Porcine Flashcards
1
Q
How to treat Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia
A
inject with enrofloxacin
2
Q
This image shows ____ which can be caused by ___ or ____. You can differentiate the two with ___ because ___. In either case, you should treat the rest of the herd with ____.
A
This image shows polyserositis which can be caused by hemophilus parasuis (Glassers disease) or strep suis. You can differentiate the two with culture because H parasuis is fastidius whereas strep suis is not. Inject the rest of the pigs with ceftiofur.
3
Q
Adenovirus causes diarrhea in what age pigs?
A
diarrhea and GI disease in piglets
4
Q
Ascaris suum is a _____ primarily found in the _____ of pigs. With a high enough burden, ____ may occur. Ascaris suum can also migrate into the bile ducts and cause _____, through the _____ causing ____ on necropsy, and into the ___ causing the clinical sign ___. This is also known as ____ pnuemonia which is not responsive to ____. It typically affects outdoor ____ age pigs. It can be treated with ______.
A
Ascaris suum is a nematode, primarily found in the small intestine of pigs. If there is a large enough burden of the worms, they can cause obstruction of the intestine. They can migrate into the bile ducts causing icterus, through the liver causing fibrosis or “white spots” aka “milk spots.” and into the lungs causing pulmonary edema and abdominal breathing or “thumps.” This is also known as verminous pneumonia which is not responsive to antibiotics. It typically affects outdoor growing/finishing swine due to high environmental contamination. Treatment; Piperazine preparations have low toxicity and are moderately priced. The benzimidazoles and probenzimidazoles, dichlorvos, ivermectin, doramectin, and pyrantel are effective and have a broader spectrum of activity than piperazine.
5
Q
Atrophic rhinitis (AR) is caused by ______ and _______. This is a disease of _____ pigs due to transmission from ____. The best way to eliminate AR is _____.
A
AR is aused by Bordetella bronchiseptica and Pasteurella multocida type D. This is a disease of young pigs, due to transmission from the sow just after birth. Best way to control/eliminate AR is to select breeding stock that is negative for AR. Antibiotic treatment and flunixin will not reverse the condition and will probably not have any effects when nasal deviation is already present. If problem severe throughout herd, depopulation and restocking is an option. Can vaccinate with bacterin vaccines or purchase genetic stock free of AR
6
Q
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae is the cause of _____ in what age pigs?
A
Swine Dysentery - grower/finish pigs - diarrhea
7
Q
Brachyspira pilosicoli causes ______
A
associated with spirochaetal colitis
8
Q
Commercial US herds are free of this disease however feral swine may be carriers. Most infected animals appear healthy but may have ____ at any stage of ____.
A
Commercial herds in US are free, by feral swine have tested positive for Burcella suis. Often occurs in healthy appearing animals, abortions occur at any stage in gestation. There are usually few fetal or placental lesions, but the fetus may by autolyzed.
9
Q
Classical Swine Fever
A
Aka Hog Cholera. Considered a foreign animal disease in the U.S. Pestivirus from the family Flaviviridae. Animals exposed to BVD (does not usually cause disease in pigs, but pigs exposed to the virus seroconvert) can cross-react to CSF assay.
10
Q
Colibacillosis is caused by ______ usually in what age pigs?
A
Enteric E. coli; most common in pigs less than 5 days old but can occur in pigs 1-14 days or in the two weeks after weaning
11
Q
The cause of Edema disease is ____ and it typically affects ____
A
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (F18), fatal disease of rapid growing weaners pigs
12
Q
Enterotoxigenic E. coli produces ____ which causes destruction of _____. This pathogen typically affects _____ age pigs and may cause ____ in vital organs. Clinically this is seen as _____. Sick animals are treated with ____ and the herd is treated with _____ in the water.
A
Enterotoxigenic E Coli produces a heat stable toxin called Shiga toxin 2e which destroys endothelial cells in small vessels. This pathogen typically affects weaner pigs and causes edema in vital organs. Presentation: weaner pigs with anorexia, diarrhea, and edema of the eyelids, forehead and lips, dyspnea and open-mouthed breathing, some weak and circling. Do not have fever. Treatment: Ceftiofur in sick animals and gentamicin in the water
13
Q
Eperythrozoonosis is caused by _______ which is a _____ of ____ cells. It is often associated with hemolytic anemia, fever, icterus and reproductive failure. You may see a large ____ on necropsy. Diagnosis is by ____. The treatment of choice is _____. This disease can be prevented by controlling ____ and fomite transmission.
A
Eperythrozoonosis is caused by mycoplasma suis which is a obligate intracellular parasite of red blood cells. It is often associated with hemolytic anemia, fever, icterus and reproductive failure. You may see a large spleen on necropsy. Diagnosis is by blood smear or serology. The treatment of choice is oxytetracycline in feed. The disease can be prevented by controlling lice and fomite transmission.
14
Q
_______ can cause sudden death and non pruritic, flat purple skin lesions. There may also be _____-itis, ____-itis or abortion. It is treated with ______.
A
Erysipelas / Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae; diamond-shaped skin lesions + endocarditis, arthritis and abortion; treated with penicillin
15
Q
Exudative Epidermitis is also called ____ pig disease and is caused by _______.
