Research/Stats Flashcards
1
Q
This experimental research variable is the one that is manipulated by the researcher; it is sometimes referred to as the "input variable."
A
Independent
variable
2
Q
What term is used to denote the values a research variable, most often the independent variable, could take (e.g., placebo only, placebo + treatment, treatment only)?
A
Levels (of
a variable)
3
Q
In experimental research, the hypothesis can usually be stated: changes in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ will be caused by changes in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Dependent
variable;
independent
variable
4
Q
In what type of research design are all levels of one independent variable combined with all levels of another independent variable?
A
Factorial design (if one IV has 3 levels and the other has 2, it would be called a 3 x 2 factorial design)
5
Q
Referred to as the "outcome variable," it is hypothesized to change as a result of particular manipulations of the input variable in experimental research.
A
Dependent
variable
6
Q
A study is said to have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ validity when a causal relationship is determined to exist between the independent and dependent variables.
A
Internal
7
Q
In correlational research, independent variables are often termed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to differentiate them from variables that can be manipulated, and dependent variables are referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Predictor;
criterion
8
Q
TRUE or FALSE: A study in which no significant effect of the independent variable is found will always have no internal validity.
A
FALSE: It will have internal validity if the conclusion is that the IV has no causal effect on the DV
9
Q
Poor internal validity in a study is the result of numerous possible extraneous variables, typically called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ variables, that might explain the change in the dependent variable.
A
Confounding
(or
confound)
10
Q
Changes in the behavior of test subjects (DV) that is more a function of the expectations of the experimenter as opposed to the independent variables is referred to as what?
A
The
Rosenthal
effect
11
Q
What is the single best way for a researcher to ensure internal validity when conducting an experiment?
A
Treat all "levels" of the IV with equivalence (equally) in every respect, except for their IV status
12
Q
This is likely the best technique for ensuring internal validity, as it distributes all extraneous subject characteristics equally to all research groups, thereby reducing the likelihood of confounded results.
A
Random assignment (or randomization)
13
Q
Regarding confounding variables effecting change in the
DV, ________ is a result of biological or psychological
change in the research subjects; ________ is a result of
one’s prior experience with a test; ________ might occur
when there have been changes in the measuring instrument
(e.g., psychologists gets better at diagnosing); ________ is
caused by pre-existing factors in the research subjects
(e.g., higher IQs); and ________ is the result of people who
drop-out of one research group systematically differ from
those who stay in the study.
A
Maturation; testing; instrumentation; selection; differential mortality
14
Q
Random \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs after study subjects have already been selected to participate and refers to the equal probability of being assigned to a group, whereas random \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs prior to starting the study and refers to a method whereby all members of a population have an equal chance of being chosen to participate in a study.
A
Assignment;
selection (or
sampling)
15
Q
This term is used to describe the tendency for a test subject who initially produced extreme scores on a measure to score closer to the mean on subsequent testings; it has an effect on internal validity when extreme scorers are used as research subjects.
A
Statistical
regression
16
Q
Experimenters are interested in measuring the
effect that different treatment modalities (IV)
have on relapse rates for alcoholics; however,
there is concern that the duration of each
subject’s alcohol use may confound the results.
The researchers decide to split the subjects
based on their duration of use, then randomly
assign them to treatment groups. This is an
example of what technique to increase internal
validity?
A
Matching
17
Q
What technique for ensuring internal validity involves essentially making the confound variable another independent variable, allowing the researcher to separate the effects of each variable?
A
Blocking
18
Q
When the result of a study performed in the 1920s does not apply to the population in 2010, there is an interaction between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
History;
treatment
19
Q
This statistical strategy for increasing internal validity involves adjusting DV scores after the data has been analyzed so that subjects statuses are equalized on 1 or more variables; it is similar to matching, only it is performed post-hoc.
A
Analysis of
Covariance
(ANCOVA)
20
Q
An interaction between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when the results of a study where pretests were used do not generalize to cases in which pretests were not used.
A
Testing;
treatment
21
Q
If the results of a study can be generalized to other settings and situations, it would be said to have high \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
External
validity
22
Q
What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where research participants form an interpretation of the experiment's purpose and, consequently, unconsciously change their behavior or responses accordingly?
