Program Design & Implementation

Question 1

Which of the following is an example of an eccentric contraction?

a. Quadriceps in a leg extension
b. Biceps in a bicep curl
c. Rectus abdominis in the upward motion of an abdominal crunch
d. Quadriceps in a leg curl

Answer 1

d. Quadriceps in a leg curl

An eccentric contraction occurs when the muscle opposing the action, or the antagonist, lengthens. In this case it is the quadriceps lengthening during a leg curl.

Question 2

Which movement principle ensures that impulses are transmitted to the intended muscles?

a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition

Answer 2

A. Neural control controls and stabilizes movement at joints through transmitting impulses to the intended supporting muscles.

Question 3

John performs 3 sets of 10 bicep curls with a 50-pound barbell. What is the training volume of his bicep curls?

a. 150 pounds
b. 500 pounds
c. 1500 pounds
d. 50 pounds

Answer 3

c. 1500 pounds

The training volume of an exercise is determined by multiplying the sets by the repetitions by the resistance. Therefore, John’s training volume is 3 x 10 x 50 = 1500 total pounds lifted.

Question 4

Diana is looking to improve her hiking endurance. What are the main muscle groups that should be targeted?

a. Pectoralis major and biceps
b. Hip flexors and extensors
c. Latissimus dorsi and erector spinae
d. Rectus abdominis and erector spinae

Answer 4

b. Hip flexors and extensors

While some other muscles may act as stabilizers, the hip flexors and extensors are the main muscles utilized in hiking, and therefore should be the muscles targeted during resistance training.

Question 5

Which of the following is an example of Performance training?

a. Bend and lift movements
b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

Answer 5

c. Depth jumps

Performance training is specific to a sport or activity, and generally incorporates power. Depth jumps are one example of this.

Question 6

What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for muscular endurance?

a. 60-70% of 1RM
b. 70-80% of 1RM
c. 50-60% of 1RM
d. 90-100% of 1RM

Answer 6

a. 60-70% of 1RM

It is recommended that a person training for muscular endurance should train at an intensity level between 60 and 70 percent of their 1RM. This will facilitate the performance of a high volume of repetitions necessary for muscular endurance.

Question 7

Which type of exercise should older adults avoid in order to prevent spikes in blood pressure?

a. Eccentric contractions
b. Concentric contractions
c. Flexibility training
d. Isometric contractions

Answer 7

d. Isometric contractions

Older adults should avoid isometric exercises in which a muscle is held in a position of contraction as this can increase blood pressure. Older adults should also avoid holding their breath during resistance training for the same reason.

Question 8

Monica is a 40-year-old woman with a resting heart rate of 70 bpm. What is her Heart Rate Reserve (HRR)?

a. 110 bpm
b. 150 bpm
c. 180 bpm
d. 220 bpm

Answer 8

a. 110 bpm

Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) is the difference between a person’s resting heart rate and their maximum heart rate (MHR). We can use the Karvonen method to determine her HRR. Since Monica is 40, we can determine her MHR by subtraction 40 from 220, which gives us 180 bpm. Then we take 70 away from 180 to get a HRR of 110 bpm.

Question 9

After administering a static postural assessment, your client exhibits deviations in her static position from good posture. She is very deconditioned and has never engaged in an exercise program. Which of the following would you emphasize prior to introducing integrated strengthening exercises?

a. Dynamic movement controlling the ROM to avoid excessive muscle lengthening
b. Muscle isolation incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 15 repetitions
c. Dynamic strength exercises incorporating two to three sets of 2 to 4 repetitions
d. Isometric contractions incorporating two to four repetitions of 5 to 10 seconds each

Answer 9

d. Isometric contractions incorporating two to four repetitions of 5 to 10 seconds each

The strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for 5 to 10 seconds. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 14 repetitions.

Question 10

Your client has experienced a plateau while performing the bench press exercise. You decide to switch to the incline bench press in order to allow your client’s motor learning system to adapt to the new exercise and increase strength. Which training principle would this strategy entail?

a. Diminishing returns
b. Reversibility
c. Overload
d. Specificity

Answer 10

a. Diminishing returns

Once your client’s genetic potential has been reached for muscle size and strength (or diminishing returns), you can change the exercise in order to involve new neuromuscular response and motor-unit activation patterning. This will allow for a period of progressive strength gains.

