Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

Cancers of pelvis, including prostate, spread to lumbar spine via the

A

Vertebral venous plexus (including prostatic venous plexus in men)

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2
Q

breast and lung cancers metastasize to spine via

A

Vertebral venous plexus (communicates with azygos vein)

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3
Q

Venous drainage from testis, epididymis and ductus deferences. Drains into testicular veins

A

Pampiniform plexus

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4
Q

Classic triad of congenital rubella

A

Cataracts, sensory-neural deafness and PDA

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5
Q

How do progestin-only (norethindrone) and levonorgestrel IUD work as contraceptives

A

Thicken cervical mucus to impair sperm motility

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6
Q

How do combined hormonal contraceptives and progestin implant/injection function as contraceptives

A

Suppress GnRH and gonadotropin secretion to inhibit ovulation

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7
Q

How does Copper IUD function

A

Cytotoxic inflammatory response in uterus to impair sperm migration

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8
Q

Which hormone causes increased insulin resistance in pregnancy during second and third trimester

A

Human placental lactogen (Secreted by synctiotrophoblast)

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9
Q

Bulk-related symptoms like pressure and constipation that are relieved by “splinting” to defecate (manual deflection of obstruction) likely indicate

A

Posterior subserosal uterline leiyomyoma (fibroid)

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10
Q

How does progesterone withdrawal cause menses

A

Loss of progesterone leads to increased prostaglandin, which vasoconstricts spiral arteries. Increased metalloproteases by endometrial stromal cells degrade ECM and endometrial epithelium undergoes apoptosis, thus leading to menstruation

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11
Q

Which arteries can be ligated during postpartum hemorrhage to stop bleeding and maintain fertility?

A

Internal iliac arteries (Uterine is branch of them); blood flow maintained by ovarian anastamoses

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12
Q

Which blood pressure medications are teratogens that can lead to renal agenesis/malformation (oligohydramnios) and hypoplasia of skull?

A

ACE inhibitors or ARBs (Angiotensin II is needed for renal function in babies)

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13
Q

Peyronie disease

A

Fibrotic plaque of tunica albuginea causes abnormal curvature of penis and erectile dysfunction

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14
Q

Bowen disease

A

In situ carcinoma of penile shaft that presents as leukoplakia

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15
Q

Erythroplasia of Queyrat

A

In situ carcinoma of glans that presents as erythroplakia

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16
Q

Bowenoid papulosis

A

In situ squamous cell carcinoma of penis that presents as reddish papules

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17
Q

HPV causes which cancer in males

A

Penile squamous cell carcinoma

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18
Q

Cause of hypospadias (opening of urethra on inferior fold)

A

Failure of urethral folds to close

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19
Q

Cause of epispadias (opening of urethra on superior surface of penis)

A

Abnormal positioning of genital tubercle. Associated with bladder exstrophy

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20
Q

Which HPV strains cause condyloma acuminatum

A

6 and 11

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21
Q

Necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of inguinal lymphatics and lymph nodes caused by

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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22
Q

Fibrotic healing of lymphogranuloma venerum can involve perianal area with

A

rectal strictures

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23
Q

Cryptorchidism increases risk of which condition

A

Germ cell tumors (seminomas)