A
“Greasy pig disease” caused by bacteria Staphylococcus hyicus
16
Q
Fasciola hepatica
A
liver fluke - parasitic trematode, snail intermediate host (Galba truncatula), Oxfendazole treatment
17
Q
Glasser’s Disease aka poly-____ is caused by ______ which is a gram-_____, __[shape]__. It is an acute disease initiated by stress and may cause _____ (6 clinical signs). Postmortem lesions include ____. What age pigs are most commonly affected? If you identify an outbreak you should ____\
A
Glasser’s disease aka polyserositis is caused by Glasserella (Haemophilus) parasuis, gram-negative pleomorphic fastidious bacteria. Acute disease characterized by high fever, swollen joints, severe coughing, abdominal breathing, CNS signs and sudden death. Lesions show fibrinopurulent pleuritis, pericarditis, and peritonitis. Meningitis is usually responsible for the cause of neurologic signs and seizures. This disease most commonly affects piglets from 2 weeks to 4 months of age.
Morbidity and mortality is high. If you identify an outbreak, inject all pigs with ceftiofur.
Treatment: inject pigs with penicillin, ceftiofur or other. Vaccine other pigs.
18
Q
This disease causes dark, greasy, brown skin lesions in the axilla, groin, head, and face.
A
Greasy pig disease aka exudative dermatitis caused by Staphylococcus hyicus.
19
Q
Haematopinnus suis
A
louse
20
Q
Glasserella (Haemophilus) parasuis is the causative agent of ______
A
bacteria “glassers” Characterised by sudden death but can often also lead to painful joints, pneumonia, and occasionally neurologic signs. Lesions show fibrinopurulent pleuritis, pericarditis, and peritonitis. Meningitis is usually responsible for the cause of neurologic signs and seizures. Most commonly affects piglets from 2 weeks to 4 months of age.
21
Q
Hemorrhagic Bowel Syndrome (HBS)
A
This condition results in sudden death in growing and finishing pigs. Affected animals found dead are characterized by a pale, distended carcass. Necropsy reveals that the entire intestinal tract has a severely congested, thin-walled appearance.
The cause of hemorrhagic bowel syndrome is unknown. Predisposing factors may include vigorous exercise, handling, fighting, piling, or irregular feeding. Highly fermentable rations, particularly if fed in liquid form, may increase the incidence of disease.
22
Q
Isospora suis causes _____ in ___ age pigs. It can be treated with
A
Isospora suis causes coccidiosis (diarrhea) in neonatal pigs 5-15 days of age. Piglet neonates pick up infected sporulated oocysts from a contaminated environment. Affected piglets develop diarrhea varying from creamy, pasty consistency or whitish feces to profuse watery yellowish diarrhea. Those infected are thinner than their counterparts of the same age and remain thin and hairy for several weeks. Severely affected piglets die, with mortality rates up to 20% in indoor and outdoor systems. Several anti-coccidial agents can be considered although efficacy may vary; ponazuril, Sulfamethazine, amprolium, and decoquinate. Agents reduce parasite burdens and shedding, but are infrequently completely effective at eradicating the parasite.
23
Q
Lameness differentials for young pigs
A
Mycoplasma hyorhinis, Streptococcus suis, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, and Haemophilus parasuis
24
Q
Lawsonia intracellularis causes ____ of ____ pigs. Notably it is a ____ organism.
A
a proliferative enteritis of grower/finisher pigs - intracellular organism
25
Leptospirosis
most important problem: reproductive failure. Acute leptospirosis in young pigs causes fever, anorexia, hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria, jaundice, and failure to grow. Chronic infections in dam cause reproductive failure as late term abortions, mummies, or weak piglets that die in a few days. Dams usually recover, conceive again, and carry their litters to full term.
Treatment: Tetracylines
26
Metastrongylus spp.
lungworm - earth worms intermediate host
27
Microsporum nanum
dermatophyte - ringworm in pig
28
Mycoplasma hyonoviae
bacteria causes arthritis and it typically seen in older pigs
29
Mycoplasma hyorhinis is found in _____ pigs while M hyosynoviae is found in __ pigs. Both cause ___-itis and are diagnosed with __.
Diagnosed by PCR. can cause arthritis in swine and is found in younger pigs while M. hyosynoviae is found in older pigs. Mycoplasmas are difficult to culture and require special media, PCR testing is a more sensitive and quicker technique.
30
Mycoplasma hyponeumonia makes the lungs more susceptible to other bacterial infections by _____
attaching to and disrupt pulmonary mucociliary apparatus and thus preventing it from functioning properly.
31
Mycoplasma suis causes
Causes Eperythrozoonosis.
32
Oesophagostomum ssp
nematode, susceptible to avermectin and piperazine
found in lumen of large intestine
Most infections are asymptomatic, but heavily infected pigs may show anorexia, emaciation, and GI disturbances
33
“Blue eye” is caused by a
Paramyxovirus
34
Parvovirus infection in ____ is usually ____. The most consistent sign of infection is when ____. Other signs may include mummified fetuses, weak piglets, small liters or still births. ____ are rare because the ____ is not affected, so there is no ____ released.
Parvovirus infections in gilts usually results in an inapparent infection. Bred gilts returning to heat most consistent sign. A transient leukopenia may occur, but the first noticed sign is usually the return to heat of a bred gilt. This is likely due to embryo resorption. Other signs may include mummified fetuses, weak piglets, small litters, or still births. Abortions are rare because the endometrium is not affected, so there is no PGF2-alpha released.
35
Picronavirus is a ____ upper respiratory virus
non-enveloped upper respiratory virus
36
The treatment for pityriasis rosea is____
non-contagious, unknown etiology, resolves on its own
Do not need to treat
37
Porcine Circovirus Associated Disease (PCVAD)is caused by ____ and is characterized by____ . Disease often occurs in the pigs ____ weeks old, although the disease can be also seen in older or younger pigs. Morbidity is typically ____ and mortality is up to ____ . In addition to death loss, this disease may cause ____ resulting in economic loss. The other clinical signs include____ . Risk factors for PCVAD include ____. The diagnosis requires____ . Control of PCVAD is achieved with _____.