Question 11

Your client is ready to begin squatting with resistance, but has been told many different things on the subject of squatting with the knees past the toes. What is an appropriate movement cue to give your client if the client is squatting with his knees past his toes?

a. Never let the knees go past the toes.
b. It’s acceptable if the knees go past the toes.
c. Keeping your lower leg vertical reduces shearing force.
d. Keeping your legs vertical allows less hip stress.

Answer 11

b. It’s acceptable if the knees go past the toes.

While it is appropriate to avoid excessive forward movement of the knee during squatting and lunging movements, it is a myth that exercisers should “never let the knees go past the toes” while doing a squat or lunge. Keeping the knees vertical will cause an excessive lean in the torso placing more hip stress.

Question 12

Your client has shown the ability to advance her cardiorespiratory training into the aerobic-efficiency phase. What would be the ideal hard-to-easy ratio to begin aerobic-efficiency training?

a. 1:3
b. 1:2
c. 1:1
d. 1:4

Answer 12

a. 1:3

In aerobic-efficiency training you introduce intervals that are just above the VT1 or an RPE of 5. In order to allow for adequate recovery time between intervals it is suggested to start with a ratio of 1:3. An example would be 60 seconds harder intensity to 180-second recovery.

Question 13

What is the recommended frequency of cardiorespiratory training generally accepted by ACSM for healthy adults?

Answer 13

3-5 days per week

Question 14

What is the recommended frequency of resistance training generally accepted by ACSM for healthy adults?

Answer 14

2-3 days per week

Question 15

What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for hypertrophy?

Answer 15

70-80% of 1RM

Question 16

What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for muscular endurance?

Answer 16

60-70% of 1RM

Question 17

What is the minimum amount of time a bout of aerobic exercise should last?

Answer 17

10 minutes

Question 18

On the classical Borg Rate of Perceived Exertion scale, what level of exertion does a “6” represent?

Answer 18

Nothing at all

Question 19

How many minutes should a client who is of an average fitness level exercise for per day?

Answer 19

30-90 minutes

Question 20

How many days a week should a new client exercise with intermediate experience, according to general guidelines?

Answer 20

3 to 4 sessions per week

Question 21

What is an example of non-verbal communication?

a. Tone of voice.
b. Facial expression.
c. Body language.
d. All of the above.
e. Both B and C only

Answer 21

d. All of the above.

Explanation: Tone of voice, facial expressions and body language can all affect how a client views and hears you, regardless of what you are saying.

Question 22

What is the major muscle group involved in the flexion portion of a leg curl exercise?

a. Hamstrings
b. Quadriceps
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Gastrocnemius

Answer 22

a. Hamstrings

Explanation: The hamstrings are the main group of muscles responsible for flexing the knee.

Question 23

Which of the following has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of exercise intensity?

a. Anaerobic threshold
b. Aerobic threshold
c. First ventilator threshold
d. Talk test threshold

Answer 23

a. Anaerobic threshold

Explanation: The anaerobic or lactate threshold is used as a marker of exercise performance as it is thought to indicate when an exercise intensity can no longer be sustained

Question 24

During a leg extension exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the agonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

Answer 24

d. Quadriceps

Explanation: The muscle that is doing the “work” against the resistance is the muscle that shortens, which is called the agonist. In this case, it is the quadriceps.

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT a factor that may influence muscular hypertrophy?

a. Amount of lean muscle mass a person has when beginning a resistance program
b. Whether the person is male or female
c. The muscle fiber types a person has
d. The length of a person’s muscles

Answer 25

a. Amount of lean muscle mass a person has when beginning a resistance program

Explanation: The likelihood of hypertrophy occurring is not dependent on how much muscle a person starts out with.

Question 26

Which of the following is an example of Stability and Mobility training?

a. Bend and lift movements
b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

Answer 26

d. Isolated isometric contractions

Explanation: Stability and mobility training consists of isometric contractions and stretching to facilitate core strength.

Question 27

Which cardiorespiratory training zone is characterized by moderate to vigorous-intensity exercise?

a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4

Answer 27

b. Zone 2

Explanation: Training zone 2 is characterized by moderate-vigorous intensity exercise. There is no zone 4.

Question 28

Which of the following factors does not directly influence muscular strength performance?

a. Hormone levels
b. Age
c. Limb Length
d. Muscle circumference

Answer 28

d. Muscle circumference

Explanation: The circumference of a muscle does not directly influence the strength contained therein. Muscle circumference can be affected by fluid retention and many other factors that do not affect strength performance.

