PRACTICE EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Agility plus which if the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
A.) strength B.) power C.) Change of direction D.) Speed

A

C.) change of direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach?
A.) depressions B.) processes C.) sulcus D.) bone spurs

A

B.) processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session?

A

1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Horizontal addiction is most common during what type of movement? A.) hip hinge B.) pulling C.) Pushing D.) Squatting

A

C. Pushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which muscle is overactive leading to the low back arching during OHSA?
A.) hip flexor complex B.) gluteus max c.) hamstrings complex d.) gluteus mes

A

A.) hip flexor complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
A.) moving grocery cart b.) raking leaves c.) getting in and out of car d.) cleaning

A

D.) cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Benefit that can occur as a result of exercise that compromise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?
A) decreased catabolic hormone stimulation b.) decreased anabolic hormone stimulation c.) increase anabolic hormone stimulation d.) increased catabolic hormone stimulation

A

C. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunch exercise correctly?
A.) step ups b.) barbell clean c.) single leg squat d.) depth jump

A

A.) step ups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?

A

Diastolic bp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs and pelvic girdle?
A.) peripheral b.) lateral c) appendicular d.) axial

A

Appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30-90 sec, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? A.) atp-pc system b.) glycolysis c.) oxidative phosphorylation d.) electron transport chain

A

B.) glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon what? A.) rapid amortization phase b.) absent stretch reflex c.) Release of stored everything during concentric phase d.) prolonged amortization phase

A

A.) rapid amortization phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What stage of change is someone in if the have been exercising but for less than 6 month? A.) maintenance b.) contemplation c.) pre-contemplation d.) action

A

D. Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions?
A.) sartorius b.) hamstrings c.) adductor complex d.) quadriceps

A

D. Quads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally?
A.) superiorly b.) inferiorly c.) medically d.) laterally

A

B inferiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? A.) connective tissues b.) tendons c.) fascia d.) muscle spindles

A

C.) fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Compared to nongeme iron, heme iron is absorbed how? A.) more efficiently b.) not at all c.) equally d.) less efficiently

A

A.) more efficiently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? A.) manufactured environment b.) assembled environment c.) construction environment d.) built environment

A

D.) built environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Asking a client to close their eyes during balance exercise would challenge which system? A.) visual system b.) somatosenory system c.) vestibular system d.) auditory system

A

A. Visual system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
A.) erector spinae b.) transverse abdominis c.) internal oblique d.) multifidus

A

A.) erector spinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Potential benefit to omega-3 fatty acids?
A.) increased energy b.) improved thyroid function c.) anti inflammatory properties d.) pro inflammatory properties

A

C.) anti inflammatory properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Davis’s law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?

A

Adhesions May begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Approximate midpoint of the body

A

Center of gravity of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The amount of blood in The ventricle before contraction

A

End diastolic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above vt2?

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If someone engages in a short intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most atp production?

A

ATP pc system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?

A

Thoracic and sacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Components of ATP

A

Adenine, ribose and three phosphate groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? A.) bracing b.) medicine ball throw c.) drawing in maneuver d.) back squat

A

C.) drawing in maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Into which category would a resting BP core of 128/79 mmHg fall? A.) stage 1 hypertension b.) elevated.) c.) normal d.) Steve 2 hypertension

A

B.) elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to over come them? A.) implementation intentions b.) coping responses c.) self monitory d.) resisting social pressure

A

B.) coping responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Observable movement of the limbs? A.) kinesiology b.) arthrokinematics c.) osteokinematics d.) biomechanics

A

C.) osteokinematics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Common physical characteristics of those with emphysema

A

Frequently underweight and May exhibits hypertrophied neck muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? A.) assessment of visual stimuli b.) speed c.) acceleration d.) stride Rate

A

A. Assessment of visual stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading the excessive forward trunk lean during the OHSA? A.) glute medius b.) glute max c) hamstring complex d.) hip flexors

A

D.) hip flexors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Local muscle if the core

A

Transverse abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane?

A

Sagital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Twi signs of mucked being overstretched?