Porcine Circovirus Associated Disease (PCVAD)is caused by PCV-2 and is characterized by overt weight loss. Disease often occurs in the pigs 8-18 weeks old, although the disease can be also seen in older or younger pigs. Morbidity is typically 5-20% and mortality is up to 50% . In addition to death loss, this disease may cause a substantial increase in time to market weight resulting in economic loss. The other clinical signs include growth retardation, wasting, dyspnea, visibly enlarged lymph nodes, anemia, jaundice, diarrhea and sometimes fever. Risk factors for PCVAD include comingled age groups, poor air flow, overcrowding and poor air quality . The diagnosis requires three parts:
1. At least a doubling of mortality (clinical history).
2. Demonstration of lymphoid depletion (histopathology).
3. High number of PCV2 antigen in the lesion (immunohistochemistry on tissue).
Control is achieved with vaccination.
38
Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS) can be diagnosed by testing _______ with ______
Test affected sows for virus via serum PCR. Sow usuallys abort shortly after infection and should still be viremic.
39
Proliferative enteropathy (PHE) is caused by ____. On necropsy you may find ___ in the intestines.
PHE is caused by Lawsonia intracellularis. Due to its acute nature, PHE does not always allow for gross evidence of proliferation. Red clotted blood in the intestines is almost pathognomonic for this condition.
40
pseudorabies aka _____ disease or _____ is a ____ virus. ____ are the natural reservoir. The virus primarily affects the ___ and ____ systems. Affected neotnates show ___ signs and morbidity is up to ____.Sometimes affected neonates are called ____ because of the clinical signs of ___-litis. Weaned pigs have ____ and ____ signs, and mortality is ____. Grower and finisher pigs get primarily ____ signs. Breeding pigs may have ____. Commercial swine herds in the US are ____ of psuedorabies.
psuedorabies aka "Aujeszky's disease" or Mad Itch is a herpes virus. Pigs are the natural reservoir. The virus primarily affects the brain and respiratory system. Clinical signs vary by age. Young neonates show CNS signs (anorexia, tremors, incoordination, blindness) and morbidity is up to 100%. Sometimes affected neonates are called "shaker pigs" because of the clinical signs of encephalitis. Weaned pigs have respiratory and CNS signs, mortaility is lower. Grower and finisher pigs get primarily respiratory signs (coughing, sneezing, nasal discharge). Breeding pigs may have reproductive failure. There is no tx but the vaccine has eradicated it from commercial swine in the US.
41
Rotavirus causes ____ in ____ pigs, but typically in pigs _____.
gray, pasty feces with poorly digested feed in any age pig, but typically from 1-5 weeks of age
42
Salmonella enterica (formerly choleraesuis) can cause ______ diarrhea and subsquent ____
yellow, liquid diarrhea with flecks of nectrotic tissue, rectal strictures
43
Samonella typhimirin is associated with ____ in the colon
associated with button ulcers in the colon
44
Spirochaetal colitis is caused by _____ and typically causes diarrhea _____ (timing). The prognosis is ____. You may want to rule out _____
diarrhea 2-6 weeks post-weaning. Last 7-10 days but some become chronic.
No diagnosis but want to rule out ileitis (Lawsonia intracellularis)
45
Stephanurus dentatus aka the ____ worm can use the ____ as its intermediate host. It is diagnosed by finding ____ in the ____ because these worms live in the ____, _____ or _____. If the worms migrate along the ____, the clinical signs of ___ and ___ may be apparent.
kidney worm, earthworm intermediate host
Diagnosis by finding ova on urinalysis. The parasites are often in or near the kidney, in the ureters, or in perirenal fat. Posterior ataxia or paralysis can occur due to larvae migrating along the spinal cord. Diagnosis is usually made on necropsy of by finding ova in the urine.
46
Streptococcus suis typically affects _____. Clinical signs include _____ but generally not colitis. It can look similar to ____ disease.
Infections usually affect nursing or recently weaned pigs. Clinical signs can be associated with polyarthritis, bronchopneumonia, sepsis, or meningitis. Morbidity and mortality vary greatly and are improved with treatment. Presentation is similar to glasser’s disease (haemophilus parasuis).
47
Stronguloides ransomi
threadworm in pigs, transmitted in colostrum, susceptible to ivermectin and benzimidazoles.
Reside in the small intestine of suckling piglets. Pigs may not show any clinical signs with only light infections. Heavy infection can cause diarrhea, anemia, emaciation, and death. Diagnosis can be made by fecal flotation, by an intestinal mucosal scraping, or necropsy.
48
____ causes 1-2 cm round papules, pustules, vesicles, and scabs on the ventral abdomen. This disease most often affects _____ pigs. It is transmitted by _____. Treatment is _____ unless _____.
Swine Pox causes 1-2 cm round papules, pustules, vesicles, and scabs on the ventral abdomen. Young and growing pigs most severely affected. Often transmitted by biting insects, particularly lice. Treatment is usually not required unless lesions become secondarily infected.
49
Transmissible Gastroenteritis is caused by a ____ and results in diarrhea with _____. Mortality can be up to 100% in pigs _____ days of age if it is a ____-zootic infection. The treatment is _____.
TGE is caused by a Coronavirus and results in diarrhea with undigested curds of milk. Mortality can be up to 100% in pigs less than 10 days of age if it is a epizootic infection. Treatment is symptomatic and supportive.
50
Trichinella spiralis is a _____ parasited transmitted via ____.
Trichinella spiralis is a nematode parasite transmitted via ingestion of encysted larvae in muscle (rodents, raw garbage, or cannibalism). This nematode can infect most mammals. Humans can get infection from eating inadequately cooked pork.
