Practise EMQ Flashcards

0
Q

What is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction?

A

Myasthenia gravis

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1
Q

What is an inherited disorder associated with progressive weakness and degeneration of muscle fibres?

A

Muscular dystrophy

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2
Q

What injury occurs at the myotendinous junction?

A

A pull/strain

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3
Q

What is a viral disease that destroys the motor neurons?

A

Poliomyelitis

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4
Q

What is the common term for painful muscular contraction in response to ischaemia or metabolic disturbance?

A

Cramp

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5
Q

Which structures conduct most oxygen molecules diffusing through the walls of continuous capillaries?

A

Endothelial cells

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6
Q

Which structures conduct most glucose molecules diffusing through the walls of continuous capillaries?

A

Interendothelial junctions

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7
Q

Which structures may contain valves?

A

Lymphatics or veins

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8
Q

Which structure may contain purkinje fibres?

A

Bundle branches

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9
Q

What is the appropriate management for a traveller with chronic diarrhoea and weight loss?

A

Request a stool sample for microscopy for G. lamblia

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10
Q

What is the most appropriate management for a sick young child with dysentry?

A

Request a stool sample for culture and begin ABX treatment

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11
Q

What provides electrical insulation around neurons?

A

Myelin

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12
Q

The influx of what ion directly activates the synpatic release machinery to trigger the release of a neurotransmitter?

A

Calcium ions

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13
Q

The influx of what ion through voltage gated channels is associated with the rising phase of the action potential?

A

Sodium ions

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14
Q

Influx of what ion through ligand gated channels causes neuronal hyperpolarisation?

A

Chloride

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15
Q

What would you give to someone who has taken an overdose of anti-psychotic drugs?

A

Procyclidine

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16
Q

What cells of the adaptive immune system make up 25-35% of white cells in adult circulation?

A

B cells and T cells

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17
Q

What 2 cells contain histamine?

A

Mast cells and basophils

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18
Q

Name the granular cells of the innate immune system that make up about 65% of the white cells in adult circulation?

A

Basophils, eosinophils and neutrophils

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19
Q

What are the principle phagocytic cells of the innate immune system?

A

Macrophages, monocytes and neutrophils

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20
Q

What immune cells produce IFN and help to neutralise virally infected cells?

A

NK cells and T cells

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21
Q

Where along the GI tract do the foregut and midgut meet?

A

Duodenum

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22
Q

The vitelline duct may persist as an out-pocketing of which part of the GI tract?

A

Ileum

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23
Q

Which part of the GI tract is formed from both endoderm and ectoderm?

A

Anal canal

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24
Q

What is a category of systematic error due to differences in the quality of information obtained from different groups in a study, particularly common in case control studies?

A

Reporting error (or bias)

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25
Q

What is the term for the distortion of the relationship between 2 factors brought about by their mutual relationship with a 3rd factor?

A

Confounding

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26
Q

What is systematic error due to differences between those chosen for study and those not chosen?

A

Selection error (or bias)

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27
Q

The error of wrongly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true?

A

Alpha, type I, error

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28
Q

The error of wrongly accepting the null hypothesis when it is false

A

Beta, type II, error

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29
Q

What percentage of a volume of 0.9% NaCl infused IV would remain in plasma after equilibrium between body and fluid compartments?

A

20

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30
Q

What % of a volume of 5% dextrose infused IV would remain in plasma after equilibration between body fluid compartments?

A

7

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31
Q

What drug is used to ripen the cervix?

A

Prostin (dinoprostone)

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32
Q

What drug can be used in post partum haemorrhage every15 minutes IM up to a maximum of 8 doses?

A

Carboprost (15 alpha-methyl prostaglandin)

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33
Q

What kind of heart block causes a prolonged PR interval (>200ms) with a 1:1 ratio of P waves to QRS complexes?

A

First degree heart block

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34
Q

What would cause an irregular RR interval with no visible P waves?