A

Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than24 hours and swelling in the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? A.) flexibility b.) body composition c.) BP D.) resting HR

A

A. Flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In an integrated training program. What would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise/ movement component? A.) balance training b.) cardio respiratory training c.) core training d.) resistance training

A

D.) resistance training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? A.) increased end-systolic volume b.) decreased HR c.) decreased strike volume d.) increased HR

A

D.) increased HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates is known as

A

Motor unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Recommended frequency for resistance training in older adults

A

3-5 days/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Repetition range in the stabilization endurance phase of the OPT model

A

12-20 reps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Force that generates rotation

A

Torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A trainers response to a sexual harassment issue should be

A

Comply with all local, state, federal or provincial law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ProMotion that pulls a potential client toward a purchase by making them aware of the service

A

Pull promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is active flexibility used in the OPT model?

A

Phases 2,3 and 4 to improve soft tissue extensibility and neuromuscular efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the rockport test designed to assess?

A

A clients cardiovascular fitness level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Training system used with clients with cardiovascular disease?

A

Peripheral heart action system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many core exercises should be included in each phase 3 training session? A.) 1-3 b.) 0-4

A

B.) 0-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cognitive behavioral approach can help an individual during strenuous exercise
A.) social support b.) disassociation

A

B.) disassociation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why should training duration be limited to 60-90 min?

A

Longer training sessions increase risk of upper respiratory infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What point of view should a CPT observe a single leg squat?

A

From the front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

CPTs have about how long to make a good first impression

A

20 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Training adaptation expected with high volume training? A.) increased metabolic rate b.) increased motor unit recruitment

A

A.) increased metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Recommended intensity for resistance training for older adults a.) 40-80% of 1 RM b.) 30-65% of 1 RM

A

A.) 40-80% of 1 RM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of pelvic tilt does an individual with lower crossed syndrome have? A) posterior pelvic tilt b.) anterior pelvic tilt

A

B.) anterior pelvic tilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

After exerting for over 90 min, what fuel source is an individual most likely to run out of? A.) acetyl-coa b.) glycogen

A

B.) glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What type of fatty acids are omega 3?

A

Polyunsaturated fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Short burst of movement that involve a change of direction, speed or cadence

A

Agility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Postural distorsión involving foot probation, knee addiction and internal rotation

A

Pronation distortion syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In order for a muscle to increase in strength, what must happen to the motor unit within the muscle?

A

More motor units must be recruited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Fat percentage recommended for female athletes?

A

12-22%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

During measuring ski folds, which site measures horizontally? A.) biceps b.) iliac crest

A

B.) iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Resistance exercises used in phase 5
A.) 85-100% intensity superset with 30-45% 1RM power b.) 70-80% intensity supersets for 3-5 sets w 6-10 reps

A

A.) 85-100% intensity superset with 30-45% 1RM power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

4 sites for skinfold measurements

A

Biceps triceps subscapular iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Training frequency for new, unconditioned clients

A

2 days/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Body’s most usable form of energy

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Not a common site for a circumference measurment? A.) calf b.) forearm

A

B.) forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describes an isometric muscle action a.) constant muscle tension b.) constant muscle length

A

B.) constant muscle length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Main characteristic of motor (efferent) neurons

A

Stimulate muscle contraction and creat movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the corresponding HR for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6-20 scale of exertion? A.) 120 bpm b.) 140 bpm

A

B.) 140 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What muscle functions in a feed forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? A.) multifidus b.) rectus abdominis c.) erector apiñarme d.) glute max

A

A.) multifidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries ? A.) type III B.) type IIa c.) type IIx d.) type I

A

D.) type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which of the following is considered an open chain exercise? A.) bench press b.) bare bell squat c.) push up d.) pull up

A

Bench press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A process by which the human body continually strive to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

A

Homeostasis

78
Q

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?? A.) sarcomere b.) myosin c.) actin d.) endomysium

A

A.) sarcomere

79
Q

Altered movement patterns

A

Relative flexibility

80
Q

What % of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?

A

.72

81
Q

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena caca veins? A.) right atrium b.) right ventricle c.) left atrium d.) left ventricle

A

A.) right atrium

82
Q

The TRX rip trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? A.) flexión & extensión b.) rotation c.) abduction & addiction d.) inversion and eversión

A

B.) rotation

83
Q

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the LPHC?

A

Lateral subsystem

84
Q

What are the two basic types of disease?

A

Chronic and acute

85
Q

According to the iceberg effect which of the following training adaptations are considered surface level? A.) endurance b.) mobility c.) proper movement d.) stability

A

A.) endurance

86
Q

Which of the following is a primary goal of the strength endurance phase of the OPT model?

