Practice Exam - Take 3 Flashcards

1
Q

According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training process best follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood pressure?

a. Core Function
b. Balance
c. Static Posture
d. Health-Related Assessments

A

c. Static Posture

Explanation: It is considered best to test a client’s static posture after taking resting measures but before getting into training.

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2
Q

You are conducting the hurdle step movement screen and take note that there is a major discrepancy between the right and left legs. Which exercise would you want to avoid until the discrepancy has been improved?

a. Plank
b. Step-ups
c. Bilateral squat
d. Split stance squat

A

c. Bilateral squat

Explanation: The hurdle step is an assessment to visualize asymmetry throughout the body. With a major discrepancy between the left and right sides, you would want to put together a strategy that focuses on correcting unilateral movements before conducting a bilateral movement such as a squat.

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3
Q

Oxygen is essential to all body tissues for survival. Which of the following is not a problem in the respiratory system that interferes with the body’s ability to provide enough oxygen for the increasing demand that occurs during aerobic exercise?

a. Lateral epicondylitis
b. Bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. COPD

A

a. Lateral epicondylitis

Explanation: Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as tennis elbow.

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4
Q

A static postural assessment is considered very useful and serves as a starting point from which a personal trainer can identify muscle imbalances. Your client exhibits an increased posterior thoracic curve and a decreased anterior lumbar curve. Which of the following postural deviations is your client experiencing?

a. Sway-back
b. Lordosis
c. Kyphosis
d. Flat-back

A

a. Sway-back

Explanation: Sway-back is a decreased anterior lumbar curve and increased posterior thoracic curve from neutral.

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding participation and adherence in an exercise program?

a. A client’s past exercise history is a predictable behavior with exercise.
b. Social support plays an important role in maintaining an exercise program.
c. A client’s location relative to the exercise facility can have an influence.
d. Clients who perform moderate-intensity exercises are almost twice as likely to drop out.

A

d. Clients who perform moderate-intensity exercises are almost twice as likely to drop out.

Explanation: Clients tend to drop out twice as much when they do high-intensity workouts compared to moderate-intensity programs.

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6
Q

When on the treadmill, your client becomes dizzy and passes out. She hits her head on the ground. She is unconscious and non-responsive. What is an appropriate action to take?

a. Go to a phone and call 911.
b. Gently move her out of the way of bystanders and prop her head with a pillow.
c. Have a coworker call 911 while you stay with her.
d. Begin CPR.

A

c. Have a coworker call 911 while you stay with her.

Explanation: It is necessary to call 911 if your client is unconscious, but you should never leave your client. You should never move someone with a possible head or neck injury unless they are somewhere life threatening.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of CPR?

a. To help the body maintain perfusion.
b. To get air into the person’s lungs.
c. To keep the person conscious.
d. None of the above.

A

a. To help the body maintain perfusion.

Explanation: The purpose of CPR is to help the person’s body maintain perfusion, or blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues.

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8
Q

Which of the following are utilized for aerobic energy production?

a. Creatine phosphate
b. Fatty acids
c. Glycogen
d. None of the above.

A

b. Fatty acids

Explanation: Fatty acids are the main substrate utilized for aerobic energy production.

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9
Q

What is the recommended movement speed per repetition for most machines and free weight exercises for beginners?

a. 6 seconds
b. 2 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 10 seconds

A

a. 6 seconds

Explanation: Six seconds is considered the best movement speed per repetition for new exercisers. It is recommended to be 1 to 3 seconds on the concentric part and 2 to 4 seconds on the eccentric part.

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10
Q

What is the biggest issue most people face when squatting?

a. Not enough ankle dorsiflexion
b. Too much ankle dorsiflexion
c. Quadriceps are not strong enough
d. None of the above

A

a. Not enough ankle dorsiflexion

Explanation: One of the most common problems people face when squatting is not enough ankle dorsiflexion and they have trouble keeping their heels down.

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11
Q

Which of the following adaptations to exercise is caused by general fluid accumulation in the spaces between muscle cells?

a. Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy
b. Myofibrillar hypertrophy
c. Transient hypertrophy
d. Catabolic Hypertrophy

A

c. Transient hypertrophy

Explanation: Transient hypertrophy, not to be confused with sarcoplasmic hypertrophy which is an increase in sarcoplasm around the muscle cells, is the condition in which fluid accumulates around muscle cells and quickly dissipates after exercise.

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12
Q

According to ACSM guidelines, what are the recommendations of cardiorespiratory exercise intensity and frequency for healthy adults?

a. Moderate-intensity exercise at least 5 days/wk
b. Moderate-intensity exercise at least 3 days/wk
c. Vigorous-intensity exercise at least 3 days/wk
d. Either a or c

A

d. Either a or c

Explanation: It is recommended by ACSM that a healthy adult participates in either moderate-intensity exercise 5 days per week, vigorous-intensity exercise 3 days per week, or a combination of the two.

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13
Q

Which of the following is an example of a concentric contraction?

a. Hamstrings in a leg extension
b. Hamstrings in a leg curl
c. Triceps in a bicep curl
d. Erector spinae in the upward portion of an abdominal crunch

A

b. Hamstrings in a leg curl

Explanation: A concentric contraction occurs when the agonist muscle shortens, generating force. This occurs during the force-producing phase of the exercise, which in this case the hamstrings produce in the curling phase of a leg curl.

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14
Q

Justin is performing bicep curls with dumbbells. As he lowers the weights and lengthens his arms, which type of contraction is the bicep experiencing?

a. Concentric contraction
b. Eccentric contraction
c. Progressive contraction
d. Isometric contraction

A

b. Eccentric contraction

Explanation: Eccentric is a type of muscle contraction in which the muscle lengthens against a resistance when it is stimulated.

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15
Q

Jim’s 1 repetition maximum for bench press is 100 pounds. If Jim follows the typical relative muscular endurance pattern, approximately what resistance should he be able to bench press for 10 repetitions?

a. 100 pounds
b. 50 pounds
c. 75 pounds
d. 65 pounds

A

c. 75 pounds

Explanation: Most people can complete about 10 repetitions at 75% of their 1RM.

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16
Q

What is an appropriate strength ratio for flexion and extension of the shoulder joint?

a. 2:3
b. 3:2
. 1:1
d. 2:1

A

a. 2:3

Explanation: The appropriate strength ratio for flexion to extension of the shoulder joint is 2:3.

17
Q

Jacob is talking 2-3 words at a time during aerobic exercise. When utilizing the Talk Test, which training zone is Jacob in?

a. Training zone 1
b. Training zone 2
c. Training zone 3
d. Training zone 4

A

c. Training zone 3

Explanation: Since Jacob cannot talk comfortably while training, he is in training zone 3. There is no training zone 4.

18
Q

When training your client to improve her speed and agility, she performs high-intensity drills for 15-30 seconds at an intensity level for 70% of her maximal effort. Which of the following energy systems is predominant during this drill?

a. Phosphagen system
b. Glycolytic system
c. Both a and b
d. ATP system

A

b. Glycolytic system

Explanation: The glycolytic system is predominating in speed and agility drills that require moderate power at a moderate duration.