Feline Flashcards

1
Q

Acetaminophin toxicity

A

cats are unable to process acetaminophen because of deficiencies int he liver’s ability to glucuronidate the drug into a form that can be excreted by the body. When the liver’s enzyme pathways for glucuronidation is saturated, the drug is broken down into a toxic metabolite called NAPQI that damages hemoglobin and red blood cells and liver cells. This can lead to fatal methemoglobinemia followed by acute liver damage (Heinz bodies and glossy brown color of the blood). Although liver failure and life-threatening methemoglobinemia are the two primary processes that occur, some cats may develop renal failure from nephrotoxicity. Renal failure occurs more infrequently, however.

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2
Q

Acute cholangiohepatitis

A

usually seen in younger cats (3-3.5 years) and is more common in males than in females. Likely to be depressed, dehydrated, and febrile. Neutrophilia with or without left shift. Mild increase in bilirubin and ALP common, with more severe elevations of ALT. Treatment includes antibiotics with aerobic and anaerobic coverage that are excreted unchanged in the bile (tetracyclines, ampicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol, and metronidazole). Ursodeoxycholic acid is useful in all types of inflammatory liver disease because of its anti-inflammatory and anti-fibrotic properties on the liver. It also increases fluidity of biliary secretions. 50% survival.

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3
Q

Acute Glaucoma

A

Very painful condition characterized by epiphora, episcleral injection, corneal edema, and sometimes mydriasis.

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4
Q

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

A

feline lungworm, treat with ivermectin and fenbendazole

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5
Q

Amylase

A

Hydrolyzes starches: Enzyme produced by the pancreas and also found in saliva that is responsible for digestion of starch or carbohydrates.

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6
Q

Amyloidosis familial disorder affects ____ breeds. Clinical signs are associated with ____ and ___ failure, while ____ may be secondary to glomerulotubular disease. Diagnosis is via biopsy and ____ stain but often not done due to the high risk of hemorrhage.

A

Abyssinian (kidney), Siamese and Oriental (liver) shorthair. Amyloid deposition occurs most frequently in the kidney and liver. Clinical signs in Abyssinian are typically those of chronic renal failure. Hypertension may be secondary to glomerulotubular disease. Biopsy and stain with congo red definitive but often not necessary due to high risk of hemorrhage. Manage symptoms and do not breed from these cats.

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7
Q

Anterior uveitis

A

Rubiosis iridis, aqueous flare, hyphema, hypopyon, keratic precipitates, and decreased intraocular pressure are all suggestive of anterior uveitis which an be caused by a number of infectious, immune-mediated, traumatic, and idiopathic causes.

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8
Q

Arginine deficiency

A

Arginine is an essential amino acid in cats used to make ornithine, which binds to ammonia that is formed from the catabolism of protein. Deficiency results in build up of ammonia and signs similar to hepatic encephalopathy

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9
Q

Black widow spider bite

A

Clinical presentation: found in basement recumbent and vocalizing, very rigid with muscle spasms

Toxin binds calcium channels, increasing membrane permeability and enhancing depolarization. Ascending motor paralysis and destruction of peripheral nerve endings occur. A single bit may be serious to adult humans and could kill a small animal. Clinical signs occur almost immediately with pain, due in part to the release of acetylcholine, which stimulates contraction of major muscle groups. There may be ascending motor paralysis, muscle spasms, muscle rigidity, and salivation. Death from respiratory or cardiovascular failure is possible.

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10
Q

Calicivirus

A

acute presentation of marked upper respiratory signs as well as oral ulcerations +/- conjunctival chemosis, and edematous lesions of the skin on the head and limbs. outbreaks of highly virulent and often lethal strains have been seen.

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11
Q

Capillaria aerophila

A

lungworm, parasite of the frontal sinus, trachea, bronchi, and rarely nasal cavity.

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12
Q

Cate bite abscess

A

Anaerobes most frequently isolated bacteria in cat bit abscesses. These include obligate anaerobes such as Fusobacterium spp., Bacteroides spp., and Clostridium spp. as well as facultative anaerobes such as Pasteurella spp. and Actinmyces spp. Treatment by establishing drainage, vet still choose to treat with antibiotics (Clindamycin or amoxicillin with clavulanate)

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13
Q

Chlamydophila felis is a ____ pathogen. The characteristic lesion is severe ____. The drug class of choice for treatment is ____

A

Chlamydophila felis is a respiratory pathogen. The characteristic lesion is severe chemosis. The drug class of choice is tetracyclines.

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14
Q

Cholangiohepatitis

A

Inflammation of the biliary system and liver parenchyma. Can be autoimmune in nature, or may be triggered by underlying infection or neoplasia. Concurrent disease often includes pancreatitis and inflammatory bowel disease.

Treatment: for non-suppurative cholangiohepatitis is prednisolone since it is most often immune in origin. Ursodiol is often used for its immunomodulatory, hepatoprotectant, and antifibrotic effects.It helps with the flow of bile through the liver. Other helpful therapies include S-adenosylmethionene (SAMe) and Vitamin E.

