

66
Q

Complications of OSA

A
  • Systemic hypertension
  • Hypoxia-induced cardiac arrhythmia (e.g., (atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter)
  • Pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale
  • Global respiratory insufficiency
  • Cardiac infarction, stroke, and sudden cardiac death (the risk of sudden death is high in infants and the elderly)
  • Polycythemia
  • Risk of accidents (e.g., car crashes, occupational accidents) due to microsleep
  • Increased risk of developing vascular dementia
  • Poor sleep leads to increased appetite and obesity
  • Metabolic - DM, NASH
  • CKD
67
Q

OSA severity classification

A

AHI (Apnoeas and hypopnoeas/hr of sleep)
- AHI < 5 normal
AHI 5-15 mild
AHI 15-30 moderate
AHI > 30 severe

68
Q

Management for OSa

A

PAP therapy
Mandibular advancement splints
Sleep position modification devices
Surgery
Weight loss
Smoking cessation

69
Q

Benefits of PAP in OSA

A

Improvement in symptoms
Improvement in HTN
CVD prevention
Improvement of glucose metabolism
Reduces AHI
Reduces MVA risk
Improves ED
Improves QOL

70
Q

Surgical options for OSA

A

Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) and variants
- reduction in AHI ~33%
Maxillo-mandibular advancement
Bariatric surgery

71
Q

Difference between eucapnic or hypocapnic CSA and hypercapnic CSA

A

Eucapnic or hypocapnic CSA
- High or irregular drive to breathe
- No daytime hypoventilation

(Heart failure, post stroke, CKD, dialysis, high altitude, idiopathic)

Hypercapnic CSA
- Low drive to breathe
- Nocturnal and daytime hypoventilation
(NM disorders, pulmonary disorder, opioids + baclofen, central congenital alveolar hypoventilation)

72
Q

Diagnosis criteria for RLS

A
  • Urge to move legs, accompanied by or thought o be caused by uncomfortable and unpleasant sensation in legs
  • Not account for by another condition
  • Causes concern, distress, sleep disturbance or impairment of mental/physical/social/occupational/educational/behaviour or other important areas of functioning
73
Q

Non-pharm treatment of RLS

A

Lifestyle modifications
- EtOH consumption reduction
- reduce stress
- avoid shiftwork
- avoid vigorous physical activity before bedtime
Avoid medications that worsen RLS
- Antihistamines
- Neuroleptics
- Antidepressants
Non-pharm symptom relief
- Good sleep hygiene
- Concentrating activities
- Tactile, temperature, stimulation
- Massage, hot showers, weighted blankets

74
Q

Pharmacotherapy for RLS and complications

A

Dopamine agonists
- risk for augmentation
- impulse control disorders are common

Pregabalin (or gabapentin)
- Depression and suicidality

Iron replacement

Benzodiazepines - consider for intermittent symptoms

Opiates - efficacy and risk of dependence, CSA and respiratory depression

75
Q

Definition of bronchiectasis

A

Chronic respiratory disease characterised by clinical syndrome of
- cough
- sputum production
- bronchial infection
- abnormal and permanent dilatation of bronchi

76
Q

CT features of bronchiectasis

A

Defined as bronchial dilatation suggested by one or more of the following
- Bronchoarterial ratio > 1
- Lack of airway tapering
- Airway visibility within 1cm of costal pleural surface or
- touching mediastinal pleura

Signet ring sign

77
Q

Pathophysiology of bronchiectasis

A

Induction of bronchiectasis requires
- Infectious insult
- Impaired drainage, airway obstruction or defect in host defense

Leads to neutrophilic airway inflammation and bronchial destruction

78
Q

Causes of bronchiectasis

A

Idiopathic ~40%
Post infectious ~30%
Immunodeficiency ~5%
COPD ~5%
CTD ~4%
ABPA ~3%
Primary ciliary dyskinesia ~2%
Asthma ~1%
Non-tuberculous mycobacteria

Infrequent causes < 1%
IBD
GORD/aspiration
A1-AT deficiency
Diffuse panbronchiolitis
Yellow nail syndrome
Obstruction or foreign body
Congenital or airway abnormality
Congenital or airway abnormality
Inhalation of toxic fumes
Obliterative bronchiolitis post transplant

79
Q

Outcomes in bronchietasis overlap syndrome

A

Mortality is worse for overlap syndromes i.e. bronchiectasis rheumatoid overlap syndrome and bronchiectasis COPD overlap syndrome

80
Q

Variables affecting severity of bronchiectasis

A

Age
BMI
FEV1 %
Hospital admissions
Number of exacerbations in previous 12 months
MRC breathlessness score
P. aeruginosa colonisation
Colonisation with other organisms
Radiological severity

81
Q

Key management strategies of bronchiectasis

A

Airway clearance
Smoking cessation
Vaccination
Sputum cultures
Pulmonary rehab

If frequent or severe exacerbations –> macrolides and/or inhaled abx
Concomitant asthma/COPD –> ICS/LABD
High sputum burden/difficulty expectorating –> mucoactive agents
Pseudomonas aeruginosa –> abx

82
Q

Risk factors for exacerbation

A

Prior history of exacerbation
Chronic bacterial infection especially pseudomonas aeruginosa
Respiratory viral infections
Environmental air pollution
IgG2 deficiency

83
Q

Definition of bronchiectasis exacerbation

A

> 3 of following symptoms lasting at least 48 hours
- cough
- sputum volume and/or consistency
- sputum purulence
- breathlessness and/or exercise intolerance
- fatigue and/or malaise
- haemoptysis

