Practice Exam - Take 2 Flashcards
The Vertical Jump test assesses what component of fitness?
a. Endurance
b. Strength
c. Power
d. Agility
c. Power
Explanation: The vertical jump test assesses muscular power in the lower body.
Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the amount of work performed in a given unit of time?
a. Anaerobic Power
b. Anaerobic Capacity
c. Agility
d. Speed
a. Anaerobic Power
Explanation: Power is determined using work performed in a certain amount of time. Power = work/time.
In the sagittal plane, which fundamental movements occur?
a. Flexion and extension
b. Circumduction and opposition
c. Rotation and supination
d. Adduction and abduction
a. Flexion and extension
Explanation: In the frontal plane (sagittal plane), fundamental movements include flexion, extension, hyperextension, dorsiflexion and plantarflexion.
Which of the following is NOT necessary to monitor when observing a Bend and Lift Screen?
a. Degree of lordosis in the lower back
b. Stability of the feet
c. Position of the scapulae relative to the ribcage
d. Changes in head position
c. Position of the scapulae relative to the ribcage
Explanation: Movement of the shoulder joint is not being monitored with this screen, therefore the position of the scapulae is not important to observe.
Your client has a sedentary lifestyle and has noticed her health steadily declining. In what stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change would your client begin to consider activity and identify implications of inactivity while remaining sedentary?
a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Action
a. Contemplation
Explanation: The contemplation stage is when a person is still sedentary, but starts to consider activity. They are, however, still not ready to commit to making change.
You are going through an initial consultation with a potential client and he is explaining the struggles he has had with exercising and how it is always difficult sticking with a program. You are eager to get this person signed up for training and so you listen to keywords and hot buttons you can use to get him on-board. What type of listening are you demonstrating?
a. Indifferent listening
b. Selective listening
c. Passive listening
d. Active listening
b. Selective listening
Explanation: Listening only to keywords is a form of selective listening. In order to truly understand somebody’s point of view you need to show empathy as in active listening.
When performing a risk stratification prior to engaging in physical activity, what is the first step that should be followed?
a. Performing a risk stratification based on CAD risk factors
b. Determining the need for a medical exam/clearance and medical supervision
c. Identifying coronary artery disease risk factors
d. Begin assessments
c. Identifying coronary artery disease risk factors
Explanation: The first step in a risk stratification is Identifying coronary artery disease. The next steps are to perform a risk stratification based on CAD risk factors and determining the need for medical exam/clearance and medical supervision. Assessments are not a part of the risk stratification.
At what point in a maximal aerobic capacity assessment are carbohydrates the primary source of fuel?
a. Throughout the entire test
b. After reaching the first ventilatory threshold
c. After reaching the second ventilatory threshold
d. In the last 2 minutes of the test
b. After reaching the first ventilatory threshold
Explanation: Carbohydrates are the main source of fuel after the first ventilatory threshold is reached.
Before adding weighted loads to client exercises, you should make sure your client is proficient in which of the following movement patterns?
a. Core stabilization
b. 1 RM
c. Plyometric jumps
d. Dynamic warm ups
a. Core stabilization
Explanation: Phase I of exercise progressions have to do with restoring the functions of daily living. Clients should be able to show proficient core stabilization and proper form before adding any loads to exercises.
Anterior tilting of the pelvis is generally associated with sedentary lifestyles where individuals spend countless hours in seated positions. Which of the following group of tight and shortened muscles is causing this deviation?
a. Hamstrings
b. Lumbar extensors
c. Hip flexors
d. Hip extensors
c. Hip flexors
Explanation: Anterior titling of the pelvis frequently occurs in individuals with tight hip flexors. Prime movers for hip flexion are the iliacus, psoas major and minor.