A

Enhance stabilization endurance and prime mover strength

87
Q

What is a sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?

A

60-120 sec

88
Q

Primary action of multifidus

A

Stabilize and extend the spine

89
Q

If someone went out for a 5 mile job w a friend, which energy system would provide most ATP ?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

90
Q

Kettle bells were first used

A

As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

91
Q

Two contraindications for self myofascial techniques

A

Cancer and bleeding disorders

92
Q

Periodization that uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?

A

Undulating

93
Q

Vitamin k supplements should be avoided by those taking which med? A.) insulin b.) painkillers c.) anticoagulants d.) inhalers

A

C.) anticoagulants

94
Q

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?

A

Concentric

95
Q

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?

A

As far as can be controlled without compensating

96
Q

Which of the following is a ketone body? A.) acetoacetic acid b.) lactic acid c.) glycogen d.) pyruvate

A

A.) acetoacetic acid

97
Q

What is the honey type of the clavicle, ulna and radius?

A

Long

98
Q

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they go through?

A

Glucogenesis

99
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?

A

Triceps brachii

100
Q

Most valid measurement of aerobic fitness

A

VO2max

101
Q

Strength training machines provide training in which planes?

A

Frontal & sagital

102
Q

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? A.) eversión dorisflexion and ankle adduction b.) eversión dorislexion and ankle abduction

A

B.) eversión dorisflexion and ankle abduction

103
Q

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity where talking is limited to infrequent short phrases? A.) zone 2 b.) zone 3 c.) zone 1 d.) zone 4

A

B.) zone 3

104
Q

A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which social support does he need

A

Informational

105
Q

What parameter of muscular development training would be most associated with this style of training? A.) strength and stabilization b.) strength and volume c.) growth and volume d.) growth stabilization

A

C.) growth and volume

106
Q

Posterior oblique subsystem includes which muscle groups?

A

Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus Maximus

107
Q

A client is doing a push up w 4-3-2-1 tempo. How many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?

A

4

108
Q

Motor fiction of muscles in lower extremity

A

Neuromuscular function

109
Q

Vertical ski fold taken 1 inch lateral to umbilicus (belly button) describes what skin fold location

A

Abdominal skin cold location

110
Q

Force couples accurately linked to the movement created by combined actions

A

Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

111
Q

What does plyometric training help increase?

A

Motor unit recruitment

112
Q

Neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindle

A

Autogenic inhibition

113
Q

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease risk of injury

A

Injury resistance

114
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the the four horsemen of fitness? A.) kettlebell b.) medicine ball c.) sandbag d.) vipr

A

B.) medicine ball

115
Q

130 to 139 mm Hg systolic 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

A

Stage 1 hypertension

116
Q

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training is an Example of what kind of periodization

A

Undulating

117
Q

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults

A

Family

118
Q

Premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers

A

Frank starling law of the heart

119
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?

A

Infraspinatus and teres minor

120
Q

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?

A

Inspiration with decrease in intrathoracic pressure

121
Q

Diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple describes what kind of skin fold location

A

Chest skinfold location for men

122
Q

Which exercise targets the local muscles of the core? A.) medball soccer throw b.) side plank c.) cable rotation d.) floor crunch

A

B.) side plank

123
Q

End products of electron chain transport?

A

ATP and water

124
Q

Which phase doesn’t reflect the traditional components of cardio respiratory training? A.) cool down b.) warm up c.) interval d.) conditioning

A

C. Interval

125
Q

Reps for stabilization and muscular endurance

A

12-20

126
Q

Sets for stabilization and muscular endurance

A

1-3

127
Q

Intensity for stabilization and muscular endurance

A

50-70% of 1RM

128
Q

Reps for muscular hypertrophy

A

6-12

129
Q

Sets for muscular hypertrophy

A

3-6

130
Q

Intensity of muscular hypertrophy

A

75-85% of 1RM

131
Q

Reps for maximal strength

A

1-5

132
Q

Sets for maximal strength

A

4-6

133
Q

Intensity for maximal strength

A

85-100% of 1RM

134
Q

Reps for power

A

1-10

135
Q

Sets for power

A

3-6

136
Q

Intensity for power

A

10% of body weight (medball) and 30-45% (weights)

137
Q

rest for muscular endurance

A

30-60 sec between reps

138
Q

Rest for hypertrophy

A

0-180 seconds

139
Q

Rest for maximal strength

A

3-5 min

140
Q

Rest for power

A

3-5 min

141
Q

How are nonessential amino acids broken down?