84
Q

Treatment of bronchiectasis exacerbations

A

Abx therapy for exacerbation treatment
- should be based off prior sputum culture results and prior response to abx
Duration of therapy: 10-14 days for first exacerbation, 14 days for patients with recurrent exacerbation

85
Q

Role of long term macrolides for bronchiectasis

A

Consider for patients with frequent exacerbations

Found to
- Reduced frequency of exacerbations
- Improved time to first exacerbations
- Improved quality of life
- Had no significant impact on FEV1

86
Q

Definition of cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive disease of regulator gene CFTR response for transmembrane transport of Na and Cl in ciliary epithelium resulting in variable clinical expression of disease

87
Q

Organs affects cystic fibrosis

A

Respiratory system (85% of mortality causes)
Pancreas
Sweat glands
Male reproductive system

88
Q

Diagnosis criteria of CF

A

At least one of the following:
Phenotypic features of CF
- chronic pulmonary disease
- chronic sinusitis
- characteristic GI and nutritional abnormalities
- salt loss syndrome
- obstructive azoospermia
History of CF in sibling
Positive newborn screening test

AND at least one of following:
- Elevated sweat chloride concentration
- Two CFTR gene variants known to cause CF on separate alleles
- Abnormality in nasal potential differential testing that are typical for CF

89
Q

Threshold for sweat chloride testing confirming CF

A

> / 60mmol/L –> CF diagnosis
30-59mmol/L –> CF possible, further testing required i.e. genetic analysis, physiologic testing

90
Q

Definition of CFTR related disorder

A

Clinical disease limited to only one organ system associated with some evidence of CFTR dysfunction (does not meet full genetic or functional criteria for CF diagnosis)

Clinical manifestations
- Isolated obstructive azoospermia, chronic sinusitis, chronic pancreatitis, or pulmonary disease

91
Q

Clinical features of CF

A

Respiratory colonisation
Sinusitis
Pancreatic disease
Distal ileal obstruction
Anaemia
Aquagenic wrinkling
C. diff
Increased risk of malignancies
Biliary disease
Male or female infertility (M > F)
CF athropathy
Osteoporosis
Recurrent VTE
Nephrocalcinosis
Nephrolithiasis

92
Q

Most frequent pathogens in CF

A

S aureus in younger ages
P aeruginosa in older ages i.e. > 35 yrs

93
Q

Pillars of treatment in CF

A

Antimicrobials
- Acute exacerbations –> based on prior sputum cultures

Anti-inflammatory
- Macrolides
- Ibuprofen

Airway clearance
- Chest physio
- Mucolytics
- Physical activity

CFTR modulators

94
Q

Indication and examples for CFTR modulators in CF

A

Targets specific defects in CFTR protein

Ivacaftor
- targets class III (channel gating defect), IV (channel conductance defect) and VI (defect of stability at membrane)

Tezacaftor, lumacaftor, elexacaftor
- targets class I (synthesis defect), II (processing defect), and V (reduced CFTR production)

95
Q

Ivacaftor MOA

A

CFTR potentiator
Targets 6551D mutation

96
Q

Tezacaftor and lumacaftor MOA

A

Targets △F508 mutation which interferes with protein folding and channel gating activity

97
Q

Indications for lung transplant/consideration of pretransplant assessment for CF

A

FEV1 < 30% predicted
Rapid decline in FEV1 despite optimal treatment
Malnutrition and diabetes
Frequent exacerbations
Recurrent massive haemoptysis which cannot be controlled by bronchial artery embolisation
Relapsing or complicated PTX
ICU admission

98
Q

Relative contraindications for lung transplant in CF

A

Age > 65 yrs
Critical/unstable clinical situation
Seriously limited functional status
Colonisation with Burkholderia cenocepacia, Burkholderia gladioli and Mycobacteria abscessus
Diseases not optimally treated

99
Q

Importance of burkholderia cepacia complex in CF

A

Chronic infection resulting in accelerated decline in lung function and shortened survival
Usually multi-drug resistant
Worse outcomes with lung transplantation

100
Q

Definition of ABPA

A

Complex hypersensitivity reaction to colonisation of airways by aspergillus fumigatus

Occurs almost exclusively in asthma and cystic fibrosis

Episodes of repeated bronchial obstruction, mucoid impaction and inflammation results in bronchiectasis and fibrosis

101
Q

Risk factors of ABPA

A

Asthma
Cystic fibrosis

102
Q

Pathophysiology of ABPA

A

Involves
- immediate hypersensitivity (type 1)
- antigen antibody complexes (type 3)
- eosinophil rich inflammatory response (type 4b)

103
Q

Diagnosis of ABPA

A

Predisposing conditions (either one present) - asthma, cystic fibrosis

Obligatory criteria (both present)
- positive skin prick test or increase IgE levels to aspergillus fumagatus
- elevated IgE concentration

Other criteria (at least 2 must be present)
- positive aspergillus precipitants or increase IgG to A. fumigatus
- Radiology consistent with ABPA
- total eosinophil count > 0.5 x 10^6 in steroid naive patients

104
Q

CT findings of ABPA

A

Proximal cylindrical bronchiectasis
Mucous plugging
Tree in bud opacity
Atelectasis
Peripheral consolidation
Ground glass opacity
Mosaic attenuation with gas trapping

105
Q

Treatment of ABPA exacerbation

A

Prednisone is mainstay treatment

106
Q

Diagnosis of ABPA exacerbations

A

Doubling of IgE above baseline
New radiographic infiltrates (especially in upepr and mid zones)

107
Q

Treatment for acute or recurrent ABPA

A

Antifungal therapy - itraconazole (can also use voriconazole or posaconazole)

108
Q
A