A

Atrial fibrillation

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35
Q

What causes a broad QRS complex with a 1:1 ratio of P waves to QRS complexes?

A

Bundle branch block

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36
Q

What causes progressive lengthening of the PR interval preceding a non-conducted P wave?

A

Wenckebach phenomenon, mobitz type 1 heart block

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37
Q

Gastrulation begins with the formation of what?

A

The primitive streak

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38
Q

What layer of cells does the primitive streak form from?

A

The epiblast

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39
Q

What lies immediately dorsal to the epiblast?

A

Amniotic cavity

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40
Q

What studies provide the weakest form of evidence relating to the cause of disease?

A

Case series and case reports

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41
Q

What studies provide the strongest evidence relating to the efficacy of health related intervention?

A

Systematic reviews with at least 1 RCT

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42
Q

What is the most powerful type of observational study in providing evidence relating to the cause of disease?

A

Cohort studies

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43
Q

What studies provide estimates of incidence and prevalence but no information on the cause of disease?

A

Cross sectional studies

44
Q

What is a normal pulmonary arterial systolic pressure at rest?

A

25mmHg

diastolic is 8

45
Q

What is the oxygen content of normal pulmonary arterial blood?

A

150ml/L

46
Q

What is the oxygen content of normal pulmonary venous blood?

A

200ml/L

47
Q

What is the ratio of systemic to pulmonary vascular resistance?

A

10:1

48
Q

What is the total pulmonary blood volume?

A

400ml

49
Q

What is the most likely cause of isolated premature adrenarche in a girl?

A

Increased dihydroepiandrosterone

50
Q

What area of the GI tract is recognised by bands of longitudinal muscle?

A

Ascending colon

51
Q

Starting drugs such as rifampicin or erythromycin with what treatment would have significant effects on plasma concentration?

A

Oral theophylline

52
Q

In a small number of patients with asthma what drug can cause bronchospasm?

A

Oral ibuprofen

53
Q

Experiencing a tremor is common from using what treatment?

A

Inhaled salbutamol

54
Q

What drug can cause insomnia and should therefore be used in the morning?

A

Oral prednisolone

55
Q

What drug can cause oral thrush when using it?

A

Inhaled beclometasone

56
Q

A 65 year old lady has been feeling low for 6 months, has gained 2 stone in weight and complains of feeling cold, lethargic and a hoarse voice. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

A hypothyroid disorder

57
Q

A 50 year old man has a 3 year history of feeling generally low and miserable, no sleep, appetite, or weight change. No time off work needed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Dysthymia

58
Q

What causes villous atrophy with crypt hyperplasia?

A

Coeliac’s disease

59
Q

What infections biopsy sample will give a positive urease test?

A

H. pylori

60
Q

What might be the pathology for goblet cells in an area that is normally squamous mucosa?

A

Barrett’s oesaphagus

61
Q

What disease causes crypt abscesses and mucosal inflammation?

A

UC

62
Q

What disease has inflammatory infiltrate with non-caseating granulomas?

A

Crohn’s disease

63
Q

In which area of the GI tract would papillae be found?

A

The tongue

64
Q

In which area of the GI tract would a biopsy from an endoscopy show Giardia parasites?

A

The duodenum

65
Q

Which area of the GI tract would finger shaped villi be found?

A

The jejunum

66
Q

Where in the GI tract are valvulae conniventes (plicae) found?

A

The SI

67
Q

Which area of the GI tract has both smooth and striated muscle?

A

Oesophagus

68
Q

Abx treatement during admission to an elderly care ward is most likely due to what?

A

C. difficile

69
Q

What is a toxin produced by S. aureus that causes toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

Exfoliative toxin

70
Q

What toxin affects cAMP levels in the gut?

A

Cholera toxin

71
Q

What toxin acts at the NMJ causing flaccid paralysis?

A

Botulinum toxin

72
Q

What toxin causes scarlett fever?

A

Erythrogenic toxin

73
Q

What toxin causes whooping cough?

