Practice Exam - Take 1

Question 1

Bob is a 45-year-old man who quit smoking 2 months ago. He has not participated in any exercise program in 2 years. His body mass index (BMI) is 32. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors?

a. Moderate risk, doctor’s supervision needed.
b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary.
c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.
d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

Answer 1

d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

Explanation: Since Bob is over 45 years old, it has been less than 6 months since he quit smoking and he also has a BMI of 32, he has 3 points on the risk stratification scale. Note that since Bob has a BMI above 25, you have to assume prediabetes which makes him symptomatic. Based on these factors, Bob is considered high risk, therefore he needs to have a medical examination prior to beginning an exercise program.

Question 2

Your client has a sedentary lifestyle and has noticed her health steadily declining. In what stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change would your client begin to consider the activity and identify implications of inactivity while remaining sedentary?

a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Action

Answer 2

a. Contemplation

Explanation: The contemplation stage is when a person is still sedentary but starts to consider the activity. They are, however, still not ready to commit to making change.

Question 3

When checking a client’s heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site?

a. Femoral artery
b. Jugular vein
c. Radial artery
d. Tibial artery

Answer 3

c. Radial artery

Explanation: The pulse can only be felt on arteries, and the most common sites are the carotid artery in the neck and the radial artery on the thumb side of the inside of the wrist.

Question 4

What would be an implication observed while watching your client perform the Apley’s scratch test for shoulder mobility?

a. The ability to reach up the spine with shoulder extension and internal rotation
b. The avoidance of impingement in the moving arm
c. The ability to touch the opposite inferior angle of the scapula
d. The inability to touch the medial border of the contralateral scapula

Answer 4

d. The inability to touch the medial border of the contralateral scapula

Explanation: The Apley’s Scratch Test is to assess simultaneous movements of the shoulder girdle, or primarily, the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joint. The inability to touch the medial border for the contralateral scapula would be observed as an implication.

Question 5

The body can be broken down into regions that are prone to be either relatively stable or mobile in terms of the joints that are involved. Which of the following has the correct relationship between the region and its role in joint mobility and stability?

a. Hips - stable
b. Thoracic Spine- mobile
c. Scapulothoracic - mobile
d. Knee - mobile

Answer 5

b. Thoracic Spine- mobile

Explanation: Sensory information can efficiently produce a proper movement sequence only if the joints are in the correct sequence of the stability/mobility relationship. While all joints are required to perform some form of stability and mobility, the knee is more prone to being stable, hips mobile, thoracic spine mobile, and the scapulothoracic region more stable.

Question 6

Which individual might a muscular power test be inappropriate for?

a. A 30-year-old man who is interested in pushing his physical fitness to the next level.
b. A 13-year-old boy looking to improve soccer performance.
c. A 25-year-old woman looking to improve her body fat percentage and tone.
d. A 56-year-old woman looking to get back into skiing.

Answer 6

d. A 56-year-old woman looking to get back into skiing

Explanation: Power tests are vigorous and can be hard on the body. Not much data exists on power in middle-aged to older adults because it is generally deemed unnecessary unless it is a client’s specific goal.

Question 7

Which woman has a waist to hip ratio that puts her at risk for obesity-related disease?

a. Jeanie with a ratio of 0.81
b. Emily with a ratio of 0.60
c. April with a ratio of .87
d. Both Jeanie and April

Answer 7

c. April with a ratio of .87

Explanation: A waist to hip ratio greater than 0.86 or higher is considered “at-risk” for women.

Question 8

Your client has osteoporosis. When designing her exercise program, you may need to avoid which of the following movements?

a. Spinal flexion
b. Pulling exercises from behind the head
c. Adducting or abducting the legs against resistance
d. All of the above

Answer 8

d. All of the above

Explanation: Each of the movements mentioned can be of concern and need to be avoided when designing a training program with a client who has osteoporosis.