A
Demand
characteristics
23
Q
When the effects of a given treatment are not generalizable to other members of the target population, it can be said that there is an interaction between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Selection;
treatment
24
Q
A research subject who behaves differently merely due to the fact that she are aware of her participation in an experiment exemplifies what threat to external validity?
A
The
Hawthorne
Effect
25
```
In studies where the same subjects
are exposed to more than 1
treatment (called repeated
measures design), there is a risk
that external validity will be
decreased as a result of the
influence of the multiple treatments,
thereby reducing generalizability.
This is referred to as what?
```
```
Order effects,
carryover effects,
or multiple
treatment
interference
```
26
```
In contrast to naturalistic
research, which has high
external and low internal
validity, ________
research tends to have
higher internal and lower
external validity.
```
```
Analogue
(research
performed in more
laboratory-like
setting)
```
27
```
A good way of increasing external
validity, ________ ensures that all
members of a population have an
equal chance of being selected to
participate in the research, and
thereby produces results that
accurately represent the whole
population (it is generalizable).
```
```
Random
sampling (or
selection)
```
28
```
A ________ study involves the
subjects lacking awareness of the
purpose of the experiment and the
treatment they have been assigned
to; in a ________ study, both the
subjects and the experimenters lack
awareness of the group subjects
have been assigned to.
```
Single-blind;
| double-blind
29
```
This procedure involves taking
a random sample from each of
numerous subgroups of the
total target population, thus
ensuring proportionate
representation of the defined
population subgroups in the
study.
```
Stratified
random
sampling
30
```
One way of controlling
for order effects is to
administer treatment to
groups of subjects in a
different order, which is
referred to as what?
```
Counterbalancing
31
```
While a threat to internal
validity, ________
research increases
external validity by
observing subjects'
behavior in a real-life
setting.
```
Naturalistic
32
```
What counterbalancing
technique orders the
administration of
treatment so that each
appears only once in
every position?
```
Latin
square
design
33
```
The defining feature of a ________
experiment is that subjects are
randomly assigned to different
groups; in contrast, ________
experiments are performed when it
is impossible to randomly assign
subjects to groups (e.g., intact
groups of subjects).
```
True;
| quasi
34
```
In cross-sectional
research, what term
describes the observed
differences between
different age groups that
are more a function of
experience than age?
```
Cohort (or
intergenerational)
effect
35
```
In this type of research,
variables of interest are not
manipulated, there is no
internal validity, results are
typically used for the purposes
of prediction, and associative
rather than causative
relationships are discussed.
```
Correlational
| research
36
```
Longitudinal research tends to
________ true age-related
change (due to drop-out of
less-abled subjects and
practice effects), while
cross-sectional tends to
________ true age-related
change (due to cohort effects).
```
Underestimate;
| overestimate
37
```
What type of research
is used to address
variables as a function
of time, such as aging
or maturation?
```
Developmental
| research
38
```
This type of research design
consists of taking multiple
measurements over time in order to
assess the effects of an
independent variable; the series of
measurements on the dependent
variable is interrupted by
administration of the treatment.
```
Interrupted
time-series
design
39
```
The 3 types of developmental
research are ________ (same
people studied over a long period of
time), ________ (different groups of
subjects who are divided by age are
assessed at the same time), and
________ (representative samples
of different age groups are
assessed on 2 or more occasions).
```
```
Longitudinal;
cross-sectional;
cross-sequential (which
is a combination of the
first 2)
```
40
```
In ________ designs, which work
well for research on behavior
modification, one subject serves as
his/her own control; behavior
(dependent variable) is analyzed
numerous times during a baseline
phase where there is no treatment,
then again during a treatment
phase (independent variable).
```
Single-subject
41
Of the 3 single-subject designs, a/an ________
involves collecting data from a single baseline
phase and a single treatment phase; in a/an
________, data is collected after the treatment
phase has stopped and, if the behavior returns,
there is a higher chance the change was due to
treatment; and ________ involves applying
treatment sequentially and measuring the DV
after each application, rather than removing
treatment (this is used primarily when removing
treatment would be unethical).
```
AB design;
reversal
(withdrawal)
design; multiple
baseline design
```
42
Identify which of the 4 scales of
measurement would be used for each of
the following variables: (1) IQ scores or
scores on most standardized tests, (2)
diagnostic category, (3) the length of time
(in minutes) it takes to complete a task,
and (4) rankings of one's preferences of
listed therapist characteristics.
