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NAVLE By Species > Non-species specific > Flashcards

Non-species specific Flashcards

1
Q

Enveloped viruses ____ in the environment whereas non-enveloped viruses _____ in the environment.

A

Enveloped viruses do not survive long in the environment whereas non-enveloped viruses persist in the environment.

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2
Q

Antigenic ____ refers to point mutations whereas antigenic _____ refers to the reassortment of genes when two viruses combine in one host cell.

A

Antigenic drift refers to point mutations whereas antigenic shift refers to the reassortment of genes when two viruses combine in one host cell.

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3
Q

Type A Influenza viruses are ___ stranded, segmented genome, _____ viruses. They have ___ [number]__ segments. There is some host specificity based on the linkage between _____ and _____ (ie human 2,6 or avian 2,3). The classification of type A influenza is based on the two segments _____ and _____, which are responsible for binding to the host cell and release from the host epithelium, respectively.

A

Type A Influenza viruses are single stranded, segmented genome, enveloped viruses. They have 8 segments. There is some host specificity based on the linkage between sialic acid and galactose (ie human 2,6 or avian 2,3). The classification of type A influenza is based on the two segments HA (hemaglutinin) and NA (neuramidase).

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4
Q

The most common strain of swine influenza virus is H___N___ which is clustered into alpha, beta, gamma and delta.

A

H1N1

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5
Q

What are some general signs of liver failure?

A

Failure to gain weight, depressed mentation, icterus, photosensitization (peeling skin, edema), tenesmus in cattle, reducing clotting capability

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6
Q

Which type of nystagmus is strictly associated with central vestibular disease?

A

Positional, vertical nystagmus

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7
Q

Type III hypersensitivities aka ______ are characterized by _____. Examples include _____.

A

immune complex; deposition of antibody:antigen complexes (usually more antigen than anibodies) in tissue. Example: SLE, glomerulonephritis, purpura hemorrhagica (secondary to strangles / strep equi)

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8
Q

Type I hypersensitivities are ______ and occur due to____

A

immediate; re-exposure of antigen leading to B cell production of IgE antibiotics. Ie atopic dermatitis, FAD, uticaria, bee stings

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9
Q

Type II hypersensitivity is also called _____ and is characterized by _____

A

cytotoxic; anti-body mediated destruction when antibodies (IgM and IgG) mark antigen for destruction. Ie IMHA, transfusion reactions, neonatal isoerythrolysis

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10
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is also called ______ and is ___ mediated as opposed to ___ mediated.

A

delayed type hypersensitivity is cell-mediated as opposed to antibody mediated. Cytoxotic CD8+ T cells and CD4+ helper cells recognize antigen that is in MHC 1 or 2, activated CD8+ t cells destroy antigen containing cells. Examples include contact dematitis, tuberculin test, brucella, coccidiomycosis and histo.

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11
Q

Second-degree Mobitz type I heart block is known as _____ ; this refers to _____

A

Known as Wenkenbaching; progressive prolongation of P-R interval until there is a dropped QRS

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12
Q

In Second-degree Mobitz type II heart block, the P-R interval is _____ and there is ____

A

P-R interval duration is unchanged and occasionally you will observe a P wave without a QRS complex.

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13
Q

In first-degree heart block there is an increased _____ and no ___

A

Increased P-R interval and no dropped QRS.

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14
Q

In Third-degree AV block p-waves are _____

A

P waves are unassociated from the QRS complex.

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15
Q

Tall slender P wave (P pulmonale) indicate ___

A

Right atrial enlargement

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16
Q

Wide P wave (P mitrale) indicates _____

A

Left atrial enlargement

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17
Q

Left-to-right shunting PDA

A

continuous heart murmur, bounding arterial pulses. increased QRS amplitudes on electrocardiograph (due to left chamber enlargement), aneurysmal bulge of the aorta on thoracic radiographs.