Question 9

How often should Ratings of Perceived Exertion (RPEs) be taken throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

a. Once every 3 minutes
b. Once every 30 seconds
c. Once every minute
d. Once every 2 minutes

Answer 9

c. Once every minute

Explanation: RPEs should be taken during the last 5 seconds of every minute of a cardiorespiratory assessment.

Question 10

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship will the trainer first establish understanding and trust by listening to a new clients questions and concerns regarding her anxiety and insecurity of working out in a new environment?

a. Investigation Stage
b. Rapport Stage
c. Action Stage
d. Contemplation Stage

Answer 10

b. Rapport Stage

Explanation: During the rapport stage, the personal trainer sets the scene for establishing understanding and trust. During this stage the trainer needs the client to believe that their trainer is genuinely interested in what clients have to say.

Question 11

Which of the following muscles is not responsible for hip extension?

a. Biceps femoris
b. Gluteus Maximus
c. Semitendinosus
d. Gluteus medius

Answer 11

d. Gluteus medius

Explanation: There are four primary muscles that act as hip extensors including the biceps femoris, gluteus maximus, semitendinosus and semimembranosus. The gluteus medius is a hip abductor.

Question 12

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD. is s condition that affects mainly which system?

a. Musculoskeletal
b. Integumentary
c. Cardiovascular
d. Respiratory

Answer 12

d. Respiratory

Explanation: COPD is a common respiratory problem, affecting the lungs and an individual’s oxygen-carrying capacity.

Question 13

When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise?

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae
b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

Answer 13

b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

Explanation: When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the rectus abdominis and the hamstrings.

Question 14

Heather is a middle-aged client who is recovering from a shoulder injury. After verifying that she has medical clearance, you have designed an exercise program to emphasize regaining strength and flexibility of her shoulder complex. During an overhead press, Heather is unable to move through a full ROM. What modification can you suggest for this exercise?

a. The shoulder should be positioned 30 degrees posterior to the frontal plane.
b. She should not be exercising the shoulder, because she could cause the muscle to re-tear.
c. The shoulder should be positioned 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane.
d. The shoulder should be positioned 30 degrees anterior to the sagittal plane.

Answer 14

c. The shoulder should be positioned 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane.

Explanation: The overhead press exercise can be modified so that the exerciser only moves through a portion of the ROM. The shoulders should be positioned 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane. This shoulder position helps prevent impingement (pinching) of shoulder structures.

Question 15

After working with a client in the pool, he trips walking to the locker room. You attend to him and notice he has a minor cut on his foot. The client is safe and able to speak. What is the first thing you should do to help your client with his cut?

a. Put a towel on it and apply pressure to control the bleeding.
b. Locate and take the first aid kit to the client, then put a bandage on the cut.
c. Locate and take the first aid kit to the client, then put on protective gloves.
d. Elevate the foot and put ice on it.

Answer 15

c. Locate and take the first aid kit to the client, then put on protective gloves.

Explanation: When administering first aid, a personal trainer should start by wearing personal protective equipment. Gloves are a universal standard and should be worn in all cases.

Question 16

Which of the following does NOT fall within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

a. Rehabilitating a knee injury.
b. Utilizing spotting techniques.
c. Demonstrating exercise methods.
d. Educating clients about health-related topics.

Answer 16

a. Rehabilitating a knee injury.

Explanation: An ACE personal trainer cannot rehabilitate anything.

Question 17

It is beneficial to set a specific and attainable goal for the amount of yearly income a personal trainer desires. If you were to make a $50,000 annual income in 50 weeks at $40 per session. What would be the number of sessions per week?

a. 30
b. 20
c. 25
d. 35

Answer 17

c. 25

The formula used to figure out how many sessions you will need to obtain per week can be configured by dividing your yearly income goal by how many weeks you are going to work

$50,000/50 weeks = $1,000 per week

To get how many sessions you need to do per week at $40 per session:

$1,000 per week / $40 per session = 25 sessions per week.