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24
Q

Common cause of orchitis in older adults

A

E. Coli or Pseudomonas

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25
Non-necrotizing granulomas involving seminiferous tubules suggest
Autoimmune orchitis
26
Can occur due to failure of testes to attach to inner lining of scrotum via processus vaginalis
Testicular torsion
27
An adolescent male presenting with sudden, unilateral testicular pain, absent cremasteric reflex, nausea/vomiting and fever likely has
Testicular torsion
28
Left scrotum with "bag of worms" appearance is associated with increased risk of
Left-sided renal cell carcinoma
29
Scrotum that is "bag of worms" in appearance occurs due to
Dilation of spermatic vein due to impaired drainage (varicocele)
30
Common cause of hydroceles
Incomplete closure of processus vaginalis
31
Scrotal swelling that can be transilluminated is likely
Hydrocele
32
Cyst due to dilated epididymal duct or rete testes is a
Spermatocele
33
Lymph drainage of testes and epididymis
Para-aortic and lumbar lymph nodes
34
Small nodule on testes with elevated beta-hCG, symptoms of hyperthyroidism (weight loss, heat intolerance, lack of sleep) and gynecomastia are suggestive of what in a male?
Choriocarcinoma
35
Choriocarcinoma is a malignant tumor of which origin
Synctiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts
36
Teratomas in males vs females
Malignant in males if found in 20s-40s; benign in females
37
Most common testicular tumor in male infants, characteristically elevated AFP
Yolk sac tumor
38
Testicular tumor with poorest prognosis ; chemo can cause differentiation into different type of tumor
Embryonic carcinoma
39
Characterized by immature, primitive cells organized in irregular patterns that may produce glands and sites of necrosis and hemorrhage
Embryonic carcinoma
40
Rapidly metastasize, variable response to cancer therapy
Non-seminoma germ cell tumors
41
Slow to metastasize, excellent response to therapy
Seminoma
42
Tumor of maternal fetal tissue composed of elements from 2-3 germ layers
Teratoma
43
Increased placental ALP
Seminoma
44
Hemategnous mets to lungs and brain in male
Choriocarcinoma
45
Presents as painful hemorrhagic testicular mass; usually mixed with other tumor types (increased AFP when mixed)
Embryonic carcinoma
46
Which male organ is located below bladder and anterior to rectum?
Prostate
47
Which two lobes tend to undergo hyperplasia in BPH?
Lateral and middle lobes
48
Increased risk of bladder diverticuli, hydronephrosis and UTIs associated with which condition?
BPH
49
Side effects of 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors
Sexual dysfunction (decreased libido), gynecomastia
50
Treatment for BPH
alpha-1-receptor antagonists (Terazosin) to relax smooth muscle; 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors (finasteride) to decrease DHT production
51
treatment for prostate cancer
Leuprolide (continuous GnRH to shut down FSH and LH) | Flutamide (competitive androgen receptor antagonist)
52
Injury to which nerve can cause erectile dysfunction after prostatectomy
Prostatic plexus
53
This nerve innervates the external urethral and anal sphincters and provides sensory innervation of external gnitalia
Pudendal
54
Injury to this nerve can cause fecal incontinence, decreased penile sensation or external urethral sphincter paralysis
Pudendal
55
Which nerve mediates the cremasteric reflex
Genitofemoral (L1-L2)
56
Gonadal arteries and veins are branches of
abdominal aorta, slightly below renal arteries
57
This artery travels in front of IVC and behind ileum
Right gonadal artery
58
This artery travels behind left colic and sigmoid arteries and iliac colon
Left gonadal artery
59
Arises off common iliac artery and becomes femoral artery
External iliac artery
60
Arises off common iliac artery and supplies pelvic wall/viscera, buttock, female repro organs, bladder and medial thigh
Internal iliac artery
61
Branch of internal iliac that provides blood to anal canal, scrotum and penis
Pudendal
62
Small/firm testes, azoospermia, tall stature and gynecomastia suggest
Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)
63
Levels of testosterone, LH and FSH and estradiol in Klinefelter
Decreased testosterone, increased LH and FSH,, increased estradiol
64
Lymph drainage of glans penis and superficial nodes
Deep inguinal nodes
65
Triad of Kartagener syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia)
Situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis (persistent bronchial dilation)
66
Most common causative pathogen for acute mastitis
S. Aureus (Tx: Dicloxacillin)
67
Erythematous nipple with purulent discharge in a breast-feeding woman suggets
Acute mastitis
68
Subareolar mass with nipple retraction in a female smoker suggests
Periductal mastitis
69
What causes periductal mastitis
Vitamin A deficiency results in squamous metaplasia of lactiferous ducts, producing some degree of keratin that plug/block ducts leading to inflammation
70
Periareolar mass (inverted nipple) with green-brown nipple discharge in multi-parous post-menopausal woman
Mammary duct ectasia
71
Biopsy of Mammary duct ectasia would show
Inflammation with plasma cells
72