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18
Q

The pressures on the right side of the heart (RA, RV, PA) are _____ than the left side (LA, LV, Ao)

A

lower

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19
Q

The systolic pressures of the atria are ____ compared to their respective ventricle

A

lower

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20
Q

“Valgus” or “Valgum” deformities mean the limbs _____ whereas “varus” or “varum” deformities mean the limbs ____.

A

Valgus -> together
Varum -> apart

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21
Q

Which type of salter harris fracture is this?

A

Type I - “slipped” through the growth plate only

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22
Q

Which type of salter harris fracture is this?

A

Type II - “above” through the growth plate and metaphysis

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23
Q

Which type of salter harris fracture is this?

A

Type III - “lower” through the growth plate and epiphysis

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24
Q

Which type of salter harris fracture is this?

A

Type IV - “through everything” through the metaphysis, growth plate and epiphysis

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25
Q

Which type of salter harris fracture is this?

A

Type V - “Rammed” compression across the growth plate

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26
Q

Abduction means the limbs go ___ midline, adductions means the limbs go ____ midine

A

abduction = away, adduction = towards

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27
Q

The Velpeau sling prevents ____ by _____

A

a very useful bandage which prevents weight-bearing on a foreleg and holds the joints of the limb in a flexed position

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28
Q

Spica splint

A

type of orthopedic splint used to immobilize the thumb and/or wrist while allowing other digits freedom to move

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29
Q

Ehmer sling is also known as the ____

A

Figure-8 sling

30
Q

Schroeder-Thomas splint

A

Used for temporary stabilization of fractures, particularly of the proximal limb pending internal/external fixation

31
Q

The Lembert suture pattern is used to close ____. It penetrates the ____ and ____ but not the ____

A

classical suture pattern for closing gut. The needle is directed to cross the incision, penetrating the serosa and muscularis but not the mucosa

32
Q

The bunnel suture pattern is used for ____

A

one designed for tendon repair. Most of the path of the suture is intratendinous and it crosses the defect through the cut surfaces on either side and the ends are tied within the defect.

33
Q

Catgut is broken down by _____

A

broken down by phagocytosis

34
Q

Nylon is non-____

A

non-absorbable

35
Q

Vicryl, Maxon and PDS are broken down by ____

A

broken down by hydrolysis

36
Q

The Cushing and Connell patterns are both used to close _____, however the Cushing pattern _____ whereas the Connell pattern ______.

A

hollow viscera, Cushing only uses submucosa, connell pattern enters lumen.

37
Q

What suture pattern is this?

A

Connell

38
Q

What suture patterns are pictured?

A

A is an everted (normal) horizontal mattress, B is an inverted horiztonal mattress (basically a cushing).

39
Q

Which species does Foot and Mouth disease affect?

A

most ruminants, pigs and some wild animals. NOT horses

40
Q

Cheyletiella are ____ that affect cats, dogs, rabbits and humans. Unlike sarcoptes, they _____. They can be diagnosed with ____. They can be treated with _____.

A

large mites that affect cats, dog, rabbits, and humans. This mite is highly contagious The mites live in the stratum corneum and, unlike Sarcoptes, these mites do not burrow down. This mite can be found with acetate tape impressions, fecal examination (identify the eggs), or using a flea comb. Lime sulfur dips or flea products can be used for treatment.

41
Q

The vitamin K dependent coagulation factors are:

A

II, VII, IX and X

42
Q

cats with calicivirus mediated oral ulcers should receive:

A

clindamycin and sucralfate

43
Q

A bump on the nose PLUS dark circular lesions in the retinas suggests ____ which is transmitted by ____

A

cryptococcus; inhalation of spores from pigeon droppings

44
Q

acceptable treatments for mycoplasma in cats are

A

Doxycycline and enrofloxacin. Doxycycline can cause esophageal strictures so follow with water.

45
Q

Name a possible complication during the post-obstructive period for a blocked cat?

A

hypoalcemia tetany

46
Q

Basal cell tumors are common in ____ cats and are trypically _____ even when

A

occur in older cats, typically benign even when they have a high mitotic ratre.