Question 18

To become more efficient with your personal training business you decide to perform a SWOT analysis. What does the O in SWOT stand for?

a. Order
b. Offer
c. Opportunities
d. Open

Answer 18

c. Opportunities

Explanation: The SWOT acronym is a simple tool for conducting a risk assessment. It stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Question 19

Which of the following goes against safety guidelines?

a. Leaving your client to take a call while they fill out paperwork
b. A client exercising in open-toed shoes
c. Your client drinking their own pre-workout drink during your session
d. Not spotting an exercise performed on a machine.

Answer 19

b. A client exercising in open-toed shoes

Explanation: Clients must wear any necessary protective equipment, including closed-toed shoes.

Question 20

You plan on taking your client outside for a training session. Before beginning the session, what must you incorporate into your workout plan?

a. You must have the client’s medical release for outside exercise.
b. You must make sure you have cell phone coverage where you intend to exercise.
c. A vehicle must be present in case of emergency.
d. An AED must be included in the equipment taken to the location.

Answer 20

b. You must make sure you have cell phone coverage where you intend to exercise.

Explanation: If an emergency arises, you must be prepared to call 9-1-1. In addition, the trainer should have the client’s emergency information available. The trainer should provide water that will be sufficient for the time, intensity, and temperature during the outdoor workout.

Question 21

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to stretching?

a. Presence of osteoporosis
b. Joint swelling
c. Prolonged immobilization of muscles
d. A healing fracture site

Answer 21

d. A healing fracture site

Explanation: While some conditions may pose slight concern and require extra consideration while stretching, a healing fracture site should never be stretched, no matter what.

Question 22

You are performing the risk-management protocol and are specifying the risks that may be encountered in the areas of instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure. What step of the risk-management protocol are you performing?

a. Risk evaluation
b. Selection of an approach for managing each risk
c. Implementation
d. Risk identification

Answer 22

d. Risk identification

Explanation: The steps of the risk-management protocol are risk identification, risk evaluation, selection of an approach for managing each risk, implementation, and evaluation. The specification of risks in the areas of instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure are all part of risk identification.

Question 23

You notice that a piece of equipment is not working properly, but have seen others using the piece of equipment with no problems. Which of the following would not be an approach for managing risk?

a. Avoidance
b. Transfer
c. Solve
d. Reduction

Answer 23

c. Solve

Explanation: The approaches to manage and reduce the identified risks are avoidance, transfer, reduction, retention, implementation, and evaluation. Anything that would fall into high risk should be avoided completely.

Question 24

What should be one of the top priorities when managing your own personal training facility?

a. Protecting your intellectual property
b. Handing out marketing brochures
c. Risk management
d. Making sure all of the funding is in place

Answer 24

c. Risk management

Explanation: Safety and risk management should always be a primary concern for a personal trainer.

Question 25

Your client has peripheral vascular disease and has been cleared by his doctor to begin an exercise program. What type of intensity should be performed during the client’s workout?

a. Jogging
b. Plyometrics
c. HIIT
d. Swimming

Answer 25

d. Swimming

Explanation: In order to reduce risk, a client with peripheral vascular disease should use non-impact exercise such as swimming, cycling, and other ergometer use. Activities such as walking can be performed, but should be performed with short duration and longer rest periods to improve distance.

Question 26

What is the minimum amount of time aerobic exercise should last?

a. 30 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 45minutes
d. 10 minutes

Answer 26

d. 10 minutes

Explanation: According to ACSM guidelines, a person should perform aerobic activity in bouts of at least 10 minutes in length.

Question 27

Your client is new to physical activity and performs each exercise as quickly as he can. What would be a proper training tempo for your client to begin within the concentric and eccentric phases of the movement?

a. 4-second concentric phase and 1-second eccentric phase
b. 2-second concentric phase and 3-second eccentric phase
c. 1-second concentric phase and 3-second eccentric phase
d. 2-second concentric phase and 2-second eccentric phase

Answer 27

b. 2-second concentric phase and 3-second eccentric phase

Explanation: The commonly recommended movement speed is 6 seconds per repetition. This involves a 2 to 3-second concentric phase and a 3 to 4-second eccentric phase.