50% of cases are the result of trauma. Biopsy reveals giant cells and calcifications
Fat necrosis of breast
73
Risk of invasive cancer with fibrosis, cysts and apocrine metaplasia
No risk
74
Risk of invasive breast cancer with ductal hyperplasia and sclerosing adenosis
2x increased risk
75
Risk of invasive breast cancer with atypical hyperplasia (dark nuclei that fill acini space)
5x increased risk
76
Inner layer of lobules and ducts
Luminal cell layer (produces milk)
77
Outer layer of ducts and lobules
Myoepithelial cell layer (pushes milk forward)
78
What causes nipple retraction in periductal mastitis?
Myofibroblasts contract during healing process (fibrosis) of breast tissue, pulling in nipple tissue
79
Two characteristics of mammary duct ectasia
green-brown nipple discharge and plasma cells on biopsy
80
Unilateral bloody nipple discharge in a premenopausal woman. Biopsy reveals papillae with two cell layers.
Intradutal papilloma
81
Papillary carcinoma vs adenoma
Papillary carcinoma is more common in older women (post-menopausal). Both have bloody nipple discharge due to fibrovascular papillae, but the papillae in carcinoma do not have myoepithelial layer
82
Well-circumscribed, mobile marble-like mass in pre-menopausal woman likely suggests
Fibroadenoma (most common benign tumor in pre-meni females. no risk of carcinoma. Estrogen sensitive)
83
Difference between fibroadenoma and Phylloides tumor
Both are tumor of fibrous tissue and glands but Phyllodes has OVERGROWTH of fibrous component and is found in post-menopausal women
84
"Leaf-like" projections seen on biopsy suggest
Phyllodes tumor (can be malignant in some cases), seen in post-menopausal women; suggestive of genetic inheritance of breast cancer
85
6 risk factors for breast cancer
female gender, age, early menarche/late menopause, obesity, atypical hyperplasia, first-degree relative (sister, mother, daughter)
86
Which part of breast do most malignant tumors arise from?
Duct lobular unit
87
Which test distinguishes benign from malignant breast pathologies
Biopsy
88
High grade cells with necrosis and dystrophic calcification inc enter of ducts is what type of DCIS
Comedo type
89
Define Paget disease of breast
DCIS that moves up to skin of nipple. Presents with nipple ulceration and erythema
90
Detection of Paget disease of breast is important because
It is almost always associated with ductal carcinoma of breast (malignant breast cancer)
91
Appearance of Paget disease on biopsy
Scattered "fried egg" appearance cells
92
Most common type of malignant breast cancer
Invasive ductal carcinoma
93
How does DCIS present on mammography
calcifications in breast (no mass)
94
How does Invasive ductal carcinoma present on mammography
Mass greater than 1cm)
95
Appearance of invasive ductal carcinoma on biopsy
Duct-like structures in connective tissue stroma
96
Biopsy of Tubular carcinoma (Invasive ductal carcinoma)
You see a lot of ducts, but they lack myoepithelial cells also see stromal background good prognosis
97
Biopsy of Mucinous carcinoma (Invasive ductal carcinoma subtype)
Ductal cells floating in mucus pool (light-lavendar background)
98
Prognosis of tubular and mucinous carcinoma
Excellent
99
Average age of occurrence for mucinous caricnoma
70 years
100
Highly erythematous and inflamed breast that does not resolve with antibiotics is suggestive of
Inflammatory carcinoma
101
Biopsy of Inflammatory carcinoma (subtype of Invasive Ductal carcinoma)
Hyperplasia of cells in dermal lymphatics, decreasing their drainage and causing inflammation (filled circle of purple cells in pink stromal tissue)
102
Prognosis of inflammatory carcinoma
Very poor (double negative, ER-/PR-)
103
Inflammatory carcinoma is more common in
African American women around 50 years, higher BMI (obese)
104
Well circumscribed mass that mimics fibroadenoma on mammography. Biopsy characterized by large, high-grade cells growing in sheets with lymphocytes and plasma cells
Medullary carcinoma (Invasive duct carcinoma
105
Patients with BRCA1 mutations have an increased risk of which type of Invasive Duct Carcinoma subtype?
Medullary carcinoma
106
Multifocial and bilateral masses that have been incidentally found on mammography suggest
Lobular carinoma in situ (mutation in E-cadherin so cells are not attached to one another)
107
Treatment for lobular carcinoma in situ
Tamoxifen (estrogen antagonist)
108
Risk of progression to invasive carcinoma for LCIS
Low
109
Biopsy showing cells in single-file pattern and E-cadherin mutations suggest
Invasive lobular carcinoma
110
Most useful prognostic factor in breast cancer
Spread to axillary lymph nodes
111
ER and PR associated breast cancers are treated with
Tamoxifen (antiestrogenic agents)
112
Her2/neu (c-erbB2) amplication is treated with
Traztuzumab (anti-Her2/neu)
113
What is Her2/neu
Cell membrane growth receptor (oncogene)
114
Which population is susceptible to triple negative breast carcinoma?
African American womoen
115
Gene responsible for breast cancer in males
BRCA2
116
Gene associated with familial breast and ovarian cancers
BRCA1
117
Where is the highest density of breast tissue in males
Underneath nipple (subareolar) ; may produce discharge
118
In pregnancy, DIC is mediated by which factor
Tissue factor produced by placental trophoblast