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Nursing School > NUR 133 - Exam 3; Anna's Blueprint > Flashcards

NUR 133 - Exam 3; Anna's Blueprint Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the function of Helper T-cells?

A

Back-up cells.

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2
Q

What are the function of Cytotoxic T-cells?

A

Kills directly.

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3
Q

What are the function of Memory T-cells?

A

Creates antibody.

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4
Q

What are the function of Suppressor T-cells?

A

Tells system when fight is over.

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5
Q

What are the components of Cellular Response?

A
  • Helper T-cell
  • Cytotoxic T-cell
  • Memory T-cell
  • Suppressor T-cells
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6
Q

What are the components of the Humoral Response?

A
  • B-Lymphocytes
  • Memory cells
  • Plasma cells
  • Antibodies
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7
Q

Which part of the immune system produces antibodies?

A

B-cells.

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8
Q

What are the types of immunity?

A
  • Natural
  • Acquired
  • Active
  • Passive
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9
Q

What is a natural type of immunity?

A

Non-specific response to any invader.

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10
Q

What is an acquired type of immunity?

A

Specific to a pre-exposed antigen.

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11
Q

What is an actively acquired immunity?

A

Vaccinations.

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12
Q

What is a passively acquired immunity?

A

Mom to newborn.

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13
Q

What are the 4 types of Leukocytes?

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Basophils
  • Monocytes
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14
Q

What is the function of a Neutrophil?

A
  • Power-house

- 1st responder

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15
Q

What is the function of a Basophil?

A
  • Source of histamine

- Response with heparin

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16
Q

What is the function of a Monocyte?

A
  • Contain macrophages and dendritic cells
  • Phagocytosis
  • Antigen presentation
  • Cytokine production
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17
Q

What are signs of septic shock?

A
  • Lactic Acid > 4
  • Bands: Increased monocytes, decreased neutrophils
  • Anaerobic metabolism (unable to compensate)
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Breaking down ketones = lactic acid
  • Agglutination - Clumping of RBCs
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18
Q

What is the treatment for septic shock?

A
  • 100% oxygenation
  • Vasodilate to create volume
  • 0.9% NS
  • B/P > 90
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19
Q

What is the function of an Eosinophil?

A
  • Anti-allergy

- Any outside allergens get targeted by them

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20
Q

What is the entire Allergic Reaction Pathophysiology?

A
  • Allergen triggers B-cell to produce IgE antibody
  • Antibody attaches to mast cell
  • Allergen reappears, binds to IgE, triggers mast cell to release histamine
  • T-cell assists B-cell to secrete substances to destroy foreign bodies and stimulate macrophages
  • Macrophages digest antigens and remove debris
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21
Q

What type of foreign bodies do B-cells target?

A

Bacteria.

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22
Q

What type of foreign bodies do T-cells target?

A

Viruses.

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23
Q

What happens when an individual gets a 2nd exposure to a foreign body?

A
  • Bigger immune response

- No memory cells need to be created

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24
Q

What are increased serum IgE levels indicative of?

A

An allergic reaction.

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25
Q

What type of testing utilizes blood to determine allergies?

A

RAST test.

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26
Q

What is the biggest concern with distributive/circulatory shock?

A

Vasodilation with no volume.

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27
Q

What happens when mast cells release histamines?

A

Vasodilation which increase vascular permeability.

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28
Q

Which leukocyte releases heparin?

A

Basophils.

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29
Q

What supports a fever by increasing heat-generating effects?

A

Prostaglandin.

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30
Q

How soon does anaphylaxis occur?

A

Within the first 20 minutes.

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31
Q

What are the findings with anaphylaxis?

A
  • Vasodilation
  • Increased permeability
  • Smooth muscle contraction
  • Eosinophilia
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32
Q

What are the s&s of anaphylaxis?

A
  • Flushing
  • Urticaria
  • Angioedema
  • Hypotension
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Stridor
  • Wheezing
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33
Q

What is the treatment for anaphylaxis?

A
  • Epinephrine 1:1000; .3-.5mg SQ
  • Oxygenation
  • 0.9% NS
  • Anti-histamines
  • Corticosteroids
  • Auscultate lungs
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34
Q

What is the goal for treatment of anaphylaxis?

A
  • Increase vascular permeability

- Vasodilation

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35
Q

What is Type I Hypersensitivity?

A

Anaphylaxis.

