Prep U Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of pursed-lip breathing?

A

To address dyspnea and anxiety.

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2
Q

What is a flow meter?

A
  • Gauge that regulates oxygen supply

- Connected to O2 source

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3
Q

What is a nasal cannula?

A
  • Hollow tube for delivering small concentration of OS

- Not used to regulate amount of O2 delivered to the client

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4
Q

What does an adhesive nasal strip do?

A
  • Increases the nasal diameter

- Promotes easier breathing

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5
Q

If a patient has edema and a cough that produces a frothy sputum, what are they manifesting?

A

Congestive Heart Failure.

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6
Q

What are the primary sites of choice for arterial blood sampling?

A
  • Brachial
  • Femoral
  • Radial
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7
Q

Why is an Allens test done before an arterial blood gas sampling?

A

To ensure adequate ulnar blood flow when using the radial artery.

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8
Q

When is an oxygen tent more effective?

A
  • For children who need cool and highly humidified airflow

- For children, because they do not like to keep oxygen administration devices in place

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9
Q

What is the oxygen delivery rate for an oxygen tent?

A

30-50%.

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10
Q

Which test allows visualization of the airway directly?

A

Bronchoscopy.

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11
Q

Which test detects pathologic lung changes?

A

Chest X-Ray.

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12
Q

Which test measures lung size and airway patency?

A

Pulmonary function test.

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13
Q

Which test detects allergies?

A

Skin test.

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14
Q

Which device delivers oxygen near an artificial opening in the neck?

A

Tracheostomy collar.

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15
Q

Which medication affects the rate and depth of respirations?

A

Opioids.

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16
Q

What is Wheezing?

A

High-pitched, musical sound heard primarily during expiration but may also be heard on inspiration.

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17
Q

What is the effect of Croup?

A

Obstructs upper airways by swelling the throat tissues.

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18
Q

What is the effect of Asthma?

A

Inflames and narrows airways.

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19
Q

What causes Bronchiectasis?

A
  • Chronic inflammation

- Infection causing an excess accumulation of mucus

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20
Q

What kind if inhalant medication must be shaken before use?

A

Metered-dose inhaler.

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21
Q

What are common signs of Hypoxia?

A
  • Anxiety
  • Confusion
  • Clubbing
  • Drowsiness
  • Restlessness
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22
Q

What is FiO2?

A

Concentration of oxygen that a person inhales.

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23
Q

What is the only device that can deliver an FiO2 of 100%?

A

Nonrebreather mask.

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24
Q

What are the increments for oxygen deliver from a nasal cannula?

A
  • 1L = 24%
  • 2L = 28%
  • 3L = 32%
  • 4L = 36%
  • 5L = 40%
  • 6L = 44%
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25
Q

Which number measurement indicates a normal mixture of oxygen and other gases in the environment?

A

0.21.

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26
Q

Which are signs of dyspnea specific to infants?

A
  • Nasal flaring

- Retraction of ribs

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27
Q

What are the anticipated arterial blood gas results during respiratory acidosis?

A
  • pH less than 7.35
  • High HCO3
  • High PaCO2
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28
Q

What does deep breathing assist with?

A
  • Shallow breathers

- Maximizes ventilation

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29
Q

What does diaphragmatic breathing assist with?

A
  • Uses the diaphragm instead of the chest muscles

- Increases volume of air exchanged during inspiration and expiration

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30
Q

What will an increase in carbon dioxide stimulate?

A

An increase in rate and depth of respiration to blow off CO2 levels and increase O2 levels.

31
Q

What is the main suggestion a nurse can make to improve an older adult clients respiratory function?

A

Consume liberal amounts of fluids to increase moisture of mucous membranes.

32
Q

When does blood pressure reach adult levels?

A

During the pre-teen to teen years.

33
Q

What creates a risk for aspiration in infants?

A
  • Small chest

- Short airways

34
Q

What is a patient’s target oxygen saturation level if they have COPD?

A

88-92%.

35
Q

What are common symptoms of emphysema?

A
  • SOB
  • Chronic coughing
  • Wheezing
  • Loss of appetite
36
Q

What are characteristics of crackles?

A
  • High-pitched
  • Soft
  • Discontinuous
37
Q

What are the steps for proper nasopharyngeal suctioning?

