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Nursing School > Prep U Exam #2 > Flashcards

Prep U Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of pursed-lip breathing?

A

To address dyspnea and anxiety.

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2
Q

What is a flow meter?

A
  • Gauge that regulates oxygen supply

- Connected to O2 source

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3
Q

What is a nasal cannula?

A
  • Hollow tube for delivering small concentration of OS

- Not used to regulate amount of O2 delivered to the client

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4
Q

What does an adhesive nasal strip do?

A
  • Increases the nasal diameter

- Promotes easier breathing

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5
Q

If a patient has edema and a cough that produces a frothy sputum, what are they manifesting?

A

Congestive Heart Failure.

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6
Q

What are the primary sites of choice for arterial blood sampling?

A
  • Brachial
  • Femoral
  • Radial
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7
Q

Why is an Allens test done before an arterial blood gas sampling?

A

To ensure adequate ulnar blood flow when using the radial artery.

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8
Q

When is an oxygen tent more effective?

A
  • For children who need cool and highly humidified airflow

- For children, because they do not like to keep oxygen administration devices in place

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9
Q

What is the oxygen delivery rate for an oxygen tent?

A

30-50%.

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10
Q

Which test allows visualization of the airway directly?

A

Bronchoscopy.

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11
Q

Which test detects pathologic lung changes?

A

Chest X-Ray.

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12
Q

Which test measures lung size and airway patency?

A

Pulmonary function test.

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13
Q

Which test detects allergies?

A

Skin test.

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14
Q

Which device delivers oxygen near an artificial opening in the neck?

A

Tracheostomy collar.

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15
Q

Which medication affects the rate and depth of respirations?

A

Opioids.

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16
Q

What is Wheezing?

A

High-pitched, musical sound heard primarily during expiration but may also be heard on inspiration.

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17
Q

What is the effect of Croup?

A

Obstructs upper airways by swelling the throat tissues.

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18
Q

What is the effect of Asthma?

A

Inflames and narrows airways.

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19
Q

What causes Bronchiectasis?

A
  • Chronic inflammation

- Infection causing an excess accumulation of mucus

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20
Q

What kind if inhalant medication must be shaken before use?

A

Metered-dose inhaler.

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21
Q

What are common signs of Hypoxia?

A
  • Anxiety
  • Confusion
  • Clubbing
  • Drowsiness
  • Restlessness
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22
Q

What is FiO2?

A

Concentration of oxygen that a person inhales.

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23
Q

What is the only device that can deliver an FiO2 of 100%?

A

Nonrebreather mask.

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24
Q

What are the increments for oxygen deliver from a nasal cannula?