(1) Interval, (2)
nominal, (3)
ratio, and (4)
ordinal
43
```
What 2 reversal designs involve
(1) collecting data at a third
non-treatment/baseline phase
and (2) re-administering
treatment for a second time,
collecting data, and comparing
the results to the first treatment
phase?
```
(1) ABA
design; (2)
ABAB design
44
```
What is the only
difference between
interval and ratio
scales of
measurement?
```
```
Ratio variables have an absolute
zero point (e.g., distance, height,
weight, time); interval variables
have no absolute zero, so negative
values can be used, and ratios are
arbitrary- values cannot be
multiplied or divided (e.g., IQ
scores, temperature)
```
45
```
In ________ research, theories are
derived from the gathered data rather
than developed prior to the experiment;
methods for collecting data include
surveys (e.g., personal interviews,
phone/mail surveys), case studies, and
protocol analysis (collecting and
analyzing word-for-word reports from
subjects).
```
Qualitative,
or
descriptive
46
```
What descriptive statistic would
be used if a researcher was
interested in simply showing a
summarized grouping of data
she has collected, organized by
the number of cases that fall
within a given range or
category?
```
```
Frequency distribution,
which are often
displayed on a bar
graph (histogram), table
graph, or polygon
```
47
```
The two types of statistical methods
are ________ statistics, which are
used to quantitatively describe the
main features data collected from a
sample, and ________ statistics,
which are used to make inferences
regarding some unknown aspect of
a population based on sample data.
```
Descriptive;
| inferential
48
A bell-curve exemplifies a ________ distribution,
which is symmetrical due to half of the scores
falling above the mean and half falling below the
mean; a ________ distribution occurs when the
majority of scores fall on the high end of the
scale (e.g., test was too easy), leaving a long tail
on the left; a ________ distribution occurs when
most scores fall on the low end of the scale (e.g.,
test was too difficult), leaving a long tail on the
right.
```
Normal; negatively;
positively (hint: "the tail
tells the tale," so
whatever end the tail is
on determines the
labeling)
```
49
What are the 3
most common
measures of
central tendency?
Mean,
median,
and mode
50
```
What are the 3
most common
measures of
variability (or
dispersion)?
```
Range,
variance, and
standard
deviation
51
The ________ is determined by dividing the sum
of all values by the number of cases/scores (or
N), providing the most useful measure of central
tendency (MCT) for normal distributions; the
________ is the middle value when data is
ordered from lowest to highest, making it less
sensitive to extreme scores than the prior MCT
and thus more useful with skewed distributions;
the ________ is the most frequent value in a
data set (can have more than one).
Mean;
median;
mode
52
```
The ________ is determined by simply
subtracting the lowest score for the
highest score in a data set, which limits
its usefulness; the ________ is used by
many statistical tests in their formulas
and it measures a distribution's
variability; the ________, in simple terms,
shows how much variation there is from
the mean.
```
Range;
variance;
standard
deviation
53
```
How is the median
calculated when
there are an even
number of cases in
the data set?
```
Take the
mean of the 2
middle values
54
```
The ________ is the
square of the ________,
which means the
________ is the square
root of the ________.
```
Variance; standard
deviation; standard
deviation; variance
55
```
In a negatively skewed
distribution, ________ >
________ > ________;
in a positively skewed
distribution ________ >
________ > ________.
```
```
Mode > median >
mean; mean > median
> mode (hint: mean is
always closer to the
tail)
```
56
```
This type of transformed score
measures the amount of standard
deviations a raw score is from the
mean; once all raw scores have
been converted, the distribution has
a mean of 0 and a standard
deviation of 1, permitting
comparisons across different
measures/tests.
```
Z-score
57
```
TRUE or FALSE: When
raw scores are
transformed into
z-scores, the shape of
the distribution stays the
same.
```
```
TRUE: When score
transformation does not
change distribution
shape, it is called "linear
transformation"
```
58
```
Percentile ranks will
always have a ________
distribution, meaning that
within a given range of
percentile ranks, there will
always be the same
number of scores.
```
Flat (aka
rectangular
or uniform)
59
```
What transformed
score has a mean of
50 and a standard
deviation of 10 (e.g.,
MMPI-2)?
```
T-score
60
```
TRUE or FALSE: When
raw scores are
transformed into
percentile ranks, the
shape of the distribution
stays the same.