A

They are synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate

142
Q

What is stroke volume

A

Amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

143
Q

Protein structures important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?

A

Troponin

144
Q

What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise to help reduce pain?

A

Endorphins

145
Q

Contraction or the erector spinal and hip flexor muscles created what motion of the pelvis in the sagital plane?

A

Anterior pelvic tilt

146
Q

Primary adaptation of strength endurance training phase? A.) postural alignment b.) muscular endurance c.) maximal muscular strength d.) mobility and flexibility

A

B.) muscular endurance

147
Q

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?

A

Aligns the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel body forward

148
Q

Hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force, effectively, the d an example of what? A.) altered length tension relationship b.) synergistic dominance c.) reciprocal inhibition d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

B.) synergistic dominance

149
Q

Muscle that increases infra abdominal pressure

A

Transverse abdominis

150
Q

Regulated various metabolic process, including energy metabolism

A

Micronutrients

151
Q

Higher than normal energy expenditure during the recover period after exercise

A

Excess post exercise oxygen consumption

152
Q

Chronicle lung disease often have shortness of breath

A

Dyspnea

153
Q

Which of the following is not a skill related concept that would enhance core training? A.) quickness b.) agility c.) balance d.) coordination

A

A.) quickness

154
Q

What are catechilamines responsible for?

A

Increasing lipólisis

155
Q

What is NEAT

A

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercises such as walking, chores and walking up stairs. Doesn’t include eating sleeping

156
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Volume of blood pumped by the heart per min

157
Q

what is acidosis in the muscle?

A

Decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

158
Q

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

A

Local muscles

159
Q

Resistance training system most appropriate for hypertension clients?

A

Peripheral heart action

160
Q

Primary role of vitamin b

A

Macronutrient metabolism

161
Q

What does eccentric phase of plyometric movement accomplish

A

Deceleration

162
Q

Client seeking weight loss. Reps most appropriate for SAQ drills

A

3-5 reps

163
Q

Process by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

A

Atherosclerosis

164
Q

Normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable

A

Arteriosclerosis

165
Q

Individuals in this stage may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure or consistency.

A

Preparation

166
Q

Recommended amount of time to reassess a client

A

A month

167
Q

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in muscle relaxing. What is this action

A

Autogenic inhibition

168
Q

Which is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a vt1 test? A.) talk test b.) exercise modality c.) environmental temp d.) duration of each stage

A

C.) environmental temp

169
Q

Core balance exercises are a component of which part of an opt workout? A.) activation b.) skill development c.) clients choice d.) resistance training

A

A.) activation

170
Q

Effects of cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? A.) decreased venous return b.) venous pooling c.) increased ventricular filling d.) decreased ventricular filing

A

C.) increased ventricular filling

171
Q

Joints most associated with human movement

A

Synovial

172
Q

What does FITTE-VP STAND FOR

A

Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

173
Q

How does the stretch shortening cycle improve concentric force production?

A

Builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscles

174
Q

Phase of OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

A

Muscular development

175
Q

How is vt1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?

A

Continuous talking becomes challenging

176
Q

Mechanism responsible for increasing rate of heart conduction

A

Activation of sympathetic NS

177
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on unstable surface

A

Somatosensation

178
Q

What is osteoporosis

A

Disease which density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

179
Q

Neurological signal from the muscle spindle that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excess lengthening

A

Stretch reflex

180
Q

This impairment changes force couple relationships, produces synergistic dominance and lead to the development of faulty movement patterns, poor bodily control and joint dysfunction

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

181
Q

Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

182
Q

When a muscles resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce

A

Altered length tensión relationship

183
Q

<120/<80

A

Normal bp

184
Q

120-129/<80

A

Elevated

185
Q

130-139/80-89

A

Stage 1 hypertension

186
Q

140/90

A

Stage 2 hypertension

187
Q

180/120

A

Hypertensive crisis

188
Q

Transition from eccentric loading to concentric loading during stretch-shortening cycle

A

Amortization

189
Q

The ______ the amortization phase is, the ______ effective and powerful
A.) longer; more b.) shorter; more c.) longer; less d.) shorter; less

A

B.) Shorter; more

190
Q

Nerve meet synapse in spinal cord, signal sent to stretched muscle

A

Amortization