The inspection of a training area should include which of the following assessments?
a. Floor surfaces are clean and appropriate for the intended use
b. All screws are tightly fastened to each piece of equipment
c. Bathrooms are clean
d. Weights have been removed from all equipment
a. Floor surfaces are clean and appropriate for the intended use
Explanation: It is important to check floor surfaces, lighting and temperature as well as to scan equipment for proper function.
What is a proper place to store an incident report?
a. In your desk drawer
b. On your desk
c. In a locked filing cabinet at the gym
d. In a locked filing cabinet in your home
e. Either c or d
c. In a locked filing cabinet at the gym
Explanation: It is not appropriate to take any incident reports home, and they must remain in a locked cabinet.
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of tissue inflammation?
a. Pain and redness
b. Warmth and swelling
c. Loss of function
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b only
d. All of the above
Explanation: When tissues of the body become inflamed, they will elicit specific signs and symptoms of which the fitness professional needs to be aware. Pain, tenderness, swelling, warmth, and loss of function are all signs and symptoms of inflammation.
A client approaches you seeking advice on exercises that he can perform with a sore, swollen and inflamed elbow. What advice should you give your client?
a. Recommend a medical history and assessment of the injury.
b. It is ok to exercise in a modified exercise program incorporating the injured region.
c. With medical clearance, he should be able to participate in a modified exercise program using the non-injured parts of the body.
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c
e. Both a and c
Explanation: A thorough medical history, assessment and clearance will help a trainer make appropriate decisions regarding the client’s exercise program.
A member of the health club is found by a treadmill unconscious. The victim is unable to speak, so the EMS is called. You have assessed respirations and you cannot detect a breath. What is the next step of this assessment?
a. The rescuer should check for a pulse at the carotid artery.
b. The rescuer should give two breaths into the mouth.
c. The rescuer should start chest compressions.
d. The rescuer should perform a heal tilt-shin lift to open the airway.
b. The rescuer should give two breaths into the mouth.
Explanation: If no breath is felt or heard and the chest does not visibly rise, the rescuer should give two breaths into the mouth of the victim while pinching the nose. (Having a pocket mask available in a first-aid kit will provide a protective barrier for mouth-to-mouth contact).
Which of the following is NOT included in the “links” of the Chain of Survival?
a. Early access
b. Early CPR
c. Early transportation
d. Early advanced care
c. Early transportation
Explanation: The third link of the four is Early Defibrillation.
While training outside, Joe seems confused, nauseous and has red hot and dry skin. He is unable to drink the water you offer him. Joe is displaying signs of heat stroke. After calling EMS, what is the next thing you must do to help Joe?
a. Get him to a shady area and wait for EMS to arrive.
b. Cool him immediately - do not wait for EMS to arrive.
c. Monitor his blood pressure until EMS arrives.
d. Monitor his heart rate until EMS arrives.
b. Cool him immediately - do not wait for EMS to arrive.
Explanation: After calling EMS, cool the victim immediately - do not wait for EMS to arrive. Apply ice packs to areas of high blood flow such as the groin, armpit and neck.
Which of the following is an example of a “superset”?
a. 3 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and leg press with no rests in between.
b. 3 sets of 10 repetitions of leg press with 30 second rests in between.
c. 4 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 30 second rests in between.
d. 3 sets of 10 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 60 second rests in between
a. 3 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and leg press with no rests in between.
Explanation: A superset is a compound of exercises or sets of exercises performed in sequence with little or no rest between them.
Your client comes to you wanting to improve her rope climbing ability. Which training principle would focus on the latissimus dorsi, teres major, biceps and forearm flexors to achieve the desired results?
a. Progression
b. Overload
c. Specificity
d. Reversibility
c. Specificity
Explanation: The training principle of specificity allows for achieving desired strength-training objectives. While you develop specific muscles, you should not exclude opposing muscle groups in order to create balance throughout the body.