Question 29

What joint in the body is considered the most mobile?

a. Elbow joint
b. Shoulder joint
c. Wrist joint
d. Hip joint

Answer 29

b. Shoulder joint

Explanation: The most mobile joint in the body is the shoulder.

Question 30

A proper warm up should always consist of how many minutes?

a. No warm up time needed for short workouts
b. 1 to 3 minutes
c. 5 to 10 minutes
d. 10 to 15 minutes

Answer 30

5 to 10 minutes

Explanation: Regardless of the workout, a proper warm up should be 5 to 10 minutes of low to moderate intensity exercise.

Question 31

Which training principle describes the need for an ongoing maintenance program to keep any gains you have made while strength training?

a. Specificity principle
b. Reversibility
c. Diminishing Returns
d. Overload Principle

Answer 31

b. Reversibility

Explanation: The principle of reversibility implies that a client will likely lose all their gains and potentially return to pre-training levels if they do not continue training or follow a maintenance program.

Question 32

What should the target heart rate range be set at for a client with hypertension?

a. 40-65%
b. 50-70%
c. 65-85%
d. 55%-75%

Answer 32

a. 40-65%

Explanation: When using heart rate for a client with hypertension, the target should be set at the lower end of the heart-rate range, between 40% of the client’s maximum heart rate and 65% of the client’s maximum heart rate.

Question 33

As your client is performing the supine drawing-in exercise, you notice she has movement in her pelvis, low back and rib cage. What does movement of these joints indicate?

a. Activation of the rectus abdominis
b. An inability to activate the transverse abdominis in an isolated manner
c. A loss of reflexive control along the lumbar spine
d. Both a and b

Answer 33

d. Both a and b

Explanation: Throughout the supine drawing-in exercises, there should be no movement of the pelvis, low back, or rib cage. Movement of these joints indicates activation of the rectus abdominis and an inability to activate the TVA in an isolated manner.

Question 34

Your client Amy wants to circuit train so she can get a full-body workout and target all the major muscle groups within each session. What is the minimum amount of recovery time recommended between sessions?

a. 48 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 36 hours

Answer 34

a. 48 hours

Explanation: Guidelines from ACSM recommend targeting each major muscle group two to three days a week, allowing a minimum of 48 hours of recovery between sessions.

Question 35

Your client has a health condition affecting his physical activity by narrowing his blood vessels and preventing blood supply to the heart. Which health condition is affecting his physical activity?

a. Atherosclerosis
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c. Atrophy
d. Diabetes

Answer 35

a. Atherosclerosis

Explanation: Atherosclerosis is the buildup of calcium and cholesterol on the walls of the arteries causing them to narrow. There is a greater demand for blood and oxygen during exercise and with the onset of atherosclerosis it may prevent the blood supply which can lead to myocardial infarction.

Question 36

Your female client tells you that she wishes to lose body fat under the arms and on the insides of her thighs. What would be an accurate statement regarding this form of “spot reduction”?

a. People lose fat from adipose deposits in reverse order they accumulated the fat.
b. You can target the areas with resistance training to help lose the body fat.
c. You should be careful of excessive resistance training to the arms and thighs to avoid “bulking up”.
wrong d. Genetics do not have an effect on displacement of adipose tissues.

Answer 36

a. People lose fat from adipose deposits in reverse order they accumulated the fat.

Explanation: Spot reduction is a common misconception as reducing fat is not necessarily exercise specific. The body loses fat in specific areas due to overall genetic factors.

Question 37

What are the two most accurate methods used to measure heart rate? (choose 2)

a. Electrocardiogram
b. Telemetry
c. Auscultation
d. Palpation

Answer 37

c. Auscultation
d. Palpation

Explanation: Palpation and auscultation are each within 95% accuracy of a heart-rate monitor. Measuring heart rate is a valid indicator of the demands placed upon the body.

Question 38

What is the term used for the exercise of depression and retraction of the scapulae?

a. External humeral rotation
b. Posterior mobilization
c. Shoulder packing
d. Thoracic spine mobilization

Answer 38

c. Shoulder packing

Explanation: Shoulder packing is performed to kinesthetically improve awareness of good scapular position, improving flexibility and strength of key parascapular muscles. Each contraction of scapular retraction and depression should be held for 5 to 10 seconds.