Question 28

During a leg extension exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the agonist?

a. Hamstrings
b. Soleus
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Quadriceps

Answer 28

d. Quadriceps

Explanation: The muscle that is doing the “work” against the resistance is the muscle that shortens, which is called the agonist. In this case, it is the quadriceps.

Question 29

Optimal hypertrophy programs have several conclusions that determine the rate and extent of skeletal muscle hypertrophy.
Which of the following is accurate in terms of resistance training and muscle hypertrophy?

a. Resistance training should be periodized for muscle growth.
b. Use of a repetition range of 12 or more.
c. Single-set training (not multiple-set routines) produce superior hypertrophic results.
d. Rest intervals should be 2 to 3 minutes.

Answer 29

a. Resistance training should be periodized for muscle growth.

Explanation: Repetition range for muscle hypertrophy is 6 to 12 repetitions with rest intervals of 60 to 90 seconds. Multiple-set training appears to produce superior hypertrophic results, not single-set training. Other non-training factors influencing muscle hypertrophy is genetic background, age and gender.

Question 30

Which of the following are performance factors that affect the rate and degree of strength development in your client?

a. Volume, Intensity, aerobic capacity, flexibility and frequency
b. Rest intervals, volume, frequency, tempo and aerobic capacity
c. Volume, intensity, tempo, rest intervals and frequency
d. Power, aerobic and anaerobic capacity, volume and frequency

Answer 30

c. Volume, intensity, tempo, rest intervals and frequency

Explanation: There are several exercise performance factors that affect the rate and degree of strength development. These training variables include volume, intensity, tempo, rest intervals, and frequency.

Question 31

You are explaining the importance of stabilizing the scapulothoracic region during the proximal stability of the scapulothoracic region and distal mobility of the glenohumeral joint stage. On top of proper mobility of the thoracic spine, what would be a key factor to promote stability in the scapulothoracic region?

a. Mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Thoracic stability
c. Impingement against the coracoacromial arch during deltoid action
d. Muscle balance within the parascapular muscles

Answer 31

d. Muscle balance within the parascapular muscles

Explanation: The lumbar spine is most efficient when it is relatively stable, whereas the thoracic spine is required to be more mobile. The rotator cuff serves as a stabilizer for the scapulae and any imbalance in the length tension relationships of the shoulder could potentially lead to a negative outcome such as impingement.

Question 32

Which of the following is an example of an eccentric contraction?

a. Quadriceps in a leg extension
b. Biceps in a bicep curl
c. Rectus abdominis in the upward motion of an abdominal crunch
d. Quadriceps in a leg curl

Answer 32

d. Quadriceps in a leg curl

Explanation: An eccentric contraction occurs when the muscle opposing the action, or the antagonist, lengthens. In this case it is the quadriceps lengthening during a leg curl.

Question 33

Bob is a novice to working out and you are designing his resistance program. What progression would be optimal to allow for a proper progression in his resistance training?

a. Multi-joint Exercise to muscle isolation exercise
b. Unsupported machines to supported machines
c. uniplanar movement machines to multi-planar movement machines
d. Unilateral, free-moving machines to bilateral, fixed-level machines

Answer 33

c. uniplanar movement machines to multi-planar movement machines

Explanation: In order to avoid prematurely progressing your client’s abilities, you should start a novice client with uniplanar movements that involve support and isolated muscle groups. This will allow them to develop proper muscle activation and stability before advancing to larger multi-planar movements.

Question 34

When referring to the body’s “core” muscles, which of the following is not a part of this group?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Iliopsoas
c. External obliques
d. Rectus femoris

Answer 34

d. Rectus femoris

Explanation: The rectus femoris muscles are located in the extremities, not the central part of the body referred to as the “core”.

