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Aaron-Exit: Championship Rounds > Immuno and IDR cards > Flashcards

Immuno and IDR cards Flashcards

1
Q

Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase is a test that is positive for what bacteria?

A

PYR + S. Pyogenus

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2
Q

What types of vaccines are these diseases?

Adenovirus

Typhoid (Oral)***

Polio (Sabin)

Measles

Mumps

Rubella

BCG

Varicella (Chickenpox)

Smallpox

Yellow Fever

Influenza (Intranasal)***

Rotavirus

A

Live attenuated vaccines

Remember the Pneumonic ATP MMR are BVSY IRresponsible

The capital letters are the disease

These vaccines are oral or intranasal, they are not injections, make sure to remember that

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3
Q

What is the following vaccines?

Rabies

Influenza (injection)*

Polio (Salk)

Hep A

Typhoid (intramuscular)*******

A

Killed vaccines, inactivated vaccines

RIPT Always

Killed Vaccines, have injections, Live do not

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4
Q

What are the vaccines?

Hep B surface antigen

HPV (types 6, 11, 16, 18)

acellular Pertussis

Neisseria Meningitidis

Strept. Pneumoniae

Haemophilus Influenzae type b

A

Non-live toxoid, subunit vaccines

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5
Q

Fulminant Hepatitis is what?

A

Massive Necrosis of liver parenchyma that happens after 8 weeks Hepatitis E

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6
Q

What rodeo is indicative of fatty liver disease?

A

ALT > AST

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7
Q

What lab value shows up with hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

AFP

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8
Q

Cholesterol stones are what visually? Pigment stones are what visually? Infection stones are what visually?

A

Cholesterol Stones are radiolucent

Pigment stones are radiopaque, black, hemolysis, bilirubinate

Brown stones are infection stones, that are radiolucent

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9
Q

Tinea unguium is what location?

Tinea cruris is what location?

A

Onychomycosis, usually in the nails

Inguinal area

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10
Q

Tinea versicolor is what? What is the path finding?

A

Malassezia FurFur, spaghetti and meatballs on path stain, also the Sketchy video “Italian Restaurant”

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11
Q

In the world of shenanigans: High Mg means what?

Low Mg means what?

A

hypocalcemia, via decreased PTH

hypocalcemia/hypokalemia

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12
Q

In the world of sorcery: when there is low potassium, what other low electrolyte must be replenished first in order to allow potassium to replenish itself?

A

Magnesium, magnesium blocks the ROMK (Renal outer Medullary Potassium Channel), found in the collecting duct

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13
Q

Diabetic Ketoacidosis and Refeeding syndrome in alcoholics can cause what?

A

Hypophosphatemia

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14
Q

Low Mg has what happen? Low Low Mg has what happen?

A

Increase PTH release –> increase GI and renal magnesium along with calcium

inhibits PTH release –> hypocalcemia seen with hypomagnesemia

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15
Q

Alcoholics love to show up in patient vignettes having a B1 issue, what other electrolyte abnormality might grace my screen under a(n) uworld question disguise?

A

magnesium

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16
Q

What herpes rash is the hard palate, also can cause diffuse B cell lymphoma? What thing is elevated?

A

Kaposi sarcoma, neoplasm of endothelial cells VEGF

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17
Q

Roseola infantum has what rash characteristics?

A

high fevers for several days that can cause seizures lacy body rash

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18
Q

Vairiola is what?

Varicella is what?

What is the big difference?

A

Variola is smallpox, lesions are at the same stage

Varicella is chicken pox, lesions are at different stages

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19
Q

When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cells are non-functional, where as a 2 of 2 virus allows the virus to become functional is what?

A

Complementation

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20
Q

When two viruses co-infect a cell, the capsule and the surface proteins produce are from a different virus vs. the genetic material, this is called what?

A

Phenotypic mixing

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21
Q

What is recombination of a virus?

What is reassortment of a virus?

A

Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes

Exchange of genetic material between two viruses

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22
Q

Genetic shift is due to what? Genetic drift is due to what?