Ryan is training for a bodybuilding competition. He is strength training for muscle hypertrophy. What is the recommended training intensity for his strength training workouts?
a. 50-70% of his 1-RM
b. 60-70% of his 1=RM
c. 70-80% of his 1-RM
d. 80-90% of his 1-RM
c. 70-80% of his 1-RM
Explanation: The recommended training intensity for muscle hypertrophy is about 70-80% of maximum resistance.
What are the two key hormones of behavior that bond brain and body together and play extensive roles in mind-body visceral and cognitive responses?
a. Testosterone and estrogen
b. Corticotropin releasing hormone and adrenocorticotropin hormone
c. Adrenalin and norepinephrine
d. Cortisol and parathyroid hormone
b. Corticotropin releasing hormone and adrenocorticotropin hormone
Explanation: Corticotropin releasing hormone (or CRH) and adrenocorticotropin hormone (or ACTH) create a bond in the hypothalamus and higher brain center. This interface is the consummate of “mind-body connection.”
Janice is a 35-year-old woman who wants to improve her overall muscular fitness. When resistance training, how many repetitions should she perform per set?
a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15
d. 8-15
Explanation: For general muscle fitness it is recommended that a person complete 1-2 sets of between 8-15 repetitions.
Which of the following are utilized for anaerobic energy production?
a. Glycogen
b. Fatty Acids
c. Amino acids
d. Oxygen
a. Glycogen
Explanation: Glycogen and creatine phosphate are the main substrates utilized for anaerobic energy production.
Which of the following factors has the most influence over flexibility?
a. Tendons
b. Muscle
c. Joint capsule
d. Skin
c. Joint capsule
Explanation: The joint capsule or ligaments account for 47% of the resistance that is encountered and prohibits a full range of motion.
Prior to introducing lower body plyometrics to your client, what performance goal should he met first?
a. Squat 1.5 times his weight
b. Perform 3 to 5 box jumps
c. Perform upper body plyometric exercises with good form
d. Squat 10 times with 70% of his body weight
a. Squat 1.5 times his weight
Explanation: Clients should be able to squat 1.5 times their body weight or perform 5 squats with 60% of their own body weight within 5 seconds.
When designing a program that is focused on improving the production of muscular force and power, which of the following type of exercise will be implemented?
a. Plyometric exercises
b. Speed exercises
c. Agility exercises
d. Endurance exercises
a. Plyometric exercises
Explanation: Plyometric exercise incorporates quick, powerful movements. Plyometric training can be programmed specifically for either the lower body or upper body.
Which of the following adaptations to exercise is caused by general fluid accumulation in the spaces between muscle cells?
a. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy
b. Myofibrillar hypertrophy
c. Transient hypertrophy
d. Catabolic Hypertrophy
c. Transient hypertrophy
Explanation: Transient hypertrophy, not to be confused with sarcoplasmic hypertrophy which is an increase in sarcoplasm around the muscle cells, is the condition in which fluid accumulates around muscle cells and quickly dissipates after exercise.
Mark is overweight and has not exercised in a year or more. As a trainer, you will start him in Phase 1 of Aerobic Base Training. This phase is best characterized by which of the following?
a. Cardio interval training
b. Moderate intensity training for 3 or 4 days per week
c. 15 minute jog per day
d. Start cardio training with an exertion level below the talk test
d. Start cardio training with an exertion level below the talk test
Explanation: It is best to start Mark out with a low level of cardio with intensity that places his breathing and exertion below the talk test level.
Which exercise is an example of a pushing movement?
a. Lat pulldown
b. Row
c. Chest press
d. Spinal rotation
c. Chest press
Explanation: The chest press is a “pushing exercise” because the push represents the concentric portion of the exercise.
Your client is doing intervals on the stair machine. Each interval contains a portion of intensity in which his MET level is a 7 and he is performing at 70% of his VO2 max. He maintains at this level for 2-minute intervals. What level of exercise is he performing at?
a. Moderate Exercise
b. Vigorous Exercise
c. Light Exercise
d. High Risk Exercise
b. Vigorous Exercise
Explanation: Vigorous exercise is defined as exercising at a MET level above 6 and performing above 60% of an individual’s VO2 max. There is a substantial cardiorespiratory challenge involved, and this level cannot be sustained for very long.