Question 35

Your client explains that his warm-up includes 10 minutes of light exercise followed by static stretching on the muscles that are going to be focused on. What should you tell your client about stretching before a workout?

a. It improves force-generating capacity of the contractile proteins of the muscle
b. Decreases tissue viscosity
c. Improves intensity
d. It enhances hypertrophy capabilities

Answer 35

b. Decreases tissue viscosity

Explanation: Stretching before a workout will improve muscle elasticity which lowers the force-generating capacity of contractile proteins. The warm-up should include a cardiovascular warm-up followed by an exercise specific dynamic warm-up

Question 36

Alan is a 28-year-old body builder looking to increase muscle size. When resistance training, how many repetitions should he perform per set?

a. 12 or more
b. 6-12
c. Less than 6
d. 8-15

Answer 36

b. 6-12

Explanation: When training for hypertrophy it is recommended to complete 3-6 sets of 6-12 repetitions.

Question 37

What form of stretching includes holding the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds, followed by a 10-to 30-second assisted or passive static stretch?

a. Ballistic stretch
b. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
c. Static stretch
d. Dynamic stretch

Answer 37

b. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

Explanation: PNF stretching allows for more range of motion due to the initial release of the stress-relaxation in the muscles before passively or actively increasing the range of motion. That is why it is required to hold the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds to allow the initial release.

Question 38

You are in the program design stage of strength development with your athlete client and you ask her to identify the different movement patterns, speeds, and muscles involved in her sport in order to properly conduct a needs assessment. To which option, in the needs assessment, would this information be applicable?

a. Movement analysis
b. Physiological analysis
c. Injury analysis
d. Current conditioning level

Answer 38

a. Movement analysis

Explanation: The trainer’s responsibility in strength development and program design is to identify the physiological parameters that need to be included in the program to achieve success. The movement analysis allows you to gather information to properly administer a program that will enhance the client’s activity or sport.

Question 39

What type of movements are performed within the scapulothoracic region and the glenohumeral joint?

a. Push and pull-type movements
b. Bend and lift type movements
c. Thoracic spine rotational type movements
d. Trunk extension type movements

Answer 39

a. Push and pull-type movements

Explanation: The glenohumeral joint is a highly mobile joint and its ability to achieve this degree of movement is contingent upon the stability of the scapulothoracic region.

Question 40

Which type of muscle fiber has a larger aerobic capacity?

a. Type IIa
b. Type IIx
c. Type I
d. Type Ib

Answer 40

c. Type I

Explanation: Type I muscle fibers are typically smaller with the capacity to sustain low levels of activity for extended periods of time. There is no such thing as type Ib muscle fibers.

Question 41

The force-generating capacity of a muscle based on the relationship between the contractile proteins of a sarcomere refers to which movement principle?

a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition

Answer 41

c. Length-tension Relationships

Explanation: The length-tension relationship refers to sarcomere length and the relationship between the contractile proteins actin and myosin, which determine the force production of a muscle fiber.

Question 42

Which of the following factors does not directly influence muscular strength performance?

a. Hormone levels
b. Age
c. Limb Length
d. Muscle circumference

Answer 42

d. Muscle circumference

Explanation: The circumference of a muscle does not directly influence the strength contained therein. Muscle circumference can be affected by fluid retention and many other factors that do not affect strength performance.

Question 43

Your 60-year-old client has been on a regular resistance training program since he was 30 years old. Since advanced age is associated with lower levels of anabolic hormones, what percent of strength loss has occurred since the age of 30?

a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%

Answer 43

b. 30%

Explanation: The average strength loss per decade in adults between 20 and 80 years of age 10%. Since the client is 60 years old and there has been 3 decades of strength loss, it results in 30% of strength loss since the age of 30.

Question 44

Allan is at an intermediate level with his plyometric training. How many contacts per session should he be completing with low-intensity drills?

a. 80 to 100
b. 100 to 150
c. 140 to 200
d. 200 to 220

Answer 44

b. 100 to 150

Explanation: For low-intensity drills, clients at an intermediate level should be making 100 to 150 contacts per session.