```
```
FALSE: When score
transformation changes
distribution shape, it is
called "nonlinear
transformation"
```
61
```
This type of transformed
score divides a
distribution into 9 equal
intervals with a mean of
5 and a standard
deviation of 2.
```
Stanine scores
(shortened form
of STAndard
NINE)
62
```
In a normal distribution,
what percentage of scores
falls within -1 and +1
standard deviations of the
mean? Within -2 and +2?
Within -3 and +3?
```
```
Approximately 68%,
95%, and 99% of scores
fall within -1 and +1, -2
and +2, and -3 and +3
standard deviations,
respectively
```
63
```
Expressed as the percentage
of individuals in a standardized
group scoring below an
individual's raw score,
________ are often helpful
when providing feedback from
intelligence and psychological
tests.
```
Percentile
| ranks
64
```
TRUE or FALSE: When
raw scores are
transformed into
z-scores, the shape of
the distribution stays the
same.
```
```
TRUE: When score
transformation does not
change distribution
shape, it is called "linear
transformation"
```
65
```
In a normal distribution,
a z-score of +1.0 is
equal to a percentile
rank of ________ and is
therefore the cutoff point
for the top ________.
```
```
84; 16% (the same is true
for the converse- a z-score
of -1.0 has a percentile
rank of 16 and is therefore
the cutoff for the bottom
16%)
```
66
```
The extent to which a sample
mean can be expected to
deviate from its corresponding
population mean is referred to
as the ________ and is
calculated using the formula:
________.
```
```
Standard Error of the
Mean (SEM);
standard
deviation/square root
of N (N = sample size)
```
67
```
In a normal distribution,
a z-score of ________
is equal to a percentile
rank of 98 and is
therefore the cutoff point
for the top ________.
```
```
+2.0; 2% (the same is
true for the converse- a
z-score of -2.0 has a
percentile rank of 2 and
is therefore the cutoff for
the bottom 2%)
```
68
```
When calculating the
standard error of the
mean, what occurs as
the sample size (N)
becomes larger?
```
```
Error becomes
smaller (there is an
inverse relationship
between sample
size and SEM)
```
69
```
The formula for a
________ involves
subtracting the sample
mean from the obtained
raw score, then dividing
that value by the standard
deviation.
```
Z-score
70
```
The standard error of
the mean is ________
proportional to the
standard deviation and
________ proportional
to the sample size.
```
Directly;
| inversely
71
```
This term refers to the inaccuracies
that are a result of observing a
sample rather than the whole
population when using inferential
statistical methods; it is the
difference between the statistic
(sample value) and the parameter
(population value).
```
Sampling
error (or "error
of the mean")
72
```
The difference between
________ hypothesis testing
and ________ hypothesis
testing is that the former states
the hypothesis in theoretical
terms while the latter states the
hypothesis in terms that are
quantitatively testable.
```
Research;
| statistical
73
```
The hypothesis that the
independent variable will have no
effect on the dependent variable is
called the ________ hypothesis,
while the ________ hypothesis
hypothesizes the independent
variable will have a significant effect
on the dependent variable.
```
Null (H1:
u1=u2);
alternative (H1:
u1/=u2)
74
```
On a graphical
representation, when
alpha level is changed
from .05 to .01, the
________ region gets
smaller and the ________
region gets larger.
```
```
Rejection (i.e., level at
which null hypothesis is
rejected); retention (i.e.,
level at which null
hypothesis is retained)
```
75
```
The hypothesis that the implementation
of a certain OCD treatment program will
significantly reduce obsessions and
compulsive behaviors exemplifies a
________ hypothesis, while the
hypothesis that a new therapy approach
will change the mean test scores of
patients with schizophrenia exemplifies a
________ hypothesis.
```
```
One-tailed (the direction
of the change is
hypothesized);
two-tailed (no direction
of change is
hypothesized)
```
76
A ________ occurs when the null hypothesis is
not rejected when it is false- basically, the
researcher finds no significant difference when in
the population a difference does exist, creating a
"false-negative." ________ is the probability of
making such an error, while ________ refers to
probability of not making such an error (or, the
probability of rejecting the null when it is false).
