Renal Path, Repro Drugs, Neuro Odd ends Flashcards

1
Q

What disease is this via urine specimen?

A

Crohn’s Disease

Calcium stone, hypocitaturia

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2
Q

What bacteria causes this stone?

A

Proteus Mirabilis

Staphylococcus Saprophyticus

Klebsiella

Struvite or Ammonium Magnesium Phosphate

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3
Q

What disease can cause this stone, what is the treatment?

A

Gout, give allopurinol, alkalize urine

Uric Acid

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4
Q

What disease can cause this?

What three things are there a defect in reabsorbing?

A

Cystine reabsorbing PCT transporter, Fanconi Syndrome, Cystine issues

Ornithine, Lysine, Arginine

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5
Q

Where does this carcinoma orginate from?

Wha is the immunotherapy?

A

PCT

aldesleukin stops IL-2

Renal Cell Carcinoma

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6
Q

Where does this benign epithelial cell tumor arise from?

What is seen in the path stain?

A

Collecting Ducts

Large eosinophilic cells with abundant mitochondria without perinuclear clearing

Renal Oncocytoma

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7
Q

Wilms tumor

Aniridia (absence of iris)

Genitourinary malformations

Mental Retardation

What is the disease or chromosome deletion?

A

WT1 deletion, chromosome 11

WAGR

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8
Q

Wilms tumor

early onset nephrotic syndrome

male pseudohermaphroditism

Located where?

What am I?

A

Denys Drash

WT1 mutation Chromosome 11

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9
Q

Wilms Tumor

Macroglossia

Organomegaly

Hemihyperplasia

Neonatal hypoglycemia

What am I?

What is the chromosome deletion?

A

WT-2 Chromosome 11

Beckwith-Wiedemann

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10
Q

Painless hematuria, no casts, what could I be?

A

Transtional Cell Carcinoma

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11
Q

Associated with phenacetin, smoking, aniline, and cyclophosphamide

A

Transitional Cell Carcinoma

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12
Q

Why does adenocarcinoma of bladder happen?

A

urachal remnant, cystitis gland, and estrophy of lower bladder

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13
Q

Squamous Cell carcinoma of the bladder is caused by what?

A

Schistosoma haematobium, chronic cystitis, smoking, chronic nephrolithiasis, painless hematuria

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14
Q

What two flavors of this carcinoma are there?

A

Flat –> mutations in p53

Papillary –> low grade to high grade

Urothelial Carcinoma

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15
Q

What differentiates UTI vs pyelonephritis generally?

A

UTI has no fever

pyelonephritis has a fever

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16
Q

What is one way that we can have thyrodization of the kidney?

A

chronic pyelonephritis

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17
Q

What disease is grossly orange nodules that can mimic tumor nodules; characterized by widespread kiney damage due to granulomatous tissue containing foamy macrophages?

A

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

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18
Q

What renal disease causes a subperioseal thinning of bones?

A

Renal Osteodystrophy

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19
Q

What has brown casts in the urine, can cause metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia?

A

acute tubular necrosis

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20
Q

What is this patient at an increased risk thereof?

A

Berry aneuryms, MVP, benign Hepatic cysts

PKD1 and PKD2, adults

AD PKD

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21
Q

What is this?

Where are the cysts coming from?

What is the main side effect to worry about?

A

AR PKD

Dilation of collecting ducts

Significant oliguric renal failure

hepatic fibrosis, cysts in the liver

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22
Q

Simple Cysts are asymmptomatic, complex cysts have an increased risk of what?

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

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23
Q

Medullary Cystic disease is due to cysts being formed where?

What will they show up as on an echo?

A

medullary collecting duct

shrunken kidneys on an echo

24
Q

Angiomyolipoma causes hamartomas that are harmless, what is the overall risk and what disease could they potentially show up from?

A

risk of causing a hemorrhage

Tuberous sclerosis

25
Q

What disease show up with renal cell carcinoma, chromosome 3?

A

Von Hippel Lindau syndrome

26
Q

What gene is involved and allows the brain to split into two hemispheres?

What is the problem with the mutation, what medical problem eventually happens?