Question 39

The principle stating that after a certain level of performance has been achieved, there will be a decline in the effectiveness of training at furthering a person’s performance level.

Answer 39

Diminishing Returns

Question 40

The exercise training principle explaining that specific exercise demands made on the body produce specific responses by the body; also called exercise specificity.

Answer 40

Specificity

Question 41

The process of gradually adding more exercise resistance than the muscles have previously encountered is referred to as…

Answer 41

Overload

Question 42

According to the ACE IFT Model, what is phase 1 of the functional movement & resistance training component?

a. Movement Training
b. Load Training
c. Performance Training
d. Stability and Mobility Training

Answer 42

d. Stability and Mobility Training

Explanation: It is important to ensure adequate stability and mobility before progressing to increased load or performance training.

Question 43

When referring to the body’s “core” muscles, which of the following is not a part of this group?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Iliopsoas
c. External obliques
d. Rectus femoris

Answer 43

d. Rectus femoris

Explanation: The rectus femoris muscles are located in the extremities, not the central part of the body referred to as the “core”.

Question 44

Janice is a 35-year-old woman who wants to improve her overall muscular fitness. When resistance training, how many repetitions should she perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

Explanation: For general muscle fitness it is recommended that a person complete 1-2 sets of between 8-15 repetitions.

Answer 44

d. 8-15

Explanation: For general muscle fitness it is recommended that a person complete 1-2 sets of between 8-15 repetitions.

Question 45

Which of the following is an example of Load training?

a. Bend and lift movements
b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

Answer 45

b. Leg extension

Explanation: Load training adds muscle force production to movement training, adding resistance to movement. The leg extension is one example of this.

Question 46

How many days per week should a 13-year-old boy perform resistance training?

a. 1-2 days/wk
b. 3-4 days/wk
c. 2-3 days/wk
d. 5-6 days/wk

Answer 46

c. 2-3 days/wk

Explanation: Adolescents should perform resistance training approximately 2-3 non-consecutive days per week.

Question 47

Michael is a 50-year-old man who has not exercised in 8 years. His fitness classification is “poor”. What should Michael’s heart rate stay between during cardiorespiratory exercise?

a. 68-93 bpm
b. 96-114 bpm
c. 125-143 bpm
d. 136-155 bpm

Answer 47

b. 96-114 bpm

Explanation: A deconditioned person with a “poor” fitness classification should exercise at approximately 57-67% of their maximum heart rate. For Michael, this is 96-114 bpm. You should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the ranges.

Question 48

Michelle is a 30-year-old dancer who regularly exercises at a vigorous pace. Her fitness classification is “excellent”. What should Michelle’s heart rate stay between during cardiorespiratory exercise?

a. 108-127 bpm
b. 160-179 bpm
c. 179-190 bpm
d. 86-105 bpm

Answer 48

b. 160-179 bpm

Explanation: A conditioned person with an “excellent” fitness classification should perform cardiorespiratory exercise at 84-94% of their MHR. This is 160-179 bpm for Michelle. You should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the ranges.

Question 49

Which of the following exercise drills is ideal for agility training?

a. Lateral shuffles
b. ABC drills
c. Horizontal chest pass
d. Jumps in place

Answer 49

a. Lateral shuffles

Explanation: Lateral shuffles are an excellent example of an agility training drill.

Question 50

Which of the following is not one of the four mechanisms used by the body to give off heat?

a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Evaporation
d. Receptors

Explanation: There are four ways the body gives off heat including radiation, evaporation, conduction and convection.

Answer 50

d. Receptors

Explanation: There are four ways the body gives off heat including radiation, evaporation, conduction and convection.

Question 51

Justin is performing bicep curls with dumbbells. As he lowers the weights and lengthens his arms, which type of contraction is the bicep experiencing?

a. Concentric contraction
b. Eccentric contraction
c. Progressive contraction
d. Isometric contraction

Answer 51

b. Eccentric contraction

Explanation: Eccentric is a type of muscle contraction in which the muscle lengthens against a resistance when it is stimulated.

Question 52

What type of muscle fibers are typically smaller with more aerobic capacity?

a. Slow-twitch
b. Fast-twitch
c. Type II
d. Both a and c

Answer 52

a. Slow-twitch

Explanation: Slow-twitch or type I fibers are typically smaller with more aerobic capacity (lower levels of force production for longer periods of time).