```
Type II error; beta;
power (refers to
"sensitivity of a
statistical test;"
equal to 1-beta)
```
77
A ________ occurs when the null hypothesis is
rejected when it is true- basically, the researcher
finds a significant difference when in the
population no difference exists, creating a
"false-positive." The ________ level refers to the
probability of making such an error and is usually
set at the .01 or .05 level, which means a
researcher would reject the null hypothesis if the
test indicates that there is a 1% or less or 5% or
less chance of the null hypothesis being true.
Type I
error; alpha
(p value)
78
```
While the power of a
statistical test is not known
prior to a study and usually
remains unknown, what
are some ways a
researcher can increase
power?
```
```
Increase sample size,
increase the pre-set alpha
level, use a one-tailed
(directional) test, increase
the difference between
levels of the independent variable
```
79
```
The probability at
which a researcher
rejects the null
hypothesis as being
true is called what?
```
```
The significance
level, usually
expressed "the
results were
significant (p < .01)"
```
80
```
TRUE or FALSE: As the
probability of making a
Type I error increases, the
probability of making a
Type II error decreases,
and vice-versa.
```
```
TRUE: Hence
researchers must
consider real-world
consequences of
making these errors
when setting alpha
```
81
In research where the hypothesis is
counter-intuitive and contradicts previous
findings/theory, alpha should be set at ________
in order to reduce the chances of making a
________ error (remember "COLD FUSION");
however, alpha should be set at ________ in
situations where making a ________ error might
have devastating effects (e.g., research on new
medicine to treat a life-threatening illness).
A lower value
(.01); Type I error;
a higher value
(.05); Type II error
82
```
What assumption
is shared by both
parametric and
nonparametric
tests?
```
Random
selection of
subjects from
the population
83
```
The ANOVA and the t-test
are both examples of
________ tests, which are
used only for data
measured on ________ or
________ scales.
```
Parametric;
interval;
ratio
84
```
The probability of:
rejecting a true null
hypothesis = ________;
retaining a false null
hypothesis = ________;
rejecting a false null
hypothesis = ________.
```
Alpha;
beta;
power
85
```
Parametric tests are based on
the assumptions of ________
(dependent variable values are
normally distributed in the
population) and ________
(variance of all research groups
is equal).
```
Normal
distribution;
homogeneity of
variance
86
```
In determining whether to reject
or retain the null hypothesis,
the statistical value is
compared to a ________,
which is dependent on 1) the
pre-set alpha level and 2) the
degrees of freedom for the
statistical test used.
```
Critical
| value
87
```
Designed to test hypotheses based
on dependent variables measured
on a ________ or ________ scale,
________ tests make no
assumption of distribution
("distribution free"), which can
decrease power, and include
chi-square and Mann-Whitney U.
```
Nominal;
ordinal;
nonparametric
88
```
This statistic is used to test
whether there is a
significant difference
between 2 different
means; it cannot be used
to compare any more than
2 means.
```
t-Test (or
Student's
t-test)
89
A researcher wants to test the hypothesis that
children in a low-SES school district receive less
direct teacher contact than the national average
for children. The researcher learns from a recent
national survey that children receive an average
of 6 hours per week of direct contact with their
teacher; however, in her survey of children from
a low-SES district, the average was 2.5 hours
per week. What statistic would be used to
determine if significance exists?
```
One sample t-test: used
to compare the mean of
a single sample to a
known population mean
(degrees of freedom = N
- 1)
```
90
```
The ANOVA statistic (F-ratio) is
based on a comparison of
________ variance and
________ variance, wherein
the greater the former is over
the latter, the greater the effect
of the treatment (independent
variable).
```
Between-group
(or treatment);
within-group (or
error)
91
A researcher interested in studying the effects of
a novel therapeutic approach to improve social
function selects 100 people diagnosed with an
anxiety disorder. Subjects are randomly
assigned to either a group receiving the new
treatment or a group receiving CBT, referred to
as ________ samples. Data from a measure of
social function is collected following 12 weeks of
treatment. The researcher utilizes the ________
to test whether there is a significant difference
between the groups.
Independent; t-test
for independent
samples (degrees
of freedom = N - 2)
92
```
The first step in determining
the F-ratio of a one-way
ANOVA involves calculating
the between-group and
within-group ________, which
is a measure of variability of a
data set.
```
Sum of
| Squares
93
```
This test is used to compare
the means of samples that are
related to each other, such as
in a pretest-posttest design
where the same group of
subjects is measured before
and after treatment, then the
means compared.