Which part of the muscle senses differences in the magnitude and rate of stretching that is imposed on a muscle?
a. Myofascia
b. Muscle spindle
c. Mitochondria
d. Muscle fiber
b. Muscle spindle
Explanation: The muscle spindle detects quick stretches and invokes an involuntary contraction, increasing force production.
What is the optimal training intensity when resistance training for muscular endurance?
a. 60-70% of 1RM
b. 70-80% of 1RM
c. 50-60% of 1RM
d. 90-100% of 1RM
a. 60-70% of 1RM
Explanation: It is recommended that a person training for muscular endurance should train at an intensity level between 60 and 70 percent of their 1RM. This will facilitate the performance of a high volume of repetitions necessary for muscular endurance.
Which of the following contractions consists of the mutual coordination of antagonist muscles to maintain a position?
a. Isometric contraction
b. Co-contraction
c. Concentric contraction
d. Eccentric contraction
b. Co-contraction
Explanation: Agonist and antagonist muscles contract at the same time to stabilize a joint. For example, muscles of the core and the muscles of the pelvic floor must contract together to help maintain postural alignment during exercise.
Billy is a youth client that has expressed a dislike for systematic exercise. Given the guidelines of providing an environment to enhance motor skill in zone 1 of cardiorespiratory training, how long should Billy sustain activity on a daily basis?
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes or more
c. 45 minutes or less
d. There is no recommendation
b. 60 minutes or more
Explanation: In the youth population it is not recommended to focus on exercise but instead perform a variety of activities to enhance motor skills and fitness. This should be accomplished with an hour or more per day.
Dan is a new client that has been sedentary for the last 2 years. He would like to start strength-training sessions with you. How many times per week do you recommend him to meet with you for strength training?
a. 1 session per week
b. 2-3 sessions per week
c. 3-4 sessions per week
d. 4-6 sessions per week
b. 2-3 sessions per week
Explanation: It is recommended that new exercisers perform resistance training two to three days a week for best results.
Which layer of the core consists of muscles and fasciae that encircle the lower regions of the spine?
a. The deep or most inner layer
b. The middle layer
c. The outermost layer
d. The sagittal layer
b. The middle layer
Explanation: The middle layer of the core consists of muscles and fasciae that encircle the lower regions of the spine. The muscles included are the transverse abdominis, pelvic floor musculature and the adjoining fasciae. This is the muscular layer usually referred to as the core.
What type of muscle fibers are typically smaller with more aerobic capacity?
a. Slow-twitch
b. Fast-twitch
c. Type II
d. Both a and c
a. Slow-twitch
Explanation: Slow-twitch or type I fibers are typically smaller with more aerobic capacity (lower levels of force production for longer periods of time).
You have a deconditioned client and want to have a proper level of overload. Using the concept of session RPE, what would your client’s score be if she worked out for 30 minutes at an RPE of 4?
a. 34
b. 60
c. 64
d. 120
d. 120
Explanation: The concept of session RPE is calculated by multiplying the intensity by the duration of exercise. This allows clients to choose appropriate exercise intensity and allows a degree of training flexibility.
You are working with an athlete client who wants to improve his workouts with speed drills. Which of the following would be an observation to help the efficiency of your client’s arm action?
a. Drive from the elbows, not the shoulders.
b. Short strokes are utilized during top speed.
c. Relax the hands and maintain an open hand position.
d. Long strokes are utilized during the acceleration and deceleration phases.
c. Relax the hands and maintain an open hand position.
Explanation: Long strokes are utilized during the top speed and sustained speed phases. Short strokes are only utilized in the acceleration and deceleration phases. It is also important for the client to drive from the shoulders, not the elbows.