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36
Q

What is Type II Hypersensitivity?

A

Cytotoxic mistaken identity body turns against component of body.

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37
Q

What is Type III Hypersensitivity?

A

Immune Complex.

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38
Q

What is Type IV Hypersensitivity?

A

Delayed.

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39
Q

What are some examples of Type II Hypersensitivity?

A
  • Pernicious anemia
  • Transfusion reaction
  • Thrombocytopenia
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40
Q

What are some examples of Type III Hypersensitivity?

A
  • Nephritis

- Rheumatoid Arthritis

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41
Q

What are some s&s of Type III Hypersensitivity?

A
  • Urticaria
  • Joint pain
  • Fever
  • Rash
  • Adenopathy (swollen glands)
42
Q

How long until you see a Type IV Hypersensitivity reaction?

A

1-3 days.

43
Q

What are some examples of Type IV Hypersensitivity?

A
  • Contact dermatitis
  • Hashimotos
  • Sarcoidosis
44
Q

What is a possible cause of Type IV Hypersensitivity?

A

Organ transplant.

45
Q

Atopic Reaction details.

A
  • Genetic

- Asthma, Rhinitis, Dermatitis

46
Q

Non-atopic reaction details.

A
  • No genetic component

- Latex

47
Q

Early manifestations for x Reactions.

A
  • Urticaria
  • Swollen tongue
  • No respiratory difficulty
48
Q

Early manifestations for Anaphylaxis.

A
  • Urticaria
  • Stridor
  • Swelling
  • Wheezing
  • Bronchoconstriction
49
Q

Early manifestations for Anaphylactic Shock.

A
  • Urticaria
  • Stridor
  • Swelling Airway
  • Hypotension
  • Wheezing
50
Q

What do you do within the first 72 hours of exposure to HIV?

A
  • Antiretroviral meds
  • Prophylaxis
  • T-cell identifies virus
51
Q

What is Stage 0 for HIV?

A
  • Early stage

- Inferred by lab test

52
Q

What is Stage 1 for HIV?

A
  • Acute stage
  • Most contagious
  • CD4 count of 500-1500
53
Q

What is Stage 2 for HIV?

A
  • Chronic stage
  • HIV attacks and kills CD4 cells
  • Increased symptoms
  • CD4 count of 200-499
54
Q

What is Stage 3 for HIV?

A
  • AIDS
  • Weak immunity - vulnerable to opportunistic infections
  • CD4 count drops below 200
55
Q

What are the manifestations of stage 0 HIV?

A

Can be asymptomatic.

56
Q

What are the manifestations of stage 1 HIV?

A
  • Flu-like symptoms
  • Mouth sores
  • Fatigue
  • Skin rash
  • SOB
  • Cough
  • Dyspnea
57
Q

What are the manifestations of stage 2 HIV?

A
  • Loss of appetite
  • Nausea & vomiting
  • Candidiasis
  • Wasting syndrome
  • Lymphomas
  • Neuropathy
  • Encephalopathy
58
Q

What are the manifestations of stage 3 HIV?

A
  • Karposi sarcoma
  • Pneumonia
  • Pneumocystis pneumonia
  • TB
  • Candidiasis
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Poor nutrition
  • Low levels of protein
59
Q

Karposi Sarcoma details.

A
  • Purple, red, brown blotches
  • Can turn into tumors
  • Appears in stage 3 HIV aka AIDS
60
Q

What are general interventions for HIV?

A
  • No spicy foods
  • Monitor wounds for infection/tunneling/necrosis
  • Improve airway clearance (stridor is priority)
  • Pulmonary therapy is priority in airway clearance care (cupping and deep breathing every 2 hrs)
  • Monitor nutritional status
  • Decrease social isolation
  • Monitor adherence to meds
  • CD4 < 200 refer to social worker/hospice care
  • Fluids & electrolyte balance - dehydration monitoring
61
Q

What is Brachytherapy?

A

Radiation through implanted internal port (i.e. prostate cancer care).

62
Q

What is Myelosuppression?

A

Decreased cell production in bone marrow.

63
Q

What is Neutropenia?

A

Abnormally low absolute neutrophil count (ANC).

64
Q

What is primary prevention for cancers?

A
  • Self-exams

- Sunscreen

65
Q

What is secondary prevention for cancers?

A
  • Screening/Skin assessments

- Diagnostics of lesions, etc.

66
Q

What is tertiary prevention for cancers?