51
Trichuris suis aka _____ affects ____ pigs. It typically causes ______. The treatment is ____.
whipworm found in the cecum and large intestine, clinical signs of loose stool with mucous and some blood in finishing pigs. Causes hemorrhagic to mucohemorrhagic enteritis. Susceptible to avermectin or piperazine.
52
Vesicular exanthema affects pigs and also ____. It is indistinguishable from ____ and ____.
also affects sea lions
Currently only a concern among California pig farms, indistinguishable from FMD and Vesicular stomatitis
Transmission from seafood, once on farm, transmission via pig to pig contact
53
Vesicular stomatitis is a ____-virus that infects ____, ____ and _____. It is clinically indifferent from _____.
Rhabdovirus, infects insects, cattle, horses and pigs.
Clinically indifferent from FMD
No treatment, rely on biosecurity
54
Vitamin A deficiency can lead to _____ in young pigs and _____ in sows
A shortage in the diet can lead to head tilt, incoordination, reduced weight gains, and weak rear limbs in young pigs, especially an increase in middle ear infections, as also seen in turtles. In sows, it can cause embryonic mortality and congenital defects in their offspring.
55
Zearalenone is the most common cause of ____ ovarian disease in pigs.
Mycotoxin that can be found in feed. Causes prolonged heat cycles due to high estrogens and is most common cause of cystic ovarian disease.
56
Clostridium perfrigens type C, isospora suis and rotavirus infections all commonly cause diarrhea in __[age group]____ pigs, but uncommonly in ___[age group]__ pigs.
Clostridium perfrigens type C, isospora suis and rotavirus infections all commonly cause diarrhea in __young and nursing____ pigs, but uncommonly in ___growers and finishers__ .
57
Salmonella _____ and _____ can affect any age pig but causes diarrhea more commonly in ____ pigs.
Salmonella typhimurium (rectal strictures) and enterica (chloeraesuis; button ulcers); Older (growing and finishing)
58
African Swine Fever (ASF) is transmitted by ______
Soft ticks (ornithodorus spp)
59
The most concerning differential for Bluetongue is ____
Foot and Mouth disease
60
The vector of Bluetongue is _____ which mainly breeds during _____
culicoides spp; late summer
61
List the major causes of diarrhea in nursing/suckling (unweaned) and early post-weaned pigs (7 causes)
- Clostridium perfrigens type A or C (1-7 days piglets, bloody)
- Clostridium difficile (1-2 day piglets, yellow to watery)
- E coli (most common cause of diarrhea in piglets <5 days old, can happen in 1-14 day piglets and again in first two weeks post weaning, watery to brown diarrhea, pH >8)
- TGE (transmissible gastroenteritis, a coronarvius, affects all ages, undigested milk in nursing pig intestines)
- Coccidia (Isospora suis, 5-15 day old, acidic feces)
- Rotavirus (all ages)
- Hypoglycemia
62
Pathologic lesions of this disease include dark red small intestines with hemorrhage in piglets 1-7 days of age. ____ type of this disease is nearly 100% fatal. It can be prevented by ____
Clostridium perfringens type C; prevention via vaccination of sows or prophylactic tx with bacitracin or penicilin
63
The most common cause of diarrhea in piglets less than 5 days of age is
E coli
64
Intestinal coccidiosis occurs in pigs at age ____ . It is diagnosed by demonstration of _____ and is treated with ___ or ____
Intestinal coccidiosis occurs in pigs at age 5-15 days . It is diagnosed by demonstration of oocysts in feces and is treated with sulfamethazine or ponazuril
65
Bloody diarrhea in piglets <1 week is caused by ___ or ___ whereas in growers/finishers it it can be caused by ____
Bloody diarrhea in piglets <1 week is caused by Clostridium perfringens type C or type A. In growers/finishers hemorrhagic diarrhea can be caused by brachyspira hyodysenteriae (swine dysentry), lawsonia intracellularis (proliferative enteritis) or trichuris suis (whipworms)
66
The most common causes of diarrhea in growers/finishers are ___(name 5)
1. Lawsonia intracellularis (proliferative enteritis/ilietis, fibrinonecrotic casts passed in feces, tx tylosin and tiamulin, prevent with MLV vaccine)
2. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae (swine dysentery, large bowel diarrhea with blood, tx incomycin, tylosin and tiamulin)
3. Trichuris suis (whipworms, double-operculated eggs on float, hemorrhagic diarrhea, tx dichlorvos or fenbendazole)
4. Ascaris suum (roundworm, ascarid eggs, intestinal obstruction, white spots in liver, lung migration-> abdominal breathing aka thumps, ascarid eggs in feces)
5. Salmonella (younger -> septicemia, older -> fever and yellow diarrhea +/- rectal strictures, tx neomyucin or nitrofurazones)
67
____ causes proliferative enteritis/ilietis in _____ pigs, leading to diarrhea that may be hemorrhagic. It is treated with ______ and can be prevented with a ____ vaccine.
Lawsonia intracellularis causes proliferative enteritis/ilietis in weaned or older pigs, tx tylosin and tiamulin, prevent with MLV vaccine)
68
The anaerobic spirochete _____ causes swine dysentery in _____ pigs. This disease is characterized by mucoid diarrhea with flecks of blood. Pathologically the mucosa of the ____ intestine is covered in _____ or _____. It can be treated with _____.
The anaerobic spirochete brachyspira hyodysenteriae causes swine dysentery in grower/finisher pigs. This disease is characterized by mucoid diarrhea with flecks of blood. Pathologically the mucosa of the large intestine is covered in gray mucus or yellow necrotic tissue. It can be treated with tylosin (macrolide) or tiamulin (pleuromutilin for pigs or poultry only) (but resistance is common).