Question 53

Which of the following primary movements is the most complex?

a. Rotational Movements
b. Pulling Movements
c. Single-leg movement patterns
d. Bend-and-lift movement patterns

Answer 53

a. Rotational Movements

Explanation: Rotational movements are most complex, given how many movements follow spiral or diagonal patterns throughout the body.

Question 54

Which phase of contraction may trigger DOMS?

a. Concentric
b. Eccentric
c. Isometric
d. Isotonic

Answer 54

b. Eccentric

Explanation: Trainers may need to consider muscle soreness when planning the duration of the eccentric phase of contraction with new exercisers, as it is this phase that triggers DOMS, which may create a negative experience.

Question 55

Your client has experienced a plateau while performing the bench press exercise. You decide to switch to the incline bench press in order to allow your client’s motor learning system to adapt to the new exercise and increase strength. Which training principle would this strategy entail?

Answer 55

Diminishing returns

Explanation: Once your client’s genetic potential has been reached for muscle size and strength (or diminishing returns), you can change the exercise in order to involve a new neuromuscular response and motor-unit activation patterning. This will allow for a period of progressive strength gains.

Question 56

What are the four ways the body gives off heat?

RECC

Answer 56

Radiation
Evaporation
Conduction
Convection

Question 57

You are training an older adult and wish to improve her balance and coordination. Which of the following is not a sensory system that will provide essential information to the central nervous system to maintain balance?

a. Visual
b. Vestibular
c. Cognition
d. Somatosensory

Answer 57

c. Cognition

Explanation: Aging has an effect on the visual, vestibular and somatosensory systems. People rely heavily on visual input for balance, the vestibular system for position of the head in space, and somatosensory system for muscle and joint proprioception and cutaneous and pressure receptors.

Question 58

Your athlete client is curious about the science behind maximizing the stretch reflex in order to improve his vertical jump. Which phase would work on minimizing the time between the eccentric and concentric muscle actions to generate more force and allow the client to improve his vertical jump?

a. Stability and mobility training
b. Movement training
c. Load Training
d. Performance training

Answer 58

d. Performance training

Explanation: In order to improve a vertical jump, you will need to improve rate coding which is the speed at which the motor units stimulate the muscles to contract and produce force. The quicker a muscle can go from lengthening to shortening the greater the force will be causing the jump to be improved.

Question 59

How long should a client perform self-myofascial release over the tender region?

a. Less than 10 seconds
b. 10 to 30 seconds
c. 30 to 60 seconds
d. 60 to 90 seconds

Answer 59

c. 30 to 60 seconds

Explanation: Clients should perform self-myofascial release with small, continuous, back-and-forth movements on a foam roller or similar device. This rolling should cover 2 to 6 inches over the tender region for 30 to 60 seconds.

Question 60

What form of stretching includes holding the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds, followed by a 10-to 30-second assisted or passive static stretch?

Answer 60

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

Explanation: PNF stretching allows for more range of motion due to the initial release of the stress-relaxation in the muscles before passively or actively increasing the range of motion. That is why it is required to hold the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds to allow the initial release.

Question 61

What is activated after 10 seconds of a low-force stretch with an increase in muscle tension?

Answer 61

Golgi tendon organ

Explanation: The GTO is activated after 10 seconds of low-force stretching and inhibits muscle spindle activity and any tension in the muscles. This allows for greater stresses along the collagen fibers to remodel them as they pull apart.

Question 62

___________ training allows for adaptations primarily in muscle fiber size and contractile strength.

Answer 62

Resistance

Question 63

___________ training allows for improved higher cardiac output.

Answer 63

Cardiorespiratory

Question 64

What would not be characterized as optimal breath work during yoga?

a. Diaphragmatic
b. Deep
c. Free of pauses
d. Inhalation and exhalation through the mouth

Answer 64

d. Inhalation and exhalation through the mouth

Explanation: Optimal breathwork should consist of nasal breathing and not mouth breathing. Other characteristics would be smooth, even, and quiet.

Question 65

Your client’s workout is beginning with squats. All of the following would be an assistance exercise following your primary exercise, except:

a. Leg extension
b. Deadlift
c. Leg curl
d. Calf raise

Answer 65

b. Deadlift

Explanation: Assistance exercises are single-joint rotary exercises such as the leg extension, leg curl, and calf raise. The deadlift would be a primary, multi-joint, linear exercise and not an assistance exercise.