47
Q

Aminsinckia spp aka _____ contain the toxin ____

A

fiddlenecks; pyrrolizidine alkaloids

48
Q

What dis and what organ is it toxic to?

A

Amsinckia aka fiddleneck - hepatotoxic due to pyrrolizidine alkaloids

49
Q

What dis and what organ is it toxic to?

A

Common groundsel aka senecio vulgaris; hepatotoxic due to pyrrolizidine alkaloids

50
Q

Hepatic lipidosis is defined as >___% fat in the liver

A

> 35% fat

51
Q

What dis and what organ is it toxic to?

A

Senecio jacobeae aka common ragwort; hepatotoxic due to pyrrolizidne alkaloids

52
Q

Pregnancy toxemia affects ____, _____ and ___ and is a manifestation of _____

A

sheep, goats, and cattle; manifestation of fatty liver disease

53
Q

lice have ___ legs whereas tick and mites have ____

A

lice have 6 legs whereas tick and mites have 8 legs

54
Q

Neonatal calves should have the suckle reflex within

A

2-20minutes

55
Q

Neonatal calves should stand within

A

1 to 3 hours

56
Q

neonatal calves should nurse within

A

1 to 4 hours

57
Q

____ occurs most commonly in cattle 6 months to 24 months of age and causes fever, leukopenia, anorexia, oculonasal discharge, oral erosions and ulcers, and diarrhea.

A

Acute Bovine viral diarrhea

58
Q

Mucosal disease or chronic BVD occurs when _____

A

when a PI animal (persistently infected) is superinfected with a CP biotype or the NCP biotype switches to the CP biotype. Chronic BVD is eventually fatal

59
Q

The clinical forms of BVD are:

A

subclinical, acute BVD (damage to epithelium of GI and bronchi), hemorrhagic syndrome (BVD induced thrombocytopenia), reproductive loss (early embryonic death or abortion) and chronic BVD or Mucosal Disease

60
Q

BVD can look similar to vesicular stomatitis and bovine papular stomatitis because of the oral lesions however ____

A

vesicular stomatitis and bovine papular stomatitis do not cause diarrhea

61
Q

Diagnosis of BVD is based on____

A

antigen detection

62
Q

Prevention of BVD is centered around _____. Heifers should also be vaccinated with ____ at ____ age

A

centered around preventing and removing persistently infected cattle. Cattle should be vaccinated with the modified live vaccine at 5 to 6 months of age.

63
Q

Aminocarproic acid facilitates clot stabilization by ____

A

inhibiting fibrinolysis (inhibits activation of plasminogen to plasmin)

64
Q

What are the instrinct pathway factors?

A

12, 11, 9, 8

65
Q

Which are the extrinsic pathway factors?

A

III and VII

66
Q

Which are the common pathway factors?

A

2, 5, 1, 10

67
Q

Which are the vitamin K dependent factors? Which has the shortest half life?

A

II, VII, IX, and X - VII has the shortest half life

68
Q

What is the ACT test? What pathways does it test for?

A

Activated Clotting Time - tests fibrin clot formation on fresh whole blood. Tests intrinsic and common pathways. ACT is prolonged if any of the factors involved drop to less than 25% of
normal concentration. Normal time is between 60-90 seconds

69
Q

What does PTT stand for? What sample do you need for the test? What pathway does it test?

A

activated partial thromboplastin time; performed on citrated plasma. tests the intrinsic and common pathways. More sensitive than ACT,

70
Q

What does PT stand ford? What sample do you need for the test? What pathway does it test?

A

Prothrombin time. Done on citrated plasma. Tests the extrinsic and common pathways.

71
Q

Describe the diagnostic test results seen with DIC

A

thrombocytopenia, increased PT and PTT, increased D-dimers, decreased fibrinogen, decreased antithrombin 3, shistocytes on RBC morphology

72
Q

How would a coagulation panel look for a patient with rodenticide toxicity??

A

Elevated PT and PTT

NAVLE By Species (29 decks)

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