A

Pertussis toxin

74
Q

What is a common skin infection caused by a poxvirus that occurs most often in children? Small pearly-white lumps appear in clusters anywhere on the body

A

Molluscum contagiosum

75
Q

What infection, widely controlled by vaccination, causes a fine pink rash and enlargment of postauricular, suboccipital and cervical lymph nodes. If encountered intrauterine it can lead to developmental defects

A

Rubella

76
Q

In what condition are Koplik’s spots followed by a macular rash that starts at the head and spreads downwards?

A

Measles

77
Q

What contains M cells that are specialised for Ag detection?

A

Peyer’s patches

78
Q

What is the origin of all lymphocytes?

A

Bone marrow

79
Q

What is the site of initial differentiation of T-cells?

A

Thymus

80
Q

What wave coincides with atrial contraction?

A

a wave

81
Q

What coincides with closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves?

A

The second heart sound

82
Q

What coincides with the beginning of isovolumetric contraction?

A

First heart sound

83
Q

What immediately preceeds atrial contraction?

A

P wave

84
Q

What immediately follows the v wave?

A

y descent

85
Q

66 year old women with haemoptysis, weight loss and hypokalaemia. Serum cortisol levels are high following a dexamethasone suppression test. Most likely diagnosis?

A

Cushing’s syndrome due to ectopic ACTH

86
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 16 year old women with primary amenorrhoea, hirsuitism, and some signs of virilisation with raised 17-hydroxyprogesteron concentrations following a synacthen test?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

87
Q

34 year old women, infertility and oligomenorrhoea. Overweight, mild hirsuitism, serum LH/FSH raised, cortisol normal and testosterone upper limit of normal. Diagnosis?

A

PCOS

88
Q

38 year old women, presents with pigmentation and secondary amenorrhoea, has raised ACTH and low serum cortisol. Most likely diagnosis?

A

Addison’s

89
Q

42 year old women, previously well, drinks 20 units alcohol/week. 12 month history of easy bruising, difficulty getting up from sitting,weight gain and mild hirsuitism. Serum cortisol raised after dexamethasone suppression test. Diagnosis?

A

Cushing’s disease (pituitary adenoma)

90
Q

25 year old man with a solid testicular mass and normal tumour markers - most likely diagnosis is?

A

Seminoma

91
Q

65 year old man with testicular mass and normal tumour makers - most likely diagnosis is?

A

Lymphoma

92
Q

23 year old man with a testicular mass and markedly raised tumour markers - most likely diagnosis?

A

Teratoma

93
Q

What orgain/region of the alimentary tract has enterohepatic circulation?

A

Ileum

94
Q

What produces gastrin?

A

Gastric antrum

95
Q

What secretes enzymes in response to CCK?

A

Pancreas

96
Q

Where does bacterial fermentation of of complex carbohydrates take place?

A

Caecum

97
Q

What type of bone has a network of thin bony plates separated by wide narrow spaces?

A

Cancellous bone

98
Q

What is a cavity in the bone matrix which is occupied by a bone cell?

A

Lacuna

99
Q

What is often a characteristic of bone diseases and fracture repair tissues?

A

Woven bone

100
Q

What is a dense fibrous layer that covers the outer surface of bone?

A

Periosteum

101
Q

In a right handed 58 yo man with a proven carcinoma of the lung, how would you account for recent change in the voice with has become husky and weak?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

102
Q

In a 58yo man, proven lung carcinoma, how would you account for tightness of the collar, with headache, facial congestion and distended non-pulsatile neck veins?

A

Superior vena caval obstruction

103
Q

How would you account for weakness, confusion, convulsions with low serum Na, urea and creatinine?

A

Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH

104
Q

Which structures contribute to limb development and regulate proximodistal patterning?

A

Apical dermal ridge

105
Q

Which structure will form the greater omentum?

A

Dorsal mesogastrium

106
Q

Which structures will contribute to the ventricles of the heart?

A

Bulbus cordis

107
Q

Which structure will form the anorectal canal?

A

Cloaca