A
  • Medications/Chemotherapy

- Preventing second component/side effect of cancer spreading

67
Q

What do Tx, Nx, and Mx mean?

A

The concerned area cannot be measured.

68
Q

What do T1-T4 refer to?

A

The size of the tumor from smaller to larger.

69
Q

What does N0 mean in grading?

A

No cancer in nearby lymph nodes.

70
Q

What does M0 mean in grading?

A

Cancer has not spread to other parts of body.

71
Q

What does M1 mean in grading?

A

Cancer has spread to other parts of the body.

72
Q

What are some typical pre-chemo meds?

A
  • Steroids (boosts immune system)
  • Zofran (for nausea and vomiting)
  • Epoetin (Combat anemia/administer RBCs)
73
Q

What do you assess in patients undergoing chemotherapy?

A
  • Fluid & electrolyte
  • Cognitive status
  • Infection
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Fatigue (give RBCs for anemia)
74
Q

What is Graft vs. Host Disease?

A

It is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in clients who have had an allogeneic transplant.

75
Q

What is hyperthermia indicative of with GVHD?

A
  • 1st sign that patient is rejecting stem cell

- Perform a temperature check every hour for first 72 hours

76
Q

What is infiltration?

A

Leakage of non-vesicant fluid.

77
Q

What is extravasation?

A

Leakage of vesicant fluid.

78
Q

What is the Cushing’s Triad?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia
  • Apnea
79
Q

What are bleeding gums post-radiation a sign of?

A

Myelosuppression.

80
Q

What are some s&s of leukopenia?

A
  • Fever
  • Pale
  • Bleeding gums
81
Q

What are Actinic Keratoses?

A

Pre-cancerous lesions on epidermis.

82
Q

Which type of skin cancer is most common?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma.

83
Q

Squamous Cell Carcinoma details.

A
  • Rough, scaly lesions on epidermis
  • Central ulceration and crusting
  • Can metastasize
84
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma details.

A
  • Small, waxy nodule on epidermis
  • High rate of reoccurrence
  • Erythema and ulcerations
85
Q

Malignant Melanoma details.

A
  • Irregular shape
  • Borders multiple colors
  • New/changed mole
  • Can occur wherever pigment cells are (i.e. Melanosis in intestines)
  • Rapid invasion and metastasis
86
Q

What are the ABCDE’s of a total skin self-examination?

A
  • A: Asymmetry
  • B: Borders
  • C: Color; lack of uniformity
  • D: Diameter; width > 6mm
  • E: Evolving
87
Q

What else do you do in a TSSE?

A
  • Body mapping
  • Take pictures
  • Moles monitored yearly
88
Q

What is the main cause of laryngeal cancer and what is the first sign?

A
  • Alcohol use/drinking

- 1st sign is hoarseness followed by dysphagia

89
Q

What are the alarming s&s of laryngeal cancer?

A
  • Stridor
  • Dyspnea
  • Globular sensation in throat
  • Hemostasis
  • Ineffective airway clearance
90
Q

Why do you promote coughing with patients that have laryngeal cancer?

A

To break apart secretions.

91
Q

What is the most common breast cancer?

A

Invasive Ductal Carcinoma.

92
Q

What are the screening methods for breast cancer?

A
  • Self-exam
  • Clinical exam
  • Mammography
93
Q

Benign breast tumor details.

A
  • Multiple/single
  • Rubbery texture
  • Mobile/slippery
  • Regular borders
  • Tenderness
  • No retraction
  • Change size quickly
94
Q

Malignant breast tumor details.

A
  • Unilateral
  • Firm texture
  • Irregular border
  • Painless
  • Retraction
  • Grows constantly
95
Q

Plan of care for patients with lymphedema.

A
  • Constantly move arm
  • No BP/Blood draws
  • Elevation (promotes drainage)
  • Drains & wound care
  • Armband & mark room
  • Compression sleeve
96
Q

What is a priority aids treatment?

A

Comfort.

97
Q

What is the 1st sign and med of anaphylactic reactions?

A

Stridor and epinephrine.

98
Q

What are western blot and ELISA related to?

A

HIV testing.

99
Q

What are the initial s&s of HIV?

A
  • Night sweats
  • Flu-like symptoms
  • Sores
  • Fatigue
100
Q

What do you treat a simple allergic reaction with?

A

Diphenhydramine.

Nursing School (25 decks)

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