Jon has been strength training for 6 weeks. He is excited the he can now perform 12 repetitions of a seated row easily. What advise should you give Jon if he wants to increase his strength with this exercise?
a. Add 10% more resistance
b. Add 6-8 more repetitions
c. Add 5% more resistance
d. Add 8-12 more repetitions
c. Add 5% more resistance
Explanation: A range of eight to 12 repetitions represents approximately 70-80% of maximum resistance, which provides an effective training overload. Once 12 repetitions can be completed, it is advisable to add about 5% more resistance to provide progressive overload and facilitate further strength development.
Your client has increased his bench press strength by 50% over a 10-week training period. How long until he loses all of his strength gain if he completely stops training?
a. 10 weeks
b. 2 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 5 weeks
c. 20 weeks
Explanation: A person who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength at about one-half the rate that it was gained.
Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long should she rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?
a. Less than 30 seconds
b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds
b. 30-90 seconds
Which of the following is a proper progression for a single-leg squat?
a. Perform with feet at normal gait-width apart
b. Perform a leg swing to mimic gait
c. Add resistance
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Explanation: All of the above are acceptable ways to increase the difficulty of a single-leg squat.
Don is a client who is taking beta-blockers. It is important to monitor the intensity of his workouts. What is the recommended method for monitoring how hard your client is working?
a. Blood lactate and VT2
b. VO2 or METS
c. RPE
d. None of the above
c. RPE
Explanation: Rating of perceived exertion is a subjective method of gauging exercise intensity. Beta blockers decrease heart rate at rest and during exercise and make it impossible to reach normal target heart rates, regardless of the effort put out.
Trainers can utilize the ACE IFT model for core conditioning and balance training. Which stage of the ACE IFT model emphasizes seat and standing stabilization over a fixed base of support?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. The later portion of stage 2 and all of stage 3
b. Stage 2
Explanation: Stage 2 focuses on static balance. Stage 1 focuses on core function. Stage 3 focuses on movement training.
Your primary goal in working with a new client is to build muscular endurance. Which rest interval is most appropriate?
a. 30 to 90 seconds
b. Less than 30 seconds
c. 2 to 5 minutes
d. 90 to 120 seconds
b. Less than 30 seconds
Explanation: The suggested training volume when working with a client who is pursuing a goal of muscular endurance is to perform 2 to 3 sets with less than 30-second rest intervals.
Which of the following is an example of a biarticular muscle?
a. Soleus
b. Triceps
c. Hamstrings
d. Gluteals
c. Hamstrings
Explanation: The hamstrings are biarticular muscles. Biarticular muscles cross two joints.
Your client has met all the prerequisites in order to train in phase 4. To improve power, what phase between the concentric and eccentric actions should be kept to a minimum to produce the greatest amount of muscular force?
a. Amortization
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
c. Anaerobic
d. Isometric
a. Amortization
Explanation: The amortization phase allows the body’s reflexive response to concentrically contract a muscle after it has been rapidly stretched. This allows for greater power as the elastic energy built up in the eccentric phase can then be distributed immediately into concentric contraction.
Which two primary hormones are associated with tissue growth and muscular development?
a. Cortisol and testosterone
b. Cortisol and growth hormone
c. Growth hormone and testosterone
d. None of the above
c. Growth hormone and testosterone
Explanation: The two primary hormones responsible for muscular strength and size are growth hormone and testosterone.
A diabetic client has been screened thoroughly by his physician and has clearance to exercise. The blood glucose level should be measured before and after each exercise session. When should the exercise session be postponed?
a. If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is below 100 mg/dL
b. If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is above 300 mg/dL
c. If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL
d. All of the above.
e. Both a and b only
e. Both a and b only
Explanation: The session should be delayed of postponed if the pre-exercise glucose level is below 100 mg/dL, or If the pre-exercise blood glucose is greater than 300 mg/dL. Clients should follow specific guidelines from their healthcare providers should these situations arise.