```
```
t-Test for correlated
samples (degrees of
freedom = N - 1,
where N = pairs of
scores)
```
94
```
For a one-way ANOVA,
degrees of
freedom-between = k - 1
where k equals ________;
degrees of freedom-within
= N - k where N equals
________.
```
Number of
groups; total
number of
subjects
95
A researcher interested in determining whether
significant differences exist between 3 or more
independent groups on a single independent
variable would utilize a/an ________, yielding
a/an ________ statistic that would indicate
whether there was a difference in group means
without telling where the differences lie; should
the test yield significance, ________ tests can be
used to specify the differences.
```
One-way ANOVA
(can be used with 2
groups, but usually
t-test is simpler);
F-ratio; post-hoc
```
96
```
Between-group variance is estimated by
________, which is calculated by dividing
Sum of Squares-between by degrees of
freedom-between; similarly, within-group
variance is estimated by ________ ,
which is calculated by dividing Sum of
Squares-within by degrees of
freedom-within; the F-ratio is then
calculated by dividing ________ by
________.
```
```
Mean Squares
Between (MSB);
Mean Squares
Within (MSW);
MSB; MSW
```
97
```
Should an F-ratio be
higher than the critical
value at a significance
level of .05, how will the
significance be indicated?
How about at the .01
level?
```
```
A single asterisk
indicates significance at
the .05 level (p* < .05),
while 2 asterisks
indicate significance at
the .01 level (p** < .01)
```
98
```
A/an ________ is
used when a study
involves more than 1
independent variable
and 3 or more groups.
```
Factorial
| ANOVA
99
```
Assuming a one-way ANOVA
produces significance, ________
comparisons can help determine
where the differences lie; however,
when multiple comparisons are
conducted, the probability that a/an
________ will occur increases,
which is referred to as ________.
```
Post-hoc; Type I
error;
experiment-wise
error rate
100
```
The benefit of using a factorial
ANOVA over separate one-way
ANOVAs is that a factorial ANOVA
produces both ________ (effect of
1 independent variable by itself)
and ________ (effects of an
independent variable at the different
levels of the other independent
variables).
```
Main effects;
interaction
effects
101
```
The most conservative
post-hoc test is the ________
(protects against Type I error,
which increases chance of
Type II error); the ________
protects against Type I error
when only pairwise
comparisons are made.
```
Scheffe;
| Tukey
102
```
In a factorial ANOVA, the
differences between the
________ are examined to
determine the main
effects, while ________
are examined to determine
interaction effects.
```
Marginal
means; cell
means
103
```
In a study where all of the
subjects receive all of the levels
of the independent variable (so
they are not split into separate
groups for comparison), or the
study involves more than 2
matched groups, what statistic
is used?
```
One way
ANOVA for
repeated
measures
104
In graphical form,
how is one able to
tell if there is an
interaction effect?
Interaction
effects are
indicated when
lines cross
105
```
What parametric statistical
procedure is used when a
study involves 1 or more
independent variables and
2 or more dependent
variables?
```
Multivariate
Analysis of
Variance
(MANOVA)
106
```
TRUE or FALSE: In
order to use chi-square,
it is necessary that all
observations be
independent of each
other.
```
```
TRUE:
"Before-and-after"
studies violate this
rule and thus cannot
use chi-square
```
107
```
What test is used to
assess whether observed
frequencies differ
significantly from what is
expected under the null
hypothesis when data is
categorical (i.e., nominal)?
```
Chi-square
108
Two tests used when data is rank-ordered (i.e.,
ordinal) include the ________, used when a
study involves 2 independent groups, and the
________, used when correlated groups are
compared; both can also be used when interval
or ratio data does not meet the assumptions of
parametric tests (i.e., normal distribution,
homogeneity of variance), in which case data
would be converted to ranks.
Mann-Whitney
U; Wilcoxon
Matched-Pairs
Test
109
```
A chi-square that involves collecting
categorical data from only 1 sample
of subjects is called ________
chi-square test, while a ________
chi-square test involves adding
another variable in addition to the
one that gives rise to the
classification categories.
```
Single-sample;
| multiple-sample
110
```
What test is used
when data is
rank-ordered and
more than 2 groups
are to be compared?