Question 45

Which of the following considerations would not have an effect on modifying an exercise program for an older adult client?

a. Avoiding cardiovascular risk
b. Avoiding orthopedic risk
c. Avoiding tissue elasticity
d. The need to preserve muscle tissue

Answer 45

c. Avoiding tissue elasticity

Explanation: Training an older adult requires relatively low-intensity exercise for the first several weeks of an exercise program. It should be assumed that there could be underlying heart disease in order to exercise with caution. C is not correct as you would want to preserve as much tissue elasticity as possible.

Question 46

Which of the following is an example of Stability and Mobility training?

a. Bend and lift movements
b. Leg extension
c. Depth jumps
d. Isolated isometric contractions

Answer 46

d. Isolated isometric contractions

Explanation: Stability and mobility training consists of isometric contractions and stretching to facilitate core strength.

Question 47

All of the following are varieties of whey protein, except:

a. Whey protein powder
b. Whey casein
c. Whey protein concentrate
d. Whey isolate

Answer 47

b. Whey casein

Explanation: Whey is the liquid remaining after mil has been curdled and contains all of the essential amino acids. Whey and Casein are separate forms of protein.

Question 48

You are at the early stages of proximal stability with your client and you are trying to improve her activation of the transverse abdominus by working on the supine drawing-in exercise.
What is the importance of the drawing-in exercise?

a. Improve mobility
b. Re-educate faulty neural pathways
c. Hypertrophy
d. Distal stability

Answer 48

b. Re-educate faulty neural pathways

Explanation: The core needs to function properly in order to reflexively function to stabilize the spine during voluntary or involuntary movements and loading. This exercise serves the purpose to re-educate neural pathways to send proper sensory information to the brain. Providing your clients’ ability to draw-in properly is a prerequisite to enhance into proximal mobility

Question 49

What is the recommended frequency of resistance training generally accepted by ACSM for healthy adults?

a. 2-3 days per week
b. 5-7 days per week
c. 1-2 days per week
d. 3-5 days per week

Answer 49

a. 2-3 days per week

Explanation: ACSM gives a general guideline of 2-3 days of resistance exercise per week for healthy adults.

Question 50

It is very important to monitor exercise intensity. Which of the following methods cannot be used to program and monitor exercise intensity?

a. Stroke volume
b. RPE
c. METs
d. Talk test/VT1

Answer 50

a. Stroke volume

Explanation: There are numerous methods to program and monitor exercise intensity including heart rate, RPE, METs, caloric expenditure, talk test/VT1, or blood lactate and VT2. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle of the heart with each beat and is not a method to monitor exercise intensity.

Question 51

Which of the following are utilized for aerobic energy production?

a. Creatine phosphate
b. Fatty acids
c. Glycogen
d. None of the above.

Answer 51

b. Fatty acids

Explanation: Fatty acids are the main substrate utilized for aerobic energy production.

Question 52

What is the major muscle group involved in the flexion portion of a leg curl exercise?

a. Hamstrings
b. Quadriceps
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Gastrocnemius

Answer 52

a. Hamstrings

Explanation: The hamstrings are the main group of muscles responsible for flexing the knee.

Question 53

Which of the following is not one of the four mechanisms used by the body to give off heat?

a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Evaporation
d. Receptors

Answer 53

d. Receptors

Explanation: There are four ways the body gives off heat including radiation, evaporation, conduction and convection.

Question 54

Which of the following describes the Valsalva maneuver?

a. Narrowing of the opening of blood vessels caused by contraction of the smooth muscle lining the vessels.
b. A strong exhaling effort against a closed glottis, which builds pressure in the chest cavity that interferes with the return of the blood to the heart.
c. Increase in diameter of the blood vessels, especially dilation of arterioles leading to increased blood flow to a part of the body
d. An involuntary motor response that, when stimulated, causes a suddenly stretched muscle to respond with a corresponding contraction.

