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Nursing School > NUR 102 Exam 1: Blueprint > Flashcards

NUR 102 Exam 1: Blueprint Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 5 nursing competencies?

A
  • Assessing
  • Diagnosing
  • Planning
  • Implementing
  • Evaluating
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2
Q

What is the function of QSEN?

A

A project preparing future nurses with knowledge, skills, attitudes (KSAs) to continuously improve quality and safety of the HCS.

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3
Q

What are the competencies of QSEN?

A
  • Safety
  • Patient-centered Care
  • Evidence-Based Practice
  • Informatics
  • Quality Improvement
  • Teamwork and Collaboration
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4
Q

What is the order of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs from least to most necessary?

A
  • Physiological
  • Safety
  • Love and Belonging
  • Self-esteem
  • Self-actualization
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5
Q

What are some nursing mnemonics to utilize Maslow’s Hierarchy in patient care?

A
  • Help; observe and see if patient needs it
  • Environmental Equipment; safety
  • Look: Examine the patient thoroughly
  • People: Who are the people in the room? What are they doing?
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6
Q

What is the nursing care necessary to meet needs in each level of Maslow’s hierarchy?

A
  • Help maintain life, feed, use the bathroom, comfortable, oxygen,
  • Encouraging spiritual practices and independent decision making, hand hygiene, administer meds knowledgeably
  • Include friends and family in care of patient, establish trusting relationship with patient
  • Respecting patient values, beliefs and setting attainable goals for them
  • Provide a sense of direction, hope and maximize patient potential; autonomy
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7
Q

What are the aims of teaching and counseling?

A
  • Patient education in KSAs to improve and maintain health
  • Help patients and families maximize their functioning and quality of life
  • Provide resources and support for patients to actively participate in self-care
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8
Q

What are the topics in teaching and counseling?

A
  • Promoting health
  • Preventing illness
  • Restoring Health
  • Facilitating coping
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9
Q

How do you maximize the effectiveness of patient teaching?

A
  • T; tune into patient
  • E; edit patient information
  • A; act on teaching opportunities
  • C; clarify often
  • H; honor patient as a partner in education process
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10
Q

Like the nursing competencies, what are the steps of the teaching-learning process?

A
  • ADDDPIE

- Extra D for developing learning outcomes and teaching plan

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11
Q

What are the factors that are assessed in the learning process?

A
  • Age & Developmental level
  • Family support networks
  • Financial resources
  • Language deficits
  • Cultural influences
  • Health literacy
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12
Q

How do nurses facilitate behavioral change?

A

Do not tell patients what to do to solve problem, but assist and guide them to solve problems and make decisions.

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13
Q

What are 4 concerns of the nurse advocate?

A
  • Representing patients
  • Promoting self-determination
  • Whistle-blowing
  • Being politically active
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14
Q

How do you break the cycle of infection?

A
  • Hand hygiene
  • Immunization
  • Cough etiquette
  • Clean work environment
  • Antibiotics
  • Proper disposal of needles
  • PPE
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15
Q

What is the difference between medical and surgical asepsis?

A
  • Medical reduces number or microbes (clean)

- Surgical eliminates all microbes (sterile)

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16
Q

What are the 5 moments for hand hygiene?

A
  • Before touching a patient
  • Before clean or aseptic procedures
  • After bodily fluid exposure
  • After touching a patient
  • After touching patient surroundings
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17
Q

What are the steps in the infection chain?

A
  • Causative agent
  • Reservoir
  • Portal of exit
  • Transmission
  • Portal of entry
  • Susceptible host
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18
Q

What are the 4 stages of infection?

A
  • Incubation period; Organisms growing
  • Prodromal stage; Most infectious
  • Full (acute) stage of illness; Presence of symptoms
  • Convalescent period; Recovery
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19
Q

What factors increase risk of infection in patients?

A
  • Skin integrity
  • pH levels
  • Integrity and number of WBCs
  • Age, sex, race and heredity
  • Level of fatigue
  • Nutritional and general health status
  • Presence of pre-illness
  • Certain medications
  • Stress
  • Use of invasive/dwelling medical devices
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20
Q

What is the difference between standard and transmission-based precautions?

A
  • Standard is for every patient

- Transmission-based is dependent on isolation

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21
Q

Which factors help determine the type of isolation used?

A
  • Causative organism
  • Way organism is transmitted
  • If pathogen is antibiotic resistant or not
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22
Q

What are the 8 factors that affect safety?

A
  • Developmental considerations
  • Lifestyle/Environment
  • Mobility
  • Sensory perception
  • Knowledge
  • Communication
  • Physical state
  • Psycho-social
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23
Q

What are the extrinsic fall factors?

A
  • Lack of stair handrails
  • Poor stair design
  • Lack of bathroom grab bars
  • Dim lighting or glare
  • Obstacles/Tripping hazards
  • Slippery/Uneven surfaces
  • Psychoactive medications
24
Q

What are the intrinsic fall factors?

A
  • Older age
  • Previous falls
  • Muscle weakness
  • Gait and balance problems
  • Poor vision
  • Postural hypo-tension
  • Chronic conditions (arthritis, diabetes, stroke, etc.)
  • Fear of falling
25
Q

What are major steps in applying restraints (last resort)?

