Muscle Imbalances & Deviations - Chapter 7

Question 1

Correctable Factors

Answer 1

• Repetitive movements (muscular pattern overload)
• Awkward positions and movements (habitually poor posture)
• Side dominance
• Lack of joint stability
• Lack of joint mobility
• Imbalanced strength-training programs

Question 2

Non-Correctable Factors

Answer 2

• Congenital conditions (i.e scoliosis)
• Some pathologies (i.e rheumatoid arthritis)
• Structural deviations (i.e tibial or femoral torsion, or femoral anteversion)
• Certain types of trauma (i.e surgery, injury, or amputation)

Question 3

Lordosis

Answer 3

Increased anterior lumbar curve from neutral

Question 4

Kyphosis

Answer 4

Increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral

Question 5

Flat Back

Answer 5

The decreased anterior lumbar curve.

Neck Extensors, upper back extensors, rectus addominis, and ankle plantar flexors are most likely tight and need attention.

Question 6

Sway Back

Answer 6

Decreased anterior lumbar curve and increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral

Question 7

Scoliosis

Answer 7

Lateral spinal curvature often accompanied by vertebral rotation

Question 8

Pronation

Answer 8

Arch flattening at the subtalar joint

Question 9

Supination

Answer 9

High arches at the subtalar joint

Question 10

Anterior tilting of the pelvis frequently occurs in individuals with…

Answer 10

Tight Hip Flexors

• which is generally associated with sedentary lifestyles were individuals spend countless hours in seated positions.
• With standing, this shortened hip flexor pulls the pelvis into an anterior tilt (i.e. the superior, anterior portion of the pelvis rotates downward and forward)

Question 11

An Anterior Pelvic tilt rotates…

Answer 11

the superior, anterior portion of the pelvis forward and downward, spilling water out of the front of the bucket.

Question 12

A Posterior tilt rotates…

Answer 12

the superior, posterior portion of the pelvis backward and downward, spilling water out of the back of the bucket.

Question 13

Which Pelvic Tilt will increase lordosis in the lumbar spine?

Answer 13

Anterior Pelvic Tilt

Erector Spinae and Hip flexors are likely tight.

Question 14

Which Pelvic Tilt will reduce the amount of lordosis in the lumbar spine?

Answer 14

Posterior Pelvic Tilt

Hamstrings and Rectus Abdominis are likely tight.

Question 15

Tight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with…

Answer 15

Tight Erector Spinae Muscles

Question 16

Tight or overdominant rectus abdominal muscles are generally coupled with…

Answer 16

Tight Hamstrings, producing a posterior pelvic tilt

Question 17

Scapular Protraction

Answer 17

Noticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward

Question 18

Winged Scapula

Answer 18

Protrusion of the interior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward

Question 19

From the frontal view, what muscles do you suspect to be tight if you observe shoulders are not level?

Answer 19

Upper trapezius, levator scapula, rhomboids

Question 20

From the frontal view, what muscles do you suspect to be tight if you observe asymmetry to the midline?

Answer 20

Lateral trunk flexors (flexed side)

Question 21

From the sagittal view, what muscles do you suspect to be tight if you observe protracted (forward, rounded)

Answer 21

Serratus Anterior* , Anterior Scapulohumeral muscles, & upper trapezious

Question 22

From the frontal view, what muscles do you suspect to be tight if you observe medially rotated humerus?

Answer 22

Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi (shoulder adductors), subscapularis

Question 23

From the sagittal view, what muscles do you suspect to be tight if you observe kyphosis and depressed chest?

Answer 23

Shoulder adductors, pectoralis minor, rectus abdominis, and internal oblique

Question 24

From the sagittal view, what muscles do you suspect to be tight if you observe forward-head position?

Answer 24

Cervical spine extensors, upper trapezius, and levator scapule.

Question 25

While performing the bend and lift screen on a new client you observe that the downward (eccentric) movement is initiated at the knees. What would you suspect is causing the compensation?

Answer 25

Quadriceps and hip flexor dominance

• Movement initiated at the knees may indicate quadriceps and hip flexor dominance, as well as insufficientactivation of the gluteus group.

Question 26

During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or weak?

Answer 26

Rectus abdominis and hip extensors

Question 27

During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight?

Answer 27

Rectus femoris

• When a client is unable to flex the knee to 80 degrees, a personal trainer should suspect tightness in the rectus femoris, which does not allow the knee to bend.

Question 28

A male client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for 46 seconds. How would you rate this client’s performance?

Answer 28

Good

A male client who is able to hold the stork-stand position for 41 to 50 seconds is categorized as “good.”

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 187

Question 29

Which of the following postural deviations MOST LIKELY indicates that a client has medially (internally) rotated shoulders?

Answer 29

Anterior view: backs of hands are visible

• Scapular protraction can also be identified from the anterior view. If the knuckles or the backs of the client’s hands are visible when the hands are positioned at the sides, this generally indicates internal (medial) rotation of the humerus and/or scapular protraction

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 161-162

Question 30

Collecting heart rate throughout a cardiovascular assessment is important in order to determine if an individual is experiencing which of the following conditions?

a. Thermoregulation
b. Blood lactate accumulation
c. Cardiovascular drift
d. Anaerobic threshold

Answer 30

c. Cardiovascular drift

Cardiovascular drift is an increase in heart rate when workload has not been altered, and can lead to unsafe complications.

Question 31

In the sagittal plane, which fundamental movements occur?

a. Flexion and extension
b. Circumduction and opposition
c. Rotation and supination
d. Adduction and abduction

Answer 31

a. Flexion and extension

In the sagittal plane, fundamental movements include flexion, extension, hyperextension, dorsiflexion and plantarflexion.

Question 32

Helping clients successfully adopt and adhere to exercise programs is an integral part of a personal trainer’s job. Therefore, personal trainers must be able to incorporate behavior-change strategies. One effective behavior-change is stimulus control. Which of the following is an example of a simple and effective stimulus-control strategy?

a. The trainer guides the client through the goal-setting process and helps them understand how to set effective and appropriate goals.
b. The trainer and client outline a system of rewards for maintaining the program and maximizing adherence.
c. The trainer continuously educates the client on everything from the principles of behavioral change to exercise techniques.
d. The trainer recommends that the client write down workout times as part of a weekly schedule.

Answer 32

d. The trainer recommends that the client write down workout times as part of a weekly schedule.

Stimulus control refers to making adjustments to the environment to increase the likelihood of healthy behaviors. The overall goal of stimulus control is to make being physically active as convenient as possible.

Question 33

Which type of body-composition assessment technique measures the amount of resistance to electric current flow as it passes through the body?

a. Body Density (BD)
b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
c. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
d. Body mass index (BMI)

Answer 33

b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

Impedance is greatest in fat tissue, while fat-free mass, which contains 70-75% water, allows the electrical current to pass much more easily.