Heme and GI 1A Flashcards

1
Q

Angiodysplasia is tortuous dilation of vessels, most common cause of small bowel obstruction, right sided, what is other diseases is it associated with?

A

Aortic Stenosis and vWF disease

CREST Hereditary Hemorrhagic (Osler-Weber-Rendu)

Not in First Aid, put in the back of brain

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2
Q

Hirschsprung has what gene mutation? What genetic disease can cause Hirschsprung?

A

RET gene mutation Down Syndrome

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3
Q

When I have celiac’s disease, what can heme issue, can I get along with it?

A

T cell lymphoma Small Bowel Disorder

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4
Q

Non alcoholic fatty liver disease may cause what two things? What are the lab values?

A

Cirrhosis and HCC ALT > AST

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5
Q

When there are intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of damaged keratin filaments? What are the lab values?

A

Mallory bodies –> alcoholic hepatitis AST > ALT

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6
Q

When there are diffuse bridging fibrosis (via stellate cells) and regenerative fibrosis, what is this? (We are in the Liver)

A

Cirrhosis

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7
Q

Colorectal cancer what cannot be used for colorectal cancer screening?

A

CEA

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8
Q

What disease needs 5-aminosalicylic in order to slow disease progression?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

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9
Q

What is the misfolded gene product in the hepatocellular ER, PAS + globules, this will causes dyspnea without a history of smoking, not to mention liver damage?

A

alpha 1 anti-trypsin no alpha 1 anti-trypsin uninhibited elastase in alveoli, panacinar emphysema

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10
Q

Neonatal Jaundice: The first 24 hours of life, usually resolves without treatment, most likely?

A

No UDP-glucuronosyltransferase

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11
Q

Neonatal Jaundice: What happens during the first two weeks of life, most likely?

A

Biliary Atresia

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12
Q

Where do the GI malignancies move too?

A

Breast and Lung Cancer

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13
Q

What is malignant tumor of endothelial origin, associated with exposure to arsenic, vinyl chloride?

A

Angiosarcoma of the Liver

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14
Q

What is the most common benign liver tumor?

A

Cavernous Hemangioma

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15
Q

What two muscles is Zenker Diverticulum?

A

thyropharyngeal and cricopharyngeal parts of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor

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16
Q

What is acute gastritis with hypovolemia, via burns?

A

Curling ulcer

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17
Q

What is brain injury, increased vagal stimulation, high Ach, High H+ with acute gastritis?

A

Cushings Ulcer

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18
Q

What layer has Meissner Cells and secretes fluids?

A

Submucosa

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19
Q

What layer has Auerbach and motility?

A

Muscularis Externa

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20
Q

What is an enlarged gallbladder with painless jaundice?

A

Courvoisier Sign

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21
Q

What does Achlasia not have that causes an issue?

A

NO and VIP

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22
Q

What is a benign mixed tumor, most common salivary gland tumor, composed of chondromyxoid stroma, can be malignant?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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23
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor, in the mouth?

This has mucinous and squamous components?

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

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24
Q

What is a benign tumor with germinal centers that is usually smokers, salivary glands?

A

Warthin Tumor Also called papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

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25
Q

APC tumor chromosome 5, always in the rectum, thousands of polyps after puberty, quickly become cancer?

A

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

26
Q

What is FAP osseous and soft tissues tumors, skull or mandible, retinal pigment epithelium, impacted/supernumerary teeth?

A

Gardner Syndrome

27
Q

What is FAP or lynch syndrome and malignant CNS tumor (medulloblastoma, glioma)?

A

Turcot Syndrome

28
Q

Hyperpigment macules through GI tract, along with an increased risk of breast and GI cancers. What is the disease?

What is the gene mutation?

A

p10, PNET, and Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

29
Q

What is hamartomatous polyps in the colon, stomach, and small bowel, associated with and increase risk of CRC?

Chromosome 5 issue

A

Juvenile Polyposis Syndrome

30
Q

What polyp has mutations of APC and KRAS, and tubular histology with the possibility of becoming neoplastic?

What is a common clinical sign?

A

Adenomatous Polyps

Occult Bleeding

31
Q

What is CpG island methylator phenotype issues, can silence DNA mismatch, MMR gene, mutations in BRAF in well, neoplastic, what is this?

A

Serrated Polyps

32
Q

What area of the stomach does H. pylori?

What area of the stomach does autoimmune or hits H+/K+ ATPase?

A

H pylori: Antrum then body

Autoimmune: Body/Fundus

33
Q

Generally non-neoplastic: solitary lesions do not have significant risk of transformation, normal colonic tissue, with distorted architecture, what is this?

What two things is it associated with?