A
  • 1L = 24%
  • 2L = 28%
  • 3L = 32%
  • 4L = 36%
  • 5L = 40%
  • 6L = 44%
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25
Which number measurement indicates a normal mixture of oxygen and other gases in the environment?
0.21.
26
Which are signs of dyspnea specific to infants?
- Nasal flaring | - Retraction of ribs
27
What are the anticipated arterial blood gas results during respiratory acidosis?
- pH less than 7.35 - High HCO3 - High PaCO2
28
What does deep breathing assist with?
- Shallow breathers | - Maximizes ventilation
29
What does diaphragmatic breathing assist with?
- Uses the diaphragm instead of the chest muscles | - Increases volume of air exchanged during inspiration and expiration
30
What will an increase in carbon dioxide stimulate?
An increase in rate and depth of respiration to blow off CO2 levels and increase O2 levels.
31
What is the main suggestion a nurse can make to improve an older adult clients respiratory function?
Consume liberal amounts of fluids to increase moisture of mucous membranes.
32
When does blood pressure reach adult levels?
During the pre-teen to teen years.
33
What creates a risk for aspiration in infants?
- Small chest | - Short airways
34
What is a patient's target oxygen saturation level if they have COPD?
88-92%.
35
What are common symptoms of emphysema?
- SOB - Chronic coughing - Wheezing - Loss of appetite
36
What are characteristics of crackles?
- High-pitched - Soft - Discontinuous
37
What are the steps for proper nasopharyngeal suctioning?
- Advance 5-6 inches - Apply lubricant to the first 2-3 inches - Allow 30 second to 1 minute intervals between suctioning
38
What is the proper insertion depth for an oropharyngeal suctioning?
3-4 inches.
39
What are anticipated arterial blood gas results for metabolic acidosis?
- pH less than 7.35 - Low HCO3 - Low PaCO2
40
How do you make sterile saline?
1 teaspoon of table salt in 1 quart of water for 15 minutes.
41
What is the most important change post-surgery to look out for?
An ineffective cough, which would lead to post-op pneumonia.
42
What are the cough medication restrictions for thyroid disorders, diabetes, glaucoma, and hypertension?
- High Iodine - High sugar - Antihistamine - Decongestants
43
What are the anticipated arterial blood gas results during respiratory alkalosis?
- pH less than 7.35 - Low HCO3 - Low PaCO2 - Hyperventilation
44
What sound will the lungs make if fluid is present?
Rales.
45
What sound will the lungs make if sputum is present?
Crackles.
46
What sound will the lungs make if the airways are narrowed?
Wheezing.
47
What is healing by first intention?
Through use of surgical glue, staples, etc.
48
What is healing by second intention?
Wound is left open to heal naturally.
49
What is healing by third or tertiary intention?
Leaving a wound open to drain or ensure of no infection, then gets closed.
50
Which 3 nutrients promote wound healing?
- Protein - Vitamin A - Vitamin C
51
What is a stage I pressure injury?
Nonblanchable redness of intact skin.
52
What could a stage II pressure injury present as?
- Blister - Abrasion - Shallow crater
53
What is a stage III pressure injury?
Full-thickness tissue loss, but bone, muscle or tendon is not exposed.
54
What is a stage IV pressure injury?
Bone, muscle, and tendon are exposed.
55
Describe first-degree burns.
- Superficial - Reddish or pink - No blistering
56
Describe second-degree burns.
- Moderate to deep partial-thickness - May be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown - Usually moist w/ blisters
57
Describe third-degree burns.
- Full-thickness - Brown to black, to cherry-red or pearly-white - Bullae may be present - Dry and leathery
58
What is an eschar?
Thick, leathery scab that is necrotic.
59
What is the guideline for cleaning a gunshot wound?
- Clean from top to bottom | - Clean from center to outside
60
What is dehiscence?
Partial or total separation of wound layers that result from stress on wounds that are not healed.
61
What is evisceration?
Protrusion of intra-abdominal contents.
62
How do you collect a culture from a wound?
- Press and rotate the swab several times over the wound surface - Insert into culture tube at patient's bedside immediately after collection
63
Color differentiation for serous, sanguinous, serosanguinous, and purulent?
- Yellow - Red - Pink - White
64
What is autolytic debridement?
The patient's own bodily systems will break down the necrotic tissue.
65
What is mechanical debridement?
Physical removal of necrotic tissue.
66
What is biosurgical debridement?
Utilization of fly larvae's enzymes to break down necrotic tissue.
67
What is enzymatic debridement?
Utilization of a synthetic enzyme to break down necrotic tissue.
68
What is the function of a Penrose drain?
Open drainage system that promotes passive drainage of fluid into a dressing.
69
What is a hemovac?
- Round collection chamber - Spring inside - Negative pressure
70
What should you apply before applying wound closure strips?
Skin protectant to the skin around the incision.
71
What is the purpose of hydrogel dressing?
Promote autolytic debridement.
72
What are the benefits of transparent dressing in stage I pressure ulcers?
- Protection from shearing forces | - Visualization of the wound
73
What type of debridement are wet-to-dry dressings?
Mechanical.

Nursing School (25 decks)

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