69
You find this on a fecal float of a grower/finisher pig with hemorrhagic diarrhea. What is the organism? How do you treat it?
Trichuris suis (whipworm); dichlorvos or benzimidazoles
70
Considering vesicular stomatitis, foot and mouth disease, bovine viral diarrhea, and malignant catarrhal fever; which affect pigs and where?
Vesicular stomatitis (north and south america) and foot and mouth disease (South america, europe, africa and asia)
71
Regarding the age groups of pigs, neonates are ____ weeks and weigh ____.
Neonoates are 0-3 weeks and weigh <14lbs or <4kg
72
Regarding the age groups of pigs, isoweans or weaners refer to pigs about ____ weeks that weigh ____. They may also be referred to as ____ or ____.
Isoweans are ~3 weeks and weigh 10-14lbs. They are also called SEW (segregated early weaners) or MEW (medicated early weaners)
73
Regarding the age groups of pigs, weanlings/ feeders / nursery pigs are ____ weeks and weigh ____.
feeder or nursery pigs are 3-10 weeks of age and weigh 10-50lbs or up to 25kg.
74
Regarding the age groups of pigs, growers aka finishers are ____ weeks and weigh ____.
growers/finishers are 10-26 weeks and weigh between 50-240 lbs
75
Rectal prolapse occurs most commonly in weaners and growers from _____ weeks of age and also in sows. The prolapse may be ____ by other pigs if not treated. The contributing factors in sows include (3) ____. In growing pigs the contributing factors are (5) _____. Rectal prolapse are not believed to be ____.
Rectal prolapse occurs most commonly in weaners and growers from 8-20 weeks of age and also in sows. The prolapse may be cannibalized by other pigs if not treated. The contributing factors in sows include sex hormones, farrowing crates with parallel bars and tail docking too short. In growing pigs the contributing factors are excessive straining due to diarrhea/constipation, colitis and increased gas in the rectum, excessive coughing, cold/wet conditions and ad lib feeding/dense diets. Rectal prolapse are not believed to be genetic.
76
Since PRRS is immunosuppressive, infections with ____ or ____ may be more severe and difficult to treat, while co-infection with ____, _____ or _____ may cause more severe respiratory symptoms.
Since PRRS is immunosuppressive, infections with strep suis or haemophilus parasuis may be more severe and difficult to treat, while co-infection with mycoplasma hyopnuemoniae, swine influenza or PCV-2 may cause more severe respiratory symptoms.
77
Pigs in the US typically go to market at ____ age and weigh about ____. This pigs may be called finishers, _____ or _____
6.5months, 260lbs. Finishers, market pigs or fat hogs/fats
78
Cowdry type A inclusion bodies are a huge tipoff for ____ infection when see in necrotizing lesions of the respiratory tract and brain.
Herpesvirus; specifically psuedorabies
79
Breeders or adult pigs refer to pigs >___months or more than ___kg
>6mo, >120kg
80
Specific pathogen free (SPF) herds are free of which 7 diseases?
Atrophic rhinitis, pnuemonia, swine dysentery, lice, mange, TGE (coronavirus) and psuedorabies
81
Which two diseases may require depopulation and repopulation of a swine herd?
psuedorabies, PRRS
82
Neonates hate the ____ whereas sows hate the _____ so it is important to use ____ sources of heat
Neonates hate the cold whereas sows hate the heat so it is important to use directional sources of heat
83
The normal rectal temperature of a pig is _____. Usually not called a fever until the temperature is above ____
101-103 F, fever above 104
84
______ is an estrogen-like mycotoxin produced by _______. It can cause edema of the ____ and ____ which prediposes sows to ____prolapse. It can also caused psuedopregnancy or early embryonic death.
Zearalenone is an estrogen-like mycotoxin produced by Fusarium graminearum. It can cause edema of the vulva and rectum, predisposed sows to rectal prolapse. It can also cause psuedopregnancy or early embryonic death.
85
Aflatoxin is made by ______ and causes _______ in pigs. It can be found in milk, meat, eggs, corn, peanuts, ground nuts, tree nuts and rice. It is regulated because it is also _____. It may cause immunosuppression and death.
Aflatoxin is made by aspergillus flavus and causes chronic hepatitis in pigs. It is also carcinogenic.
86
DON aka _____ is produced by _______ and causes ___ and ___ in pigs.
DON aka vomitoxin is produced by fusarium graminearum and causes feed refusal and vomiting in pigs.
87
Fusarium graminearum can produce the feed mycotoxins ____ , ____ and _____
zearalenone, DON/vomitoxin, T-2
88
____ causes porcine pulmonary edema, hepatotoxicity and sometimes death. It is produced by _______.
Fumonisin; fusarium moniliforme
89
The mycotoxin known to cause staggers, convulsions, temporary posterior paralysis and peripheral vasocontriction is ____ which is made by ____.
ergot made by claviceps purpurea
90
T-2 is made by ____ and may cause _____
T-2 is made by fusarium graminearum and may cause feed refusal and vomiting along with oral and dermal irritaiton.
91
There is no ELDU of ____ grade antibiotics
There is no ELDU of feed grade antibiotics.
92
Pre-breeding vaccinations include ____, ____ and ____
parvo, lepto and erysipelas
93
pre-farrowing vaccinations include ____, ____, ____ and sometimes _____
E coli, C perfringens, Rotavirus -+/- Swine flu
94
Generally piglets receive ____ vaccinations.
none
95
At weaning or early nursing (3-5 weeks of age) pigs are vaccinated for what four pathogens?