```
Kruskal-Wallis
| Test
111
```
How are expected
frequencies (fe)
calculated for both a
single-sample and a
multiple-sample
chi-square?
```
```
single-sample fe = N (#
of subjects)/number of
cells; multiple-sample fe
= (column total x row
total)/total N
```
112
```
The nonparametric
alternative for a: one-way
ANOVA is ________;
t-test for independent
samples is ________;
t-test for correlated
samples is ________.
```
Kruskal-Wallis Test;
Mann-Whitney U;
Wilcoxon
Matched-Pairs Test
113
```
Typically ranging from -1.0
to +1.0, the ________
indicates the ________
(indicated by the absolute
value) and ________
(indicated by the sign) of a
relationship.
```
Correlation
coefficient;
magnitude;
direction
114
```
This term refers to the squared
correlation coefficient that
indicates the percentage of
variability in one measure that
is accounted for by variability in
the other measure; it is one
way of interpreting the Pearson
r.
```
Coefficient of
| determination
115
```
This correlation coefficient is used
to calculate the relationship
between 2 variables measured on
an interval or ratio scale (e.g.,
relationship between IQ and scores
on the SAT); it is the most
commonly used correlation
coefficient.
```
Pearson Product
Moment
Coefficient
(Pearson r)
116
```
A variable that can have an infinite
number of values between 2 given
points is called ________ (e.g.,
income), while a ________ variable
is a variable that categorizes data
into 2 distinct groups (e.g., high/low,
true/false, male/female).
```
Continuous;
| dichotomous
117
```
A correlation is referred to as ________
when Y is impacted differently by
different levels of X (e.g., children's
anxiety level [X] and learning capacity
[Y]: children learn best with moderate
anxiety, and worse with low or high
anxiety), in which case Pearson r cannot
be used and the ________ coefficient
would be used.
```
Curvilinear;
| eta
118
```
TRUE or FALSE: It is
possible to transform
continuous variables
into dichotomous
variables for use in a
correlation coefficient.
```
```
TRUE: The variable is
then referred to as
"artificially
dichotomous," though it
is not recommended to
do this
```
119
```
An assumption of the use of
Pearson r is ________, which is
when the dispersion of scores on a
scattergram is equal; the term
________ refers to there being
more dispersion at some parts of
the scattergram than others, which
lowers the Pearson r coefficient.
```
Homoscedasticity;
| heteroscedasticity
120
Identify the correlation coefficient to use: X and Y
= continuous (income x IQ); X = true dichotomy
and Y = continuous (gender x income); X =
artificial dichotomy and Y = continuous (income
as "upper" or "lower" x IQ); X and Y = true
dichotomy (a MMPI-2 question x gender); X and
Y = artificial dichotomy (income as "upper" or
"lower" x IQ as "high" or "low"); X and Y =
ordinally ranked (relationship between scores
given by 2 judges of a competition).
Pearson r; Point
Biserial; Biserial;
phi; Tetrachoric;
Spearman's rho
121
```
An equation used to
estimate the value of one
variable based on the
value of the other, when
they are correlated, is
referred to as what?
```
Regression
| equation
122
The predictive power of the multiple regression
equation is highest when predictor variables
have ________ correlations with the criterion
variable and ________ correlations with other,
as this implies that each predictor variable is
providing new information about the criterion;
when predictors are highly correlated with each
other, referred to as ________, combining them
produces no substantially new information.
High; low;
| multicollinearity
123
```
A researcher is interested in
predicting the GRE scores of
current undergraduate students
based on their college GPA, which
had previously been shown to be
correlated. In this situation, GRE
scores are the ________ variable
while the ________ variable is
GPA.
```
Criterion
(dependent);
predictor
(independent)
124
TRUE or FALSE:
Multiple R can be
both positive and
negative.
```
FALSE: Multiple R can
never be negative, as
the calculations do not
allow for negative
outcome
```
125
```
A line that passes through as
many dots as possible on a
scattergram is called a
regression line, or ________,
which implies a linear
relationship between 2
variables and is an assumption
underlying regression.
```
Line of
| best fit
126
```
Is it ever possible for a
multiple correlation
coefficient (multiple R) to
be lower than the highest
simple correlation between
an individual predictor and
the criterion?