Question 66

Which of the following inaccurately describes the muscles involved in respiration?

a. The diaphragm is used during passive inspiration.
b. The sternocleidomastoid pulls the rib cage upward during active inspiration.
c. The quadratus lumborum pulls the rib cage upward during active expiration.
d. The rectus abdominis pulls the rib cage downward during active expiration.

Answer 66

c. The quadratus lumborum pulls the rib cage upward during active expiration.

Explanation: The quadratus lumborum is grouped with the rectus abdominis and pulls the rib cage downward during active expiration. These muscles assist with spanning the thorax and abdomen.

Question 67

our client explains that his warm-up includes 10 minutes of light exercise followed by static stretching on the muscles that are going to be focused on. What should you tell your client about stretching before a workout?

a. It improves the force-generating capacity of the contractile proteins of the muscle
b. Decreases tissue viscosity
c. Improves intensity
d. It enhances hypertrophy capabilities

Answer 67

b. Decreases tissue viscosity

Explanation: Stretching before a workout will improve muscle elasticity which lowers the force-generating capacity of contractile proteins. The warm-up should include a cardiovascular warm-up followed by an exercise specific dynamic warm-up

Question 68

Which of the following will be the most effective means for increasing your clients’ muscular power?

a. Training with light resistance and fast movements
b. Training with heavy resistance and slow movements
c. Training with medium resistance and moderate-to-fast movements
d. Training with heavy resistance and fast movements

Answer 68

c. Training with medium resistance and moderate-to-fast movements

Explanation: Training with medium resistance and moderate-to-fast movement speeds produces the highest power output and is the most effective means for increasing muscular power.

Question 69

Which of the following is not an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

a. Squats
b. Deadlifts
c. Lunges
d. Leg extension

Answer 69

d. Leg extension

Explanation: In a closed-chain movement, the distal end of the extremity is fixed, emphasizing joint compression and, in turn, stabilizing the joints. Leg extension is an example of an open-chain kinetic movement.

Question 70

Of the three energy systems in the body, which one is considered the most rapid in ATP production?

a. Aerobic
b. Anaerobic glycolysis
c. Phosphagen
d. None of the above

Answer 70

c. Phosphagen

Explanation: Phosphagen has the fastest rate of ATP production.

Question 71

Which of the following factors does not directly influence muscular strength performance?

a. Hormone levels
b. Age
c. Limb Length
d. Muscle circumference

Answer 71

d. Muscle circumference

Explanation: The circumference of a muscle does not directly influence the strength contained therein. Muscle circumference can be affected by fluid retention and many other factors that do not affect strength performance.

Question 72

Tim is a 25-year-old soccer player looking to improve muscular endurance. When resistance training, how many repetitions should he perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

Answer 72

a. 12 or more

Explanation: For muscular endurance, it is recommended to perform 2-3 sets of 12 or more repetitions.

Question 73

Which of the following adaptations to exercise is caused by general fluid accumulation in the spaces between muscle cells?

a. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy
b. Myofibrillar hypertrophy
c. Transient hypertrophy
d. Catabolic Hypertrophy

Answer 73

c. Transient hypertrophy

Explanation: Transient hypertrophy, not to be confused with sarcoplasmic hypertrophy which is an increase in sarcoplasm around the muscle cells, is the condition in which fluid accumulates around muscle cells and quickly dissipates after exercise.

Question 74

Which of the following is an example of an isometric contraction?

a. Hamstrings in a Leg Press
b. Quadriceps in a Squat
c. Quadriceps in a Wall Sit
d. Pectoralis Major in a Bench Press

Answer 74

c. Quadriceps in a Wall Sit

Explanation: An isometric contraction occurs when there is no lengthening or shortening of the muscles, which only occurs when there is no movement, as in a wall sit.

Question 75

Your client is on the treadmill exercising at 5 METs and 50% of her VO2 max, a level that she sustains for 45 minutes. What level of exercise is she performing at?

a. Moderate Exercise
b. Vigorous Exercise
c. Light Exercise
d. High Risk Exercise

Answer 75

a. Moderate Exercise

Explanation: Moderate exercise is considered any form of exercise that can be sustained for 45 minutes with a MET level of 3-6 and 40-60% of the individual’s VO2 max.