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(Other) Qbank > Quiz 62 > Flashcards

Quiz 62 Flashcards

1
Q

Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome results from deficiency in what vitamin?

A

B1 - thiamine

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2
Q

What is the clinical triad of wernicke encephalopathy?

A

Encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction (nystagmus, lateral rectus palsy, conjugate gaze palsy) and gait ataxia

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3
Q

In Wernicke encephalopathy, what is administered for treatment?

A

Thiamine - must be given PRIOR to glucose

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4
Q

Is Korsakoff syndrome before or after Wernicke encephalopathy? Which of the two is reversible?

A

Korsakoff is late stage and is irreversible; Wernicke is reversible

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5
Q

What areas of the brain are thought to be affected by Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Thalamus (dorsomedial nuclei) and mammillary bodies

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6
Q

What is the MOA of trihexyphenidyl?

A

Muscarinic antagonist

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7
Q

What are the side effects of antimuscarinic meds?

A

Flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis, delirium, hyperthermia due to decreased sweating

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8
Q

What is the MOA of benztropine?

A

Muscarinic antagonists

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9
Q

The caudate nucleus comprises part of what ventricle?

A

Wall of lateral ventricle

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10
Q

Tumor in lateral ventricle can affect what nucleus?

A

Caudate nucleus

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11
Q

What is genetic shift?

A

Shuffling of segments of genomic RNA so new genetic combinations can be produced

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12
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

Minor antigenic changes from the accumulation of point mutations

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13
Q

What viruses can undergo genetic shift?

A

Orthomyxovirus, Bunyavirus, Arenavirus, Reovirus

BORA

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14
Q

What is seen histologically of a liposarcoma?

A

Pleomorphic lipocytes, with a cytoplasm filled with lipid vacuoles (positive for fat stains)

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15
Q

Deficiency in UMP synthase results in a buildup of what?

A

Orotic acid

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16
Q

How can one differentiate between ornithine transcarbamoylase def. and UMP synthase def?

A

Both will have orotic aciduria, but UMP synthase def. results in megaloblastemia

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17
Q

What is the oval window in the ear?

A

It separates the air-filled middle ear and fluid-filled inner ear

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18
Q

What is the scala tympani?

A

A perilymphatic chamber in the cochlea

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19
Q

What is the scala vestibuli?

A

A perilymphatic chamber in the cochlea

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20
Q

What is the composition of perilymph?

A

High sodium and low potassium (similar to extracellular fluid)

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21
Q

What is the scala media?

A

Cochlear duct that forms the endolymph

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22
Q

What is the composition of endolymph?

A

Similar to intracellular fluid - high potassium and low sodium

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23
Q

What contains the sensory epithelium or hair cells of the ear?

A

Organ of corti

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24
Q

What patient population and symptoms are seen with mucormycosis?

A

Ketoacidotic diabetic and neutropenic patients; headache, fever, sinusitis, black necrotic eschar on face/nose

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25
Q

What is the cause of mucormycosis? What is seen on microscopy?

A

Mucor or Rhizopus spp. - see hyphae branch at 90-degree angles and have irregular width

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26
Q

Type I diabetic presents with HA, fever, nasal congestion, swelling of R eye with black necrotic nodule in nasal cavity. What organism is the most likely cause? What is seen microscopically?

A

Mucor or Rhizopus spp. See hyphae branching at 90-degree angles with irregular width

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27
Q

What artery supplies the distal end of the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

R gastric artery

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28
Q

What artery supplies the proximal end of the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

L gastric artery

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29
Q

What is the right gastric artery a branch of?

A

Proper hepatic artery

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30
Q

What arteries supply the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

L and R gastric arteries - anastomose

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31
Q

What is often the source of bleeding in a duodenal ulcer?

A

Gastroduodenal artery

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32
Q

What arteries does the gastroduodenal artery give rise to?

A

Right gastroepiploic artery and superior pancreaticoduodenal artery

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33
Q

The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of what artery?

A

Common hepatic artery

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34
Q

What artery supplies the proximal portion of the greater curvature of the stomach?

A

Left gastroepiploic artery

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35
Q

What artery supplies the distal portion of the greater curvature of the stomach?

A

Right gastroepiploic artery

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36
Q

The left gastroepiploic artery is a branch of what artery?

A

Splenic artery

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37
Q

What arteries supply the fundus of the stomach?

A

Short gastric arteries

38
Q

What happens to progesterone in the zona glomerulosa?

A

Undergoes 21 hydroxylation for the pathway of aldosterone synthesis

39
Q

What are the most common causes of travelers diarrhea?

A

ETEC, shigella and C. Jejuni (later two produce bloody diarrhea)

40
Q

If necessary, what antibiotics are used to treat travels diarrhea?

A

Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, norfloxacin)

41
Q

What blood vessels have the highest resistance?

A

Arterioles

42
Q

The pressure point of aortic valve opening is equal to what pressure?

A

Diastolic blood pressure

43
Q

Microscopic examination of the brain infected with HSV-1 encephalitis shows what?

