Principles Anatomy

Question 1

What is endochondral ossification?

Answer 1

process in which an initial small, hyaline cartilage version grows and turns into bone (ossifies)

Question 2

What does a bone consist of?

Answer 2

outer cortical layer of compact bone
inner medulla of spongy bone
central medullary cavity which contains red marrow in the hematopoietic bones and white (fatty) marrow in the non-blood cell forming bones

Question 3

What is the periosteum?

Answer 3

fibrous connective tissue ‘sleeve’
it is well vascularised so mainly supplies compact bone
and well innervated which is why it hurts so much when you fracture bone

Question 4

What supplies the medullary cavity?

Answer 4

nutrient vessels: artery and vein
ALSO supplies:
bone marrow, spongy bone and deep compact bone

Question 5

What is a Callus?

Answer 5

initial healing structure which forms around a fractured bone

Question 6

What is surgical reducing and fixation?

Answer 6

surgically reduced: bone ends realigned

surgically fixed: bone ends held in correct alignment

Question 7

When do bony features develop?

Answer 7

during bone growth

Question 8

Give a cranial example of bony features?

Answer 8

cranial cavity (the space inside the skull) is divided into 3 fossae:
anterior cranial fossa
middle cranial fossa
posterior cranial fossa

Question 9

What is included in the axial skeleton?

Answer 9

bones of the skull
bones of the neck (including the cervical vertebrae & the hyoid bone)
bones of the trunk

Question 10

What is included in the appendicular skeleton?

Answer 10

bones of the pectoral girdle (attaches upper limbs to axial skeleton)
bones of the upper limbs
bones of the pelvic girdle (attaches lower limbs to axial skeleton)
bones of the lower limb

Question 11

What is the cranial vault?

Answer 11

neurocranium (i.e head)

• left and right parietal bone
• occipital bone
• left and right temporal bone
• left and right sphenoid bone

Question 12

What are the bones of the face?

Answer 12

viscerocranium
The right and left of:
- the nasal bone
- the zygoma (cheek)
- the maxilla
- the mandible

Question 13

What is the base of the skull?

Answer 13

skull cap

• the frontal bone
• the sphenoid bone
• left and right temporal bone
• the occipital bone

Question 14

What are Le Fort Fractures?

Answer 14

3 forms - all fractures of the bones in the face
1 - mouth area
2 - upper nose
3 - cheek and upper nose

Question 15

Name the regions of the 33 vertebrae?

Answer 15

7 cervical: C1-C7
12 thoracic: T1-T12
5 lumbar: L1-L5
5 sacral: fused to form 1 sacrum
4 coccygeal: fused to form 1 coccyx

Question 16

What occurs at C1?

Answer 16

Atlas

does not have a body or spinous process

Question 17

What occurs at C2?

Answer 17

Axis

has an odontoid process

Question 18

What occurs at C7?

Answer 18

vertebrae prominens

first palpable spinous process in 70% of people

Question 19

What is the pectoral girdle?

Answer 19

2 scapulae, 2 clavicles

Question 20

What is the pelvic girdle?

Answer 20

2 hip bones & the sacrum

Question 21

What is the arm?

Answer 21

between the shoulder joint and elbow joint

Question 22

What is the leg?

Answer 22

between the knee and ankle joint

Question 23

What is a joint? What do they allow?

Answer 23

articulation between adjacent parts of the skeleton

- provide our skeleton with mobility and enable locomotion

Question 24

What are the 3 types of joints?

Answer 24

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

Question 25

Describe a fibrous joint?

Answer 25

Limited Mobility 2 types: Syndesmoses: unites bones with fibrous sheet fibrous membrane partially movable Sutures between bones of skull highly stable

Question 26

What is a Fontanelle?

Answer 26

Fibrous joint wide sutures in the neonatal skull allow the growing frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital bones to ‘slide’ over each other - to make babys head smaller for birth

Question 27

What is a slipped femoral epiphysis?

Answer 27

the left femoral epiphysis (head) has “slipped” in relation to the growth plate on left side

Question 28

Describe Cartilaginous joints?

Answer 28

``` Two types: Primary cartilaginous - synchondroses - bones joined by hyaline cartilage e.g. long bone epiphyseal growth plate ``` Secondary cartilaginous - symphyses - strong - slightly movable - fibrocartilage e. g. intervertebral discs BOTH types can "slip"

Question 29

Describe Synovial joints?

Answer 29

``` 2 or more bones articulating with each other 5 types: Pivot Plane Hinge Ball and socket Biaxial ```

Question 30

What is a disc herniatation?

Answer 30

slipped disc | - can compress the spinal cord

Question 31

What is a bursa?

Answer 31

small fluid-filled sac lined by synovial membrane with an inner capillary layer of viscous synovial fluid - prevents friction around joints

Question 32

Name the joints in order of most - least mobile?

Answer 32

synovial cartilaginous fibrous

Question 33

What is subluxation?

Answer 33

ligament injury and/or slipped disc, but articular surfaces still in normal anatomical relationship to each other ] - reduced area of contact between articular surfaces

Question 34

What is dislocation?

Answer 34

complete loss of contact between articular surfaces

Question 35

Describe the serous pericardium?

Answer 35

Inner, membranous layer secretes serous fluid (glistens) - visceral and parietal layer

Question 36

Describe the visceral pericardium?

Answer 36

Outer, thick, tough layer prevents overfilling protective Haemopericardium can result in cardiac tamponade

Question 37

What two layers make up the pericardial sac?

Answer 37

fibrous and serous

Question 38

Describe the 3 layers of the heart?

Answer 38

external – Epicardium: visceral serous pericardium middle – Myocardium: muscle layer internal – Endocardium: inner lining

Question 39

Describe the 3 different types of muscle?

Answer 39

Cardiac Muscle involuntary & striated heart beating Smooth Muscle involuntary & non-striated “tube” narrowing Skeletal Muscle voluntary & striated skeletal movements

Question 40

What is an aponeurosis?

Answer 40

a flattened tendon

Question 41

What are the two main reflexes? Describe them.

Answer 41

stretch reflex - protecting against over stretching | flexion withdrawal reflex - when we touch something dangerous

Question 42

Describe muscle paralysis?

Answer 42

a muscle without a functioning motor nerve supply cannot contract on examination the muscle would have reduced tone

Question 43

Describe muscle spasticity?

Answer 43

the muscle has an intact and functioning motor nerve the descending controls from the brain are not working on examination the muscle would have increased tone

Question 44

What is atropy?

Answer 44

wasting of muscles so myocytes get smaller

Question 45

What is hypertrophy?

Answer 45

skeletal muscles enlarge: each individual myocyte also enlarges

Question 46

What is the T4 dermatome?

Answer 46

male nipple

Question 47

What is the T10 dermatome?

Answer 47

umbilicus