A
  • Secure order from PCP
  • Ensure that two fingers can be placed between restraint and patient’s extremity
  • Use a quick-release knot on bed frame NOT side rail
  • Remove restraint every 2 hours/According to facility policy and patient need
  • Keep call bell within reach
26
Q

What is the general physiology for maintaining temperature?

A
  • Hypothalamus controls thermoregulation
  • Nor(epinephrine) are released to increase heat
  • Sympathetic nervous system controls shunts to release heat
27
Q

What are the b ms of heat transfer?

A
  • Radiation (uncovered skin)
  • Convection (fan blowing on you)
  • Evaporation (sweat)
  • Conduction (heat to ice pack)
28
Q

What is the normal range of body temperatures?

A

96.7-100.5

29
Q

What is the physiology of the pulse?

A
  • Regulated by the autonomic nervous system through SA node
  • Parasympathetic (vagus nerve) stimulation decreases HR
  • Sympathetic stimulation increases HR and forces contraction
30
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for adolescents and adults?

A

60-100 bpm.

31
Q

What is the most powerful respiratory stimulant?

A

Carbon dioxide.

32
Q

Which part of the brain allows for voluntary breathing?

A

Cerebral cortex.

33
Q

What is the stretching and distending of the elastic arterial walls called?

A

Compliance.

34
Q

What are the mechanisms of short-term BP regulation?

A

Through neural and humoral (pertaining to body fluids).

35
Q

Where do the mechanisms for long-term BP regulation occur?

A

Through the extracellular fluids in the kidneys.

36
Q

What is considered a drastic change in an individuals blood pressure?

A

When the rise or fall is around 20-30 mm Hg.

37
Q

What are the ranges for different categories of BP?

A
  • Normal; <120/80
  • Elevated; 120-129/80
  • Hypertension Stage 1: 130-39/80-89
  • Hypertension Stage 2: 140-179/90-119
  • Hypertensive Crisis: >180/>120
38
Q

What are the 3 channels of communication?

A
  • Auditory
  • Visual
  • Kinesthetic
39
Q

What are the components of the communication process?

A
  • Encoder
  • Decoder
  • Verbal/Non-verbal message
  • Interpersonal variables
  • Feedback/Environment
40
Q

What are the 3 phases of the helping relationship?

A

A. Orientation phase
- when the nurse and patient meet and get to know one another

B. Working phase
- when the nurse and patient work together to solve problems and accomplish goals

C. Termination phase
- during the end of the relationship

41
Q

What are the 10 forms of non-verbal communication?

A
  • Touch
  • Eye contact
  • Facial expressions
  • Posture
  • Gait
  • Gestures
  • General physical appearance
  • Mode of Dress and Grooming
  • Sounds
  • Silence
42
Q

How do you prepare to interact with a patient with cultural differences?

A

Identifying prejudices or attitudes that could affect interactions.

43
Q

What are the 7 Non-therapeutic Questions and Comments?

A
  • Cliches
  • Yes/No Questions
  • Why and How Questions
  • Info Probing Questions
  • Leading Questions
  • Advising Comments
  • Judgmental Comments
44
Q

What are other disruptive forms of communication?

A
  • Changing the subject
  • Giving false assurance
  • Gossip and rumor
  • Disruptive behavior (incivility)
45
Q

What are the variables that affect the movement and alignment?

A
  • Developmental
  • Physical/Mental health
  • Lifestyle
  • Attitude
  • Values
  • Fatigue
  • Stress
  • External factors (weather)
46
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle contracting exercises?

A
  • Isotonic
  • Isometric
  • Isokinetic
47
Q

What is isotonic exercise?

A
  • Muscle shortening
  • Active movement
  • Walking/Jogging
48
Q

What is isometric exercise?

A
  • Muscle contraction w/o shortening

- Yoga poses/Planks

49
Q

What is isokinetic exercise?

A
  • Muscle contractions with resistance

- Lifting weights

50
Q

When preparing to sit, what side of the body should the crutches be on?

A

The affected side.

51
Q

How does a patient ambulate with a cane?

A
  • Weight distributed evenly between feet and cane
  • Cane on strong side and advanced ahead
  • Weaker side goes first
  • Stronger side finishes
52
Q

What are some safe techniques for walker use?

A
  • Non-skid shoes/slippers
  • Move walker forward
  • One foot at a time inside stationary walker
  • Never push walker out too far ahead of you
  • Not to use on stairs
53
Q

What factors affect personal hygiene?

A
  • Culture
  • Socioeconomic class
  • Spiritual practices
  • Developmental level
  • Health state
  • Personal preferences
54
Q

What are the 5 categories of scheduled care?

A
  • Early morning care
  • Morning care (AM care)
  • Afternoon care (PM care)
  • Hour of sleep care (HS care)
  • As needed care (PRN care)
55
Q

What does SBAR stand for?

A
  • Situation
  • Background
  • Assessment
  • Recommendation
56
Q

What does FDAR stand for?

A
  • Focus
  • Data
  • Action
  • Response

Nursing School (25 decks)

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