PCV2 (porcine circovirus), mycoplasma hyopnuemoniae, E Coli F18, Haemophilus parasuis
96
When pigs are at the end of nursery or early grower stage (10-12 weeks) they are vaccinated for ____, ____, ____ and ____
Erysipelas, swine flu, salmonella and illeitis (lawsonia intracellularis)
97
Piglet management at 1-5 days of age includes _____. Very few operations today still clip _____
Pigletment management at 1-5 days of age includes ensuring colostrum intake, iron injection, tail docking and castration. Very few operations today still clip eye or needle teeth.
98
Mange in pigs is caused by ______ and typically occurs in __[production stage]___ pigs. Clinically it causes pruitic, thickened skin and poor production. It is diagnosed with ____ and treated with ____.
Mange in pigs is caused by sarcoptes scabiei var suis in young nursery or grower pigs. Dx with superficial skin scraping. Tx with avermectins.
99
Exudative dermatitis aka _____ is caused by _____ in ____[production stage]___ pigs. This disease is not ____ but causes a characteristic appearance. It can be treated with ______.
100
Swine pox only affects pigs _____ old. Clinically you will see ____ and ____ that clear spontaneously. Swine pox is transmitted by _____.
101
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae causes characteristic ______ lesions. It is treated with ____ and prevented with ______.
diamond skin lesions, penicillin, vaccinations
102
pityriasis rosea aka ______ carries a _____ prognosis.
psuedo-ringworm. Great prognosis. Doesn't cause any disease other than cosmetic.
103
PDNS is the abbreviation for ______. It is a type ____ hypersensitvity reaction associated with _____ infection, leading to characteristic large red sloughing regions over the rear and legs. It can also cause ______ and _____ in the kidneys.
PDNS is the abbreviation for porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome. It is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction associated with PCV-2 virus infection. It causes dermal and cutaneous infarcation leading to the described skin lesions. In the kidneys we can see necrotizing glomerulonephritis and glomerular sclerosis.
104
A possible sequelae of porcine circovirus is ______ which is a type ____ hypersensitivity reaction.
Porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome
105
Describe the seasonality, type and length of the pig estrous cycle. At what age and weight are sows sexually mature? When are they bred?
non-seasonal polyestrous, 21 day cycle. Sexually mature around 6 months, 210-240lbs. Bred at 2nd or 3rd estrus.
106
How many days is estrus in a pig? When does ovulation occur?
2-3 days, ovulation 24-48hrs after onset of estrus
107
When is the CL in a pig responsive to PGF2alpha?
After day 12 of diestrus
108
Classical swine fever aka _____ is caused by a ______. ____on necropsy is pathognomonic for classical swine fever.
Classical swine fever aka hog cholera is a pestivirus. Splenic infarction is pathognomonic. Similar signs to salmonella.
109
Name the 5 vesicular diseases of swine
Foot and mouth disease, swine vesicular disease, vesicular exanthema, vesicular stomatitis, seneca virus A
110
Haematopinus suis is also known as ______. It can transmit ______ and may cause pruritus, anemia and poor growth. Treatment is with ____
Swine lice; can transmit swine pox; tx with avermectins
111
Neonatal pigs need iron injections because ______. Otherwise they may get ____, dyspnea, edema, pale skin and lethargy.
Neonatal pigs need iron injections because their demand for iron is higher than that in the sow's milk. Otherwise they may get anemia, dyspnea, edema, pale skin and lethargy.
112
Erysipelas is caused by _______. It is a gram-_______ environmental contaminant commonly found in ______.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae; gram-positive; dirt lots
113
Button ulcers in pigs are typically caused by ______
Salmonella
114
Ear tip necrosis may be caused by ____ or ____
Salmonella, PRRS
115
PRRS is typically diagnosed with
PCR
116
PRRS is the abbreviation for _____ which is caused by a _____that targets _____. Clinical signs may include anorexia, lethargy, fever, cyanosis of the ears and respiratory distress. Secondary bacterial pnuemonia is common. Reproductive effects are present in sows.
Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome is caused by a virus that targets alveolar macrophages.
117
PCVAD is the abbreviation for ____ which causes ____ in early finisher pigs. In order to diagnose PCVAD you must have what three things and why? The prognosis is _____.
Porcine circovirus associated disease; causes wasting, granulomatous lymphadentis pnuemoia. Must have 1) a lymph node sample with lymphoid depletion 2) high PCV2 antigen and 3) at least doubling of mortality; this is because most pigs are positive for PCV2. There is no treatment so affected animals are euthanized.
118
Aujedzky's disease is also known as _____
psuedorabies
119
Psuedorabies is a _____ that can affect ____ but not _____, however it was eradicted from commercial swine in 2004.
Herpes virus; affects dogs, cats and domestic animals but not humans.
120
Psuedorabies may cause up to 100% mortality in ____[age]___ and is less severe in _________. Clinical signs include ______. Treatment is ____ and the disease is ____.
Up to 100% mortality in baby piglets and less severe as the pigs get older. Clinical signs include oral and esophageal ulcers, pnuemonia, neurologic signs, vomiting and high fever. Treatment is depopulation and the disease is reportable.
121
Halothane anesthesia predisposes pigs to ______
Malignant hyperthermia
122
In swine, transmission of this nematode occurs when pigs scavenge infected carcasses of swine, rats or other animals. Transmission also occurs when uncooked garbage containing pork or other meat scraps are fed to pigs. It is usually not clinical in pigs but causes illness in people that eat infected pork.
Trichinella spiralis
123
Actinobacillus pleuropnuemoniae produces a _____ which causes ____ and ____ in the lungs. Typically the carriers are ___ so outbreaks appear ____ with severe ____ and ____. If you diagnose APP you should treat the rest of the herd with ____.