```
```
NO: Adding
predictors will never
decrease multiple R,
though it may not
increase it either
```
127
```
A ________ is used to assess
the relationship between 2 or
more predictor variables and a
single criterion variable; the use
of scores on more than 1
predictor to estimate scores on
a criterion is referred to as
________.
```
Multiple correlation
(Multiple R);
multiple regression
128
```
A researcher who has a large
number of potential predictor
variables wants to maximize
predictive power by retaining
the predictors that, combined,
have a high multiple correlation
with the criterion. What
technique should be used?
```
Stepwise
multiple
regression
129
```
While multiple correlation
indicates the magnitude of the
relationship between multiple
predictors and a single criterion
variables, ________ is used
when there are multiple
predictor and multiple criterion
variables.
```
Canonical
| correlation
130
```
What technique involves
identifying different scores
on a series of predictors
that a person must score
at or above to be predicted
as successful on the
criterion?
```
Multiple
| cutoff
131
```
What coefficient is used to
assess 2 nominally scaled
variables, each having
more than 2 categories
(e.g., political party x DSM
diagnostic category)?
```
Contingency
| coefficient
132
```
Research results reveal that there
is a relatively high correlation
between 2 variables, though the
researcher suspects there may be
an additional variable contributing
to this relationship. What technique
might be used to statistically control
for the effects of the other variable?
```
Partial
| correlation
133
```
What correlational technique
involves predicting a categorical
criterion/dependent variable by one
or more continuous
predictor/independent variables
(e.g., membership in "high
achievement" or "low achievement"
group based on WAIS,
Bender-Gestalt, and SAT scores)?
```
```
Discriminant
function analysis,
which is the
statistical opposite
of MANOVA
```
134
```
What technique is used for
testing and estimating
causal relationships using
a combination of statistical
data and qualitative causal
assumptions?
```
Structural
equation
modeling
(SEM)
135
```
When would logistic
regression, which is used
to predict the criterion
group one belongs to, be
used in place of
discriminant function
analysis?
```
```
When the assumptions of
normal distribution and
homogeneity of variance are
not met and/or when the
predictor variables are not
continuous (DFA predictors
must be continuous)
```
136
________ is used to verify directed (one-way)
causal relationships (dependencies) between
variables, while ________ can be used to verify
both one-way and two-way causal flows; further,
________ can be used only in models that
include observed variables (i.e., measurable),
while ________ can be used in models that
specify observed and latent variables (inferred as
being measured).
Path analysis;
LISREL; path
analysis;
LISREL
137
```
A researcher is not so much
interested in determining the
magnitude of relationship between
quantitative variables (interval or
ratio) as determining the course of
change in the dependent variable
over time. What correlational
technique would be used in this
case?
```
Trend
| analysis
138
```
According to the ________: (1) the shape
of the sampling distribution of means
approaches a normal shape as sample
size increases, regardless of whether the
population of distribution scores is
normally distributed or not; and (2) the
mean of the sampling distribution of
means equals the population mean.
```
Central
Limit
Theorem
139
```
The ________ describes the
principle underlying the construction
of a regression line, stating that a
regression line is places at a
location on the scattergram that
results in the lowest possible sum
of squared deviations of points from
the line.
```
Least
squares
criterion
140
```
The standard
deviation of the
sampling distribution
of means is
equivalent to what?
```
The standard
error of the
mean
141
```
A ________ distribution is the entire
set of cases a researcher is
interested in, a ________
distribution is a set of scores
obtained from the sample chosen
from a population, and a ________
distribution (of any statistic) is the
distribution of the statistic for all
possible samples of a given size.
```
Population;
sample;
sampling
142
```
A statistical test is considered
"________" when the Type I
error rate is not significantly
increased when assumptions of
parametric tests are violated;
basically, if they are violated,
the results may still be
accurate.
```
Robust
143
```
By choosing numerous
samples of size N from a
population, recording the value
of the mean from each sample,
then repeating this procedure
thousands of times, what would
be constructed?
```
Sampling
distribution
of the mean
144
```
In a time-series
analysis, the correlation
between values
obtained at different
points in time is referred
to as what?
```
Autocorrelation
145
```
This theorem shows how a
conditional probability depends
on its inverse (e.g.,
mammograms are 95%
accurate, though a positive
mammogram is likely
inaccurate based on the
relative rarity of breast cancer).
```
Bayes' Theorem
(conditional
probabilities and
base rates)