A

Hamartomatous Polyps

Peutz Jeghers Syndrome and Juvenile Polyposis

34
Q

What is the most common polyp, small, rectosigmoid location?

This can also evolve into serrated polyps, what is seen on histology?

A

Hyperplastic Polyps

Piling up of Goblet Cells

35
Q

What polyp is due to mucosal erosion in inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Inflammatory peudopolyps

36
Q

What is small, usually less than 5 mm, looks similar to normal mucosa, similar to normal mucosa?

A

Mucosal Polyps

37
Q

What type of polyps include lipoma, leiomyoma, fibroma, and other lesions?

A

Submucosal Polyps

38
Q

What does CHF increase after diagnosis, via the capillary game?

A

Increases hydrostatic pressure

39
Q

What is this?

Name 2 conditions this can show up in

A

Acathocytes (Spur Cells)

Liver Disease

Abetalipoproteinemia (states of cholesterol dysregulation)

40
Q

What is this?

Name 2 conditions this can show up in

A

Dacrocytes

Bone Marrow infiltration (myelofibrosis)

Thalassemias

41
Q

What is this?

Name one condition this shows up in

A

Degmacytes “bite cells’

G6PD deficiency

42
Q

What is this?

Name 3 conditions this shows up in

A

Echinocytes “Burr Cells”

End Stage Renal Disease

Liver Disease

Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency

DDX: different from acanthocyte; its projections are more uniform and smaller

43
Q

What is this?

What single disease does this show up in?

A

Elliptocytes

Hereditary Elliptocytosis, mutation in genes encoding RBC membrane proteins (spectrin)

44
Q

What is this?

What disease is this usually?

A

Macro-ovalocytes

Megaloblastic anemia (hypersemented PMNs)

45
Q

What is this?

What is this seen in?

A

Sideroblastic anemia, excess iron in mitochondria

Seen inside bone marrow smear with special staining (Prussian blue) only!!!

46
Q

What is this?

What 6 diseases does this show up in?

(stop whining, you need to know all of them)

A

Schistocytes

1) Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemias
2) DIC
3) TTP
4) HUS
5) HELLP Syndrome
6) Mechanical Hemolysis

47
Q

What is this?

What disease is this?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia

Sickle Cell

48
Q

What is this?

What 2 diseases does this show up in?

A

Spherocytes

Hereditary Spherocytosis

Drug and Infection induced Hemolytic anemia

49
Q

What is this?

What 4 diseases does this show up with?

HALT

A

Target Cells

HbC

Asplenia

Liver Disease

Thalassemia

50
Q

What is this?

What is associated with?

Name 3

A

Basophilic Stippling

Sideroblastic Anemia (Lead poisoning)

Myelodsyplastic syndromes

Thalassemias

51
Q

Basophilic Stippling contains what vs Pappenheimer bodies?

A

Basophilic Stippling: no Fe, yes ribosomal precipitates

Pappenheimer Bodies: Yes Fe, no ribosomal precipitates

52
Q

What is this?

What disease is this with?

A

Heinz Bodies

G6PD Deficiency

53
Q

When we have Heinz Bodies, what is contained in the phagocytes?

A

Fe and denatured Hemoglobin

54
Q

What is this?

What disease/issue is this seen with?

A

Howell-Jolly Bodies

Hyposplenia or asplenia

LOOK OUT FOR BACTERIA!!!!!!!!!!

55
Q

What is this?

Excess iron in mitochondria, courtesy of a Bone Marrow smear

A

Sideroblast with Pappenheimer Bodies

Siderocytes containing Basophilic Granules, has Fe in it

56
Q

What is monoclonal expansion of plasma cells?

May lead to multiple Myeloma?

No hypercalcemia

No Renal Issues

No Anemia

No Bone Lytic Lesions/Bone Pain

A

Monoclonal Gammaopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)

57
Q

What is M spike, hyperviscosity syndrome, blurred vision, Raynaud Phenomenon?

No HyperCalcemia

No Renal Involvement

Anemia

No bone Lytic Lesions

A

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

58
Q

This is pseudo pelger huet anomaly, what is showen, when is this normally seen?

A

Bilobed “duet” Neutrophils

commonly seen after chemotherapy

59
Q

Burkitt lymphoma can take on a pelvis form that is were?

A

Para-aortic nodes or illelal nodes

60
Q

Burkitt Lymphoma has t(8;14) what is the oncogene?

What is the path finding?

A

C-myc with BCL6+

Starry Sky, high mitotic appearance, “tingible body” macrophages

61
Q

When there is a Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma:

What are the cell cycle alteration locations?

What does it progress from?

A

BCL-2 and BCL-6

Follicular Lymphoma