A
  • Advance 5-6 inches
  • Apply lubricant to the first 2-3 inches
  • Allow 30 second to 1 minute intervals between suctioning
38
Q

What is the proper insertion depth for an oropharyngeal suctioning?

A

3-4 inches.

39
Q

What are anticipated arterial blood gas results for metabolic acidosis?

A
  • pH less than 7.35
  • Low HCO3
  • Low PaCO2
40
Q

How do you make sterile saline?

A

1 teaspoon of table salt in 1 quart of water for 15 minutes.

41
Q

What is the most important change post-surgery to look out for?

A

An ineffective cough, which would lead to post-op pneumonia.

42
Q

What are the cough medication restrictions for thyroid disorders, diabetes, glaucoma, and hypertension?

A
  • High Iodine
  • High sugar
  • Antihistamine
  • Decongestants
43
Q

What are the anticipated arterial blood gas results during respiratory alkalosis?

A
  • pH less than 7.35
  • Low HCO3
  • Low PaCO2
  • Hyperventilation
44
Q

What sound will the lungs make if fluid is present?

A

Rales.

45
Q

What sound will the lungs make if sputum is present?

A

Crackles.

46
Q

What sound will the lungs make if the airways are narrowed?

A

Wheezing.

47
Q

What is healing by first intention?

A

Through use of surgical glue, staples, etc.

48
Q

What is healing by second intention?

A

Wound is left open to heal naturally.

49
Q

What is healing by third or tertiary intention?

A

Leaving a wound open to drain or ensure of no infection, then gets closed.

50
Q

Which 3 nutrients promote wound healing?

A
  • Protein
  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin C
51
Q

What is a stage I pressure injury?

A

Nonblanchable redness of intact skin.

52
Q

What could a stage II pressure injury present as?

A
  • Blister
  • Abrasion
  • Shallow crater
53
Q

What is a stage III pressure injury?

A

Full-thickness tissue loss, but bone, muscle or tendon is not exposed.

54
Q

What is a stage IV pressure injury?

A

Bone, muscle, and tendon are exposed.

55
Q

Describe first-degree burns.

A
  • Superficial
  • Reddish or pink
  • No blistering
56
Q

Describe second-degree burns.

A
  • Moderate to deep partial-thickness
  • May be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown
  • Usually moist w/ blisters
57
Q

Describe third-degree burns.

A
  • Full-thickness
  • Brown to black, to cherry-red or pearly-white
  • Bullae may be present
  • Dry and leathery
58
Q

What is an eschar?

A

Thick, leathery scab that is necrotic.

59
Q

What is the guideline for cleaning a gunshot wound?

A
  • Clean from top to bottom

- Clean from center to outside

60
Q

What is dehiscence?

A

Partial or total separation of wound layers that result from stress on wounds that are not healed.

61
Q

What is evisceration?

A

Protrusion of intra-abdominal contents.

62
Q

How do you collect a culture from a wound?

A
  • Press and rotate the swab several times over the wound surface
  • Insert into culture tube at patient’s bedside immediately after collection
63
Q

Color differentiation for serous, sanguinous, serosanguinous, and purulent?

A
  • Yellow
  • Red
  • Pink
  • White
64
Q

What is autolytic debridement?

A

The patient’s own bodily systems will break down the necrotic tissue.

65
Q

What is mechanical debridement?

A

Physical removal of necrotic tissue.

66
Q

What is biosurgical debridement?

A

Utilization of fly larvae’s enzymes to break down necrotic tissue.

67
Q

What is enzymatic debridement?

A

Utilization of a synthetic enzyme to break down necrotic tissue.

68
Q

What is the function of a Penrose drain?

A

Open drainage system that promotes passive drainage of fluid into a dressing.

69
Q

What is a hemovac?

A
  • Round collection chamber
  • Spring inside
  • Negative pressure
70
Q

What should you apply before applying wound closure strips?

A

Skin protectant to the skin around the incision.

71
Q

What is the purpose of hydrogel dressing?

A

Promote autolytic debridement.

72
Q

What are the benefits of transparent dressing in stage I pressure ulcers?

A
  • Protection from shearing forces

- Visualization of the wound

73
Q

What type of debridement are wet-to-dry dressings?

A

Mechanical.