Answer 54

b. A strong exhaling effort against a closed glottis, which builds pressure in the chest cavity that interferes with the return of the blood to the heart.

Explanation: The Valsalva maneuver is a strong exhaling effort against a closed glottis, which builds pressure in the chest cavity that interferes with the return of the blood to the heart: it may deprive the brain of blood and cause lightheadedness or fainting.

Question 55

Your primary goal in working with a new client is to build muscular endurance. Which rest interval is most appropriate?

a. 30 to 90 seconds
b. Less than 30 seconds
c. 2 to 5 minutes
d. 90 to 120 seconds

Answer 55

b. Less than 30 seconds

Explanation: The suggested training volume when working with a client who is pursuing a goal of muscular endurance is to perform 2 to 3 sets with less than 30 second rest intervals.

Question 56

This week Janet has 3 sessions at 60 minutes apiece with an RPE rating of 5. According to the training progression scale using RPE, what is Janet’s rating in points for this week?

a. 800 points
b. 900 points
c. 180 points
d. 15 points

Answer 56

b. 900 points

Explanation: Using the frequency x duration x intensity in RPE equation, 60 x 3 x 5 = 900 points on the training progression scale.

Question 57

Helen is focusing on using her own bodyweight to create an overload. Which training principle is she utilizing?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

Answer 57

b. Intensity

Explanation: The amount of resistance (her own body weight) is a measure of the intensity of Helen’s workout.

Question 58

How many days per week should a client do cardio exercise if they are in phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training and want to keep progressing toward their goal?

a. 1-2 days
b. 2-4 days
c. 4-5 days
d. 5-6 days

Answer 58

b. 2-4 days

Explanation: Ideally, a person in phase 2 of their cardiorespiratory training should aim for 3 days of cardio exercise per week in order to progress.

Question 59

Clients with low-back pain should avoid which of the following?

a. Unsupported forward flexion and rapid movements
b. Muscular endurance training with high repetition and lower resistance
c. Maintaining a neutral pelvic alignment and an erect torso during exercise
d. Both a and b

Answer 59

a. Unsupported forward flexion and rapid movements

Explanation: Generally, people with LBP should avoid unsupported forward flexion and rapid movements, such as twisting, forward flexion, or hyperextension. Muscular endurance - as opposed to muscular strength - has been shown to have the strongest positive association with low-back health. Maintaining normal joint alignment with a neutral pelvic alignment and an erect torso are critical for optimal health.

Question 60

When training a client with scapular protraction, which exercises should be avoided until the postural misalignment has been corrected to prevent further aggravation of the misalignment?

a. Lat Pull Down
b. Row
c. Back extension
d. Chest Press

Answer 60

d. Chest Press

Explanation: Scapular protraction occurs when the serratus anterior and synergistic muscles are tight and muscles of the upper back are weak. Chest press is an exercise that strengthens the serratus anterior and should be avoided to prevent increased tightness in the muscles causing the imbalance.

Question 61

Roger has been a client of yours for 2 years. Lately, he has not been able to progress and feels like he has plateaued. Instead of doing the same workouts week to week, you plan on changing his training program at regular intervals with a variety of variables including resistance, repetition and sets. What type of training will you be adding to his workouts?

a. Overload training
b. Specificity training
c. Periodization training
d. Phase 2 movement training

Answer 61

c. Periodization training

Explanation: Periodization training is a planned progression of resistance exercise that intentionally varies the training stimuli, especially with respect to intensity and volume. The advantage of periodization is the frequently changing demands on the neuromuscular system that require progressively higher levels of stress adaptation.

Question 62

Andrew is a 35-year-old man who is looking to increase strength in his upper body. How long should he rest in between sets of a bench press exercise?

a. Less than 30 seconds
b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds

Answer 62

c. 2-5 minutes

Explanation: When training for muscular strength or power a person should rest for a good 2-5 minutes between sets of resistance exercises.