APP produces an exotoxin causing vasculitis and hemolysis in the lungs. Typically carriers are healthy/inapparent so outbreaks appear suddenly with severe respiratory distress and death. Sometimes dead animals have blood tinged fluid coming from their noses. Treatment is with enrofloxacin or ceftiofur
124
Suppuration arthritis in pigs can be caused by what three pathogens
Strep suis, erysipelothrix rhysiopathiae, Actinomyces pyogenes
125
How is mycoplasma arthritis treated?
Lincomycin
126
Other names for malignant hyperthermia are ______ and _____. This condition causes ______. To control this dead we use ______.
Malignant hyperthermia aka Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS) or Pale Soft Exudative Pork (PSE) cause muscle tremors, dyspnea, red areas of skin, fever and muscle rigidity. This is control with genetic selection because it is an autosomal recessive trait.
127
Rickets or Osteomalacia both refer to inadequate levels of ____, _____ and/or _____. Osteomalacia happens in ____ during their _____ and can cause dog sitting, sudden acute lameness, and fractures. Rickets happens in _____ and cause can stiffness, lameness and fractures especially of the femoral head.
Rickets or Osteomalacia both refer to inadequate levels of calcium, phosphorus and/or vitamin D. Osteomalacia happens in sows during their first litter and can cause dog sitting, sudden acute lameness, and fractures. Rickets happens in weaners and growers and cause can stiffness, lameness and fractures especially of the femoral head.
128
Osteochondrosis typically affect the ____ joint in pigs
Humeroradial joint
129
In order to control PRRS in a herd, the correct order of the three steps is:
Diagnose, close, homogenize
130
____ is the most economically significant virus in the US swine industry
PRRS (porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome)
131
Swine Influenza is caused by a Type ___ influenza virus, most commonly H__N__. It is highly contagious with an acute duration of ____ days. It often causes a high ____. Respiratory signs begin ____ days after infection, including ______. Since infected pigs often go off feed, ____ can occur 1-2 weeks after illness.
Swine Influenza is caused by a Type A influenza virus, most commonly H1N1. It is highly contagious with an acute duration of 4-7 days. It often causes a high fever. Respiratory signs begin 1-2 days after infection, including tachypnea, thumping/abdominal breathing, dry and wet cough. Since infected pigs often go off feed, stomach ulcers can occur 1-2 weeks after illness.
132
Swine influenza is associated with a ____ distribution in the lungs. On necropsy, ___ ____ is almost pathognomonic for swine influenza. There may also be interlobular edema and fibrinous exudate in the bronchi.
Swine influenza is associated with a cranioventral distribution in the lungs. On necropsy, "necrotizing bronchiolitis" is almost pathognomonic for swine influenza. There may also be interlobular edema and fibrinous exudate in the bronchi.
133
Swine influenza can be diagnosed with PCR or serology of ___ or ___ samples but not ____ samples since the virus _____.
Swine influenza can be diagnosed with nasal swab or oral fluid samples but not serum samples since the virus does not enter the blood.
134
The pig vaccine for swine influneza is _____ and typically given at two times _____ and ____.
multivalent; sows pre-farrowing and weaners between 10-12 weeks of age
135
Coccidiosis in weanlings is associated with ___ morbidity and ____ mortality.
High morbidity (watery diarrhea, ill thrift, failure to gain weight, dehydration) and low to moderate mortality
136
The most common cause of chronic pnuemonia in pigs is _____, which disrupts the ____ in the lungs and increases susceptibiltiy to secondary infections. Typically the cough is ___ and ___. This disease is most commonly transmitted from ____. This pathogen is difficult to culture so it can be diagnosed with ____. It is treated with ____. Prevention is through vaccination of _____.
mycoplasma hyopneumoniae; mucociliary apparatus. The most common cause of chronic pnuemonia in pigs is mycoplasma hyopnuemoniae, which disrupts the mucociliary apparatus in the lungs and increases susceptibiltiy to secondary infections. Typically the cough is dry and non-productive. This disease is most commonly transmitted from sows to piglets. This pathogen is difficult to culture so it can be diagnosed with PCR. It is treated with lincomycin in feed, CTC in water or fluoroquinolone injections. Prevention is through vaccination of weanlings.
137
_____ is the most common bacterial isolate from the lungs. It is a ____ pathogen requiring co-infection or stress. It causes a ____ distributed pneumonia, similar to ______. Typically the cough is ___ and ___. It can be treated with ___.
Pasteurella multocida is the most common bacterial isolate from the lungs. It is an opportunistic pathogen requiring co-infection or stress. It causes a cranioventrally distributed pneumonia similar to mycoplasma hyopneumoniae. Typically the cough is wet and productive. It can be treated with tetracyclines.
138
Verminous pnuemonia is caused by ____ which can use the ____ as the intermediate host. It can be treated with _____.
Verminous pnuemonia is caused by ascaris suum which uses the earthworm as an intermediate host. It can be treated with levamisole, avermectins or pyrantel.
139
Pathogens that cause reproductive failure in pigs through ascending infection include (5)
E Coli, Strep suis, Staph, actinomyces, psuedomonas
140
Pathogens that cause reproductive failure in pigs via systemic infections include ________
Leptospira interrogans, eperythrozoon suis, parvovirus, toxoplasma, PRRS, psuedorabies and brucellosis
141
Classical swine fever aka _____ is very closely related to the sheep and cattle diseases _____ and ____, respectively. Theses are all _____-viruses which are small, _____ RNA viruses.