A

Sonic hedgehog gene

Holoprosencephaly

27
Q

What gene is required to make the apical ectodermal ridge, thickened ectoderm at the distal end of each developing limb?

A

Wnt-7 gene

dorsal-ventral axis

28
Q

What is produced at the apical ectodermal ridge, stimulates mitosis of the underlying mesoderm, lengthens the limbs?

A

FGF gene

29
Q

What is the segmental organization of embryo in a craniocaudal direction, codes for transcription factors?

A

Hox gene

There are appendages in the wrong locations

30
Q

Who has LOS name four bacteria?

A

N. Meningitis

N. Gonnorhea

H. Influenza

B. Pertussis

31
Q

What is the first line drug for nocturnal enuresis?

A

imipramine

32
Q

What is the alpha 2 antagonist of the week?

A

Mirtazipine

33
Q

What drug treats bipolar disorder, seizures at the same time?

What does it inhibit?

A

Valproic Acid

GABA transaminase

34
Q

What is used for migraine prevention that is no Sumatriptan, blocks Na channels?

A

Topiramate

35
Q

What does Tiagabine do?

What does Vigabatrin do?

A

Tie on car lift, inhibits GABA reuptake

Increases GABA but blocking GABA transaminase

36
Q

Embroyo clefts are from what?

Embroyo arches are from what?

A

ectoderm

mesoderm and neural crest

37
Q

What are the embyro pouches made from?

A

endoderm

38
Q

When it comes to babies:

What age is calculated from date of last menstrual period?

What age is calculated from date of conception?

A

Gestational age

Embryonic age (gestational age minus 2 weeks)

39
Q

What are the two things that can cause male breast cancer?

A

Klinefelter and BRCA2

40
Q

Ketamine and Barbituates which one increases or decreases cerebral blood flow?

A

Ketamine: increases blood flow

Barbituates: decrease blood flow

41
Q

What blocks the reuptake of serotonin, norepi, and is a weak opiod agonist?

A

Tramadol

42
Q

What drug blocks NMDA antagonist for Parkinson’s Disease?

A

memantine

43
Q

What treats ADHD, sketchy has the kid under the dock?

What treats ADHD, sketchy has the kid in the boat?

A

atomoxetine

amphetamines, “friend date”, treat ADHD, methylphenidate

44
Q

What are mifepristone with misoprostol used for?

What is ulipristal used for?

A

competive inhibitors of progestins at progesterone receptors: terminate the pregnancy

Emergency Contraception

45
Q

What does anastrozole, letrozole, and exemestane are all for what?

A

Aromatase inhibitors

ER+ breast cancer in postmenopausal women

46
Q

What is a direct arteriolar vasodilator and fixes androgenetic alopeica?

A

Minoxidil

47
Q

What is a PDE-5 inhibitor that increases cGMP that helps with BPH only?

A

Tadalafil

48
Q

What is a nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor at androgen receptors? This is used to treat prostatic carcinoma

A

Flutamide

49
Q

PNS neurons and Schwann Cells are from what embryo origin?

Astrocytes are from what embryo origin?

A

Neural Crest Cells

Neural Tube

50
Q

What disease is the lack of neuronal migration resulting in a smooth brain, no sulci and gyri?

A

Lissencephaly

51
Q

Acetylcholine is made in what area of the brain?

Elevated amounts are seen in what disease?

A

Basal Nucleus of Meynert

Parkinson Disease

52
Q

What is area of Dopamine Synthesis?

A

Ventral Tegmentum, SNc

53
Q

What area is GABA made in?

A

Nucleus Accumbens

54
Q

What area of the brain is Norepinephrine made in?

What part of the brain stem is bad?

A

Locus Ceruleus

Pons

55
Q

What are of the brain is Serotonin made?

What area of the brain stem is this?

A

Raphe Nucleus

Medulla

56
Q

Mesoderm defects are a VACTERL pattern, fill in the rest

V: Vertebrae

A: Anal Atresia

C: Cardiac Defects

T: ?

R: ?

L: ?

A

T: Tracheal-Esophageal Fistula

R: Renal Defects

L: Limb Defects