Question 63

When stretching the hip flexors using a half-kneeling lunge stretch, your client should stretch the muscles in which plane before incorporating lateral trunk lean or trunk rotation?

a. The transverse plane
b. The sagittal plane
c. The frontal plane
d. The dorsal plane

Answer 63

b. The sagittal plane

Explanation: The trainer needs to focus on the muscle’s primary plane of movement before adding complexity by introducing movement in other planes. Flexion and extension movements occur in the sagittal plane.

Question 64

Your new client, Patty, wants to get stronger and lose some weight. She is afraid of developing bulky muscles and is hesitant about exercising on the selectorized weight equipment at the gym. What can you say to Patty to not be fearful of “bulking up”?

a. A very small percentage of women possess the genetic potential to experience significant muscle hypertrophy.
b. Women are typically smaller in size, and have less muscle tissue than men.
c. Women have higher levels of anabolic hormones than men.
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b only

Answer 64

e. Both a and b only

Explanation: Women have lower levels of anabolic hormones (testosterone) than men. Women can enhance their muscular strength and size with genetic limitations but, with rare exceptions, they will not naturally develop unusually large, muscular physiques.

Question 65

Which of the following accurately identifies and states what has contributed to weight gain and obesity in today’s society?

a. Overeating has been related to stress but not portion size.
b. Marketing has enticed people to choose foods that are low in fat but high in calories.
c. People do more in-home cooking and eat out less.
d. Caloric intake increased by 300 calories per day in the last few decades.

Answer 65

d. Caloric intake increased by 300 calories per day in the last few decades.

Explanation: Research has found that caloric intake increased by 300 calories per day from 1985 to 2002, which has contributed to weight gain and obesity in today’s society. People are doing less in-home cooking and are eating out more frequently which has contributed to weight gain and obesity. Overeating is often related to stress, portion size and value perceptions, and high caloric density foods. Inactivity is also a contributor as sixty percent of Americans do not meet the recommended amount of physical activity.

Question 66

Which of the following is an example of a positive progression in functional movement and resistance training?

a. Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge
b. Lunges to Wall sits
c. Wood chop to Pelvic tilts
d. Plank to Prone lies on the stability ball with torso movements

Answer 66

d. Plank to Prone lies on the stability ball with torso movements

Explanation: When progressing in functional movement and resistance training, it is important to start with static exercises and move to movement training. Plank is a static exercise focusing on core. Torso movements on a stability ball focus on the core as well but with added movement, thus progressing the exercise in a positive direction.

Question 67

When designing an exercise program for Mark you decide on 60-minute sessions of resistance training 3 times per week. Which training principle have you forgotten to include in Mark’s exercise plan?

a. Frequency
b. Intensity
c. Type
d. Time

Answer 67

b. Intensity

Explanation: There is no intensity in Mark’s plan. You should include the workload in every plan in order to effectively measure outcomes.

Question 68

Kristin is your client with low-back pain. She is exercising on a stationary bicycle at a light to moderate intensity, working on core strengthening exercises, and light resistance training. How many times per week do you recommend Kristin perform her low-back exercises?

a. 2-3 times per week
b. 1-2 times per week
c. 1-3 times per week
d. 3-5 times per week

Answer 68

d. 3-5 times per week

Explanation: Three to five times per week is recommended, with a goal of establishing a regular pattern of activity. Low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed daily.

Question 69

Bob is a new client who is 70 years old and has been inactive for about 10 years. His risk for exercise has been assessed and he has been cleared for exercise. How many sessions per week do you advise him to meet with you for full-body resistance training?

a. 1 day per week
b. 2 days per week
c. 3 days per week
d. None of the above. Bob should not be performing resistance exercises.

Answer 69

b. 2 days per week

Explanation: Research indicates that older adults recover more slowly from their strength-training workouts than younger adults. Two resistance-exercise sessions per week may be advisable for older trainees to attain ample muscle-remodeling time between training days.