Classical swine fever aka hog cholera is very closely related to the sheep and cattle diseases Border disease and Bovine viral diarrhea. These are all pestiviruses which are small, enveloped RNA viruses.
142
_____ is a major worldwide cause of fetal death without signs of illness in the sow. It is controlled mainly by vaccination.
Porcine parvovirus
143
This is ___ and can be treated with _____ which is also the drug for ____. Other treatment options are ____. These treatments reduce parasite burdens and shedding but don't compeltely eradicate the parasite.
isospora suis; ponazuril, EPM (equine protozoal myeloencephalitis). Other tx options are sulfamethazine, amprolium and decoquinate.
144
The clinical signs of anorexia, weakness, anemia, icterus and reproductive failure affecting younger pigs more than older pigs is suggestive of ____ caused by ____
eperythrozoonosis caused by mycoplasma suis
145
Clinical signs of hog cholera include ______ but not _____.
fever, anorexia, diarrhea, vomiting, shivering, paresis, paralysis, conjunctivitis, oral ulcers, petechiation and reproductive failure. Does not cause respiratory signs.
146
Parvovirus typically causes ___ and ____. PRRS, lepto, swine influenza and psuedorabies cause ___ via systemic illness. Brucella suis causes ___ but not ____.
Parvoviruses typically causes mummies and stillborns. PRRS, lepto and psuedorabies cause abortions. Brucella suis causes interfility and not mummies.
147
A skin scraping for sarcoptes scabiei in pigs should be performed where?
In the ear canal or just behind the ear
148
_____ is a zoonotic agent that can be contracted by eating uncooked pork and causes abdominal pain, fever and appendicits.
Yersinia enterocolitica
149
Hypernatremia in pigs should be treated with ____ IV slowly
normosol R
150
In pigs, perivascular infiltration of eosinophils in the brain is a reliable indicator of
salt poisoning
151
Which vesicular disease that can affect swine is currently found in the US?
Vesciular stomatitis
152
What is the prognosis for a herd of pigs with uncomplicated swine influenza?
Typically runs a short course (recovery within 1-2 weeks) with a low mortality rate. Antimicrobials should be given for possible concurrent infections.
153
PRRS aka Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome is a ____ RNA virus that is highly ___ with low ____. It typically stays within a herd and can be shed for ____ months. Reproductive affects vary and include ____ whereas respiratory affects include ____. Treatment of PRRS in a herd is achieved either through ____ or _____.
PRRS aka Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome is an enveloped RNA virus that is highly infectious with low contagiouness. It typically stays within a herd and can be shed for 5+ months. Reproductive affects vary and include weak piglets, stillborns, mummies, return to estrus and abortions whereas respiratory affects include interstitial pnuemonia, rubbery lungs (young worse than old). Treatment of PRRS in a herd is achieved either through control (diagnose, close, homogenize) or elimination.
154
In addition to pnuemonia (coughing), swine influenza can cause a sudden outbreak of abortions in sows due to ____
fever
155
Should you mix pigs of different ages together?
NO
156
The management of swine colibacillosis may include ____, comingling ____ and ____ up to 4 weeks before farrowing, waiting until after an outbreak to administer ______, using enticing pig pumps, keeping piglets well fed with milk replace and spiking milk with _____.
The management of swine colibacillosis may include vaccination, comingling sows and gilts up to 4 weeks before farrowing, waiting until after an outbreak to administer iron injections, using enticing pig pumps, keeping piglets well fed with milk replace and spiking milk with porcine spray-dried plasma.
157
Trichuris suis causes ___ diarrhea, sometimes with ____
mucoid large bowel diarrhea, sometimes with blood
158
Pigs get trichinella spiralis by _____
Ingesting encysted larvae from muscle (ie rodents, raw garbade, cannibalism)
159
The most effective way to synchronize lactating pigs is _____ which results in estrus ____ days later
batch wean at 3-4 weeks, results in estrus 4-6 days later
160
A group of 3 months old pigs present for soft yellow diarrhea in some and hemorrhagic diarrhea in others. On necropsy there are curved bacteria in enterocytes. What is the diagnosis?
Lawsonia intracellularis
161
PRRS can be diagnosed with _____ in ____ sows
serum PCR in recently aborted sows
162
Even if a herd has been vaccinated for _____, they can still have a rapid pnuemonia outbreak!
swine influenza
163
In an international setting these three diseases should be ruled out in pigs presenting with high fever, inappetance, hemorrhage of the skin and ears, sudden death and petechial hemorrhage on internal organs.
Classical swine fever, erysipelas and african swine fever
164
How many pigs should you necropsy to make a diagnosis?
keep necropsying until you find a pattern
165
The vaccine for lawsonia intracellularis should be given at least ____ weeks before clinical signs occur. In herd receiving antibiotics, pigs are typically affected at ___ weeks whereas on organic farms pigs can be affected as early as ___ weeks.
The vaccine for lawsonia intracellularis should be given at least 3 weeks before clinical signs occur. In herd receiving antibiotics, pigs are typically affected at 12 weeks whereas on organic farms pigs can be affected as early as 3 weeks.
166
Most swine tuberculosis outbreaks are caused by ___ TB due to materials contaminated by ___
avian; birds
167
which cell type is the primary target of PRRS
macrophages, especially alveolar macrophages
168
Brucella is often trasmitted by:
venereal transmission or ingestion of aborted fetuses
169
Fusobacterium necrophorum causes ____ in pigs, ____ abscesses and ____-itis in cows, __-itis in ruminants, and ___ rot in both pigs and ruminants.
Fusobacterium necrophorum causes necrotic rhinitis in pigs, hepatic abscesses and metritis in cows, gastroenteritis in ruminants, and foot rot in both pigs and ruminants.