A

Cowdry type A inclusions

44
Q

When does one see Cowdry type A inclusions in the neurons and glia?

A

Herpes simplex infection (herpes encephalitis)

45
Q

Examination of CSF with viral encephalitis shows what?

A

Lymphocytes, normal glucose, elevated proteins

46
Q

What does microscopic examination show in progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

A

Greatly enlarged oligodendrocyte nuclei with glassy amorphic viral inclusions

47
Q

If greaty enlarged oligodendrocyte nuclei with glassy amorphic viral inclusions are seen on brain biopsy, what is the diagnosis?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

48
Q

Microglial nodules containing multinucleated giant cells on brain biopsy is characteristic of what?

A

Chronic HIV encephalitis

49
Q

Extension of the thumb is controlled by what muscles?

A

Extensor pollicis longus and brevis

50
Q

What nerve controls extension of the thumb?

A

Radial

51
Q

What nerve innervates extensor pollicis longus and brevis?

A

Radial nerve

52
Q

What affect does the radial nerve have on the thumb motion?

A

Extension

53
Q

What muscles of the thumb does the median nerve innervate?

A

The thenar muscles - responsible for flexion, abduction, and opposition

54
Q

What muscle adducts the thumb?

A

Adductor pollicis

55
Q

What nerve innervates the adductor pollicis?

A

Ulnar

56
Q

Adduction of the thumb is mediated by what muscle? What is its innervation?

A

Adductor pollicis; ulnar

57
Q

What disease is associated with anticentromere antibodies?

A

CREST syndrome (limited systemic sclerosis)

58
Q

What disease is associated with anti-DNA topoisomerase?

A

Diffuse systemic sclerosis; antibody is also called anti-Scl 70

59
Q

What disease is associated with anti-RNPs?

A

Sjogren

60
Q

What antibodies do you seen in diffuse systemic sclerosis?

A

Anti-DNA topoisomerase (anti-Scl 70)

61
Q

What antibodies do you see in limited systemic sclerosis?

A

Anticentromere

62
Q

When do you see Anti-Scl 70 antibodies?

A

Diffuse systemic sclerosis

63
Q

What disease is associated with antimitochondrial antibodies?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

64
Q

What disease is associated with anti-TSH receptor antibodies?

A

Graves disease

65
Q

What is used pharmacologically for the treatment of OCD?

A

1st - SSRIs; if unresponsive the TCA clomipramine

66
Q

What is the class of buspirone?

A

Nonbenzo anxiolytic

67
Q

What is chlorpromazine?

A

Antipsychotic; selectively antagonizes dopamine D2 receptors

68
Q

What TCA is used to treat OCD?

A

Clomipramine

69
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of G6PD?

A

X linked recessive

70
Q

What are common adverse reactions to heparin?

A

Bleeding and drug induced thrombocytopenia

71
Q

What is the drug of choice in a patient with heparin induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Bivalirudin

72
Q

What is the MOA of bivalirudin?

A

Direct inhibitor of thrombin

73
Q

What is seen on ECG in a subendocardial infarction?

A

May show ST segment depression or flattening on various leads

74
Q

What is seen on ECG in transmural infarction?

A

ST elevation

75
Q

What are the aminopenicillins?

A

Amoxicillin and ampicillin

76
Q

What is the unique pattern of ABGs in salicylate toxicity?

A

Initially respiratory alkalosis (ASA directly stimulates the resp center), then metabolic acidosis with anion gap (salicylates interfere with Krebs cycle)

77
Q

What is the mechanism behind fever in ASA toxicity?

A

Uncoupling of the electron transport chain

78
Q

What type of acid/base disorder is seen in HCTZ?

A

Metabolic alkalosis (excretion of H+ ions)

79
Q

What are the four characteristics of MEN2B?

A

Medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas (small nodules on lip) and marfanoid habitus

80
Q

What gene is responsible for MEN2B?

A

Ret gene

81
Q

What are the tumors of MEN1?

A

Parathyroid tumor, pituitary tumor (prolactinoma), pancreatic endocrine tumor

82
Q

What gives rise to the smooth part of the right ventricle?

A

Bulbus cordis

83
Q

What gives rise to the smooth part of the left ventricle?

A

Bulbus cordis

84
Q

What gives rise the the smooth part of the right atrium?

A

Sinus venosus

85
Q

What does the primitive atrium give rise to?

A

The trabeculated parts of the right and left atria

86
Q

What gives rise to the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk?

A

Truncus arteriosus

87
Q

What is the root cause of renal osteodystrophy?

A

Kidney fails to excrete sufficient phosphate, causing a rise in PTH

88
Q

Increase CaSR Ca2+ sensitivity does what to PTH?

A

Suppresses it

89
Q

What is cinacalcet?

A

A calcimimetic - increases the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptor, decreasing PTH secretion

90
Q

What are the four main neoplasmas associated with Psammoma bodies?

A

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid, serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary, meningioma, mesothelioma

91
Q

What type of gene is APC?

A

Tumor suppressor gene

(Other) Qbank (33 decks)

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