A

Causes pandemics, reassortment of viral components

Cause epidemics, random mutation in hemagglutinin or neuraminidase genes (point mutations, from Amboss)

23
Q

What is a biochem way of fighting measles?

A

Vitamin A

24
Q

The envelope gene makes gp160, what else does it make?

A

gp41 and gp120

1) gp120 attachment to host CD4+ T cell
2) gp41 fusion and entry

25
Q

What does the gag gene make?

A

p24 and p17, this makes the capsid and matrix

26
Q

CCR5 is on what? CXCR4 is on what?

A

Macrophages (early infection)

T cells (late infection)

27
Q

What is the traditional ranking estrogen potency of Estradiol, Estriol, and Estrone?

A

1) Estradiol 2) Estrone 3) Estriol

28
Q

What is the name of the syndrome with low GnRH, anosmia, and Testosterone?

A

Kallman Syndrome

29
Q

If I have cryptorchidism, what is most likely low in my body?

A

low inhibin level, that comes from the Sertoli Cells, this is supposed to provide negative feed back on FSH

30
Q

What is the hallmark hormone that screams menopause is here?

A

Increase FSH

31
Q

What are two things that PCOS may develop as well?

A

Acathosis Nigricans and Endometrial Cancer

32
Q

When there is chocolate agar positive, where/what should I be thinking about?

A

H. Influenza and N. Gonorrhea

33
Q

What B lactam is only for gram negative rods, if a penicillin allergy?

A

Aztreonam

34
Q

What does cilastatin block in the kidney, when given with an imipenem?

A

Renal dehydropeptidase I

35
Q

What two drugs cannot drink with alcohol?

A

Cephalosporin and Metronidazole

36
Q

Aminoglycosides cannot be used against what type of bacteria?

A

anaerobic bacteria

must be aerobic bacteria

37
Q

What two drugs should not be given with antacids?

A

Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines

Think about the Mg, K, and Ca 2+ ions in sketchy

38
Q

Polymxin B does not attack what two things?

A

Niessera and Proteus

39
Q

What class of drugs beside NRTI can cause central obesity/lipodystrophy?

A

Protease inhibitors Atazanavir, Darunavir, Indinavir

40
Q

What drugs are used to stop the release of viral progeny?

What drug inhibits influenza neuraminidase?

A

Amantidine: blocks uncoating of virus, inside cell, no longer used

Oseltamivir, Zanamivir: blocks neuraminidase

41
Q

What drug can be used in combination with amphotericin B?

A

Flucytisine

42
Q

What drug is an anti-fungal that blocks 14-alpha-demethylase? This also prevents the synthesis of erogsterol

A

Azoles

43
Q

Nystatin can be used only what way?

A

topical

44
Q

What is the glaring difference between MPGN I and MPGN II?

A

MPGN I is adults, C3, C4, IgG, Granular Hep B and C, tram track, PAS+

MPGN II is kids, C3 only positive, dense deposits

45
Q

Where is the damage in MPGN I vs MPGN II located?

A

Subendothelial or BM (Type 1)

BM (Type 2), autoantibody against C3 convertase

46
Q

Besides Coxiella, what else can have a culture negative endocarditis?

A

Bartonella hensela

47
Q

Bartonella and Brucella can both cause what?

A

granulomas

48
Q

Listeria, Schistosomiasis, and syphillis all can cause what?

A

Granulomas

49
Q

What malaria drugs are given in an emergency?

A

Quinidine or artesunate look at G6PD deficiency

50
Q

What is the MOA of permethrin cream?

A

Stops the flow of Na 2+ from flowing through parasite nerves

51
Q

Malathion treats lice how?

Lindane treats lice how?

A

lice

over activate GABA chloride channels

52
Q

What is the indirect sympathomimetics that can increase weight loss?

A

Ephedrine

53
Q

What is used for acute asthma problems?

What is used for long term asthma/COPD?

A

Albuterol

Salmeterol, Formoterol

Aaron-Exit: Championship Rounds (27 decks)

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