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15
Q

Chronic cholangiohepatitis

A

occurs in older cats (mean age 9 years)

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16
Q

Chronic kidney failure management

A

Restrict dietary protein (decreases formation of nitrogenous wastes and help to palliate hyperphosphatemia), phosphate binders (prevent absorption of phosphorus from the intestines), H2 blockers (decrease gastric acid secretion to help prevent vomiting and formation of gastric ulcers), Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine (palliate hypertension)

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17
Q

Cobalamin deficiency

A

causes inappetence, lethargy, and failure to thrive

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18
Q

Common congenital defect of white cats with blue eyes

A

deaf

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19
Q

Corneal dermoid

A

congenital

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20
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

yeast-like fungus which has narrow based budding. Clinical signs: respiratory, central nervous system, eyes and skin are usually areas you will see affected. Most have nasal involvement characterized by facial swelling, distortion ‘roman nose’, chronic snuffling and discharge, and granulomatous masses seen coming out of the nostril.

Treat with Itraconazole

Diagnosis: serology is very useful, latex agglutination on serum, CFS, or urine. Visible yeasts surrounded by a large capsuleoccasionallyy seen.

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21
Q

Cryptosporidium

A

A coccidian that invades the small intestinal villi after ingestion of infected oocysts. It can be diagnosed with PRC. It is treated with clindamycin, azithromycin, or tylosin most commonly. It is usually an opportunist, so evaluation for underlying disease is appropriate.

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22
Q

Cuterebra

A

Fly that lays its eggs on soil or plants. The eggs stick to the animal’s fur when they come into contact. The eggs hatch and the larvae either penetrate the skin, are ingested when the animal grooms; or they enter the animal’s body through a natural opening, such as the nose. In most cases, the larvae migrate to areas just under the skin on the head, neck, or trunk of the animal. In dogs, cats, and ferrets, who are not the usually hosts of this parasite, the larvae may also migrate to the brain, eye, eyelids, or throat. As the larva grows under the skin, it produces a nodule or swelling.A small opening develops in the skin, through which is breathes. A small amount of drainage may occur around this breathing hole. The treatment is to incise the skin if needed to remove the larva. You have to make sure to remove the larva in whole and not crush it. If it is damaged or crushed, it can cause an anaphylactic reaction.

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23
Q

cytauxzoon felis is transmitted by _____, cats show clinical signs ____ after infection and these include a charateristic scleral _____, marked ____, icterus or pallor, an anemia associated ____ and thrombocytopenia. This organism lives in ____ as well as

A

Cytauxzoon felis is trasmitted by ticks, Cats usually show clinical signs 1-3 weeks after infection. Signs can include a characteristic scleral hemorrhage, marked pyrexia, icterus or pallor, an anemia-associated heart murmur and thrombocytopenia. This organism lives in the red blood cells as well as reticuloendothelial cells of the lungs, spleen, liver, lymph nodes. Cranial organomegaly can often be present. The bone marrow can be affected causing pancytopenias. Thrombocytopenia is likely related to the development of DIC. There is no effective therapy and prognosis is poor to grave.

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24
Q

Demodex cati

A

long slender mite which lives in the hair follicles

Diagnose on deep skin scrape

Treat with lime sulfur dip

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25
Q

Demodex gatoi

A

short and stubby mite which lives superficially. It is considered contagious to other cats and causes pruritus

Diagnose on superficial skin scrape

Treat with weekly lime sulfur dip

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26
Q

Dermatophytosis

A

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

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27
Q

Diagnosis of Feline Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

A

Measure serum fTLI concentration

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28
Q

Dirofilaria immitis

A

Heartworm; adulticide dangerous - manage with preds and heartguard

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29
Q

Elastase

A

Peptidase that breaks down proteins and peptides.

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30
Q

The 3 subtypes of Feline Eosinophilic granuloma complex and their typical location are:

A
  1. Collangeolytic granuloma aka eosinophilic granuloma; round or linear raised ulcerative and nodular lesion, not pruritic, located on nose, chin, oral cavity or caudal thigh
    2) eosinophilic plaque, located on abdomen and medial thighs, single or multiple raised, red, ulcerative lesions that ARE pruritic
    3) eosinophilic ulcer aka indolent ulcer located on the upper lip with central area of pink to yellow tissue and raised edges
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31
Q

Estrus

A

typically lasts about 7 days (usually between 4-10 days)

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32
Q

Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

A

Occurs when 90% of pancreatic exocrine function is destroyed. fTLI concentration is measured from a fasted blood sample and a trypsinogen level less than 8ug/L is diagnostic. Typically cats with EPI also have a concurrent chronic pancreatitis as well as low levels of cobalamin. The exocrine pancreas is responsible for secreting intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor binds cobalamin to allow for gut absorption. Amylase and lipase concentrations do not provide reliable information regarding pancreatic function in cats.

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33
Q

Feline Calicivirus

A

common virus in cats that causes upper respiratory infection. Feline calicivirus is resistant to many disinfectants and can survive outside a cat’s body for several days

Feline calicivirus is spread between cats through direct contact with the eyes or nose of an infected cat or contact with contaminated objects that an infected cat has sneezed on or touched, such as food and water bowls.

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34
Q

Feline Central Retinal Degeneration (FCRD)

A

can develop from taurine deficiency. This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting int he area centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progresses to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus.

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35
Q

Feline Herpes Virus

A

80-100% of cats become carriers post infection

coughing, sneezing, nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, and sometimes fever (up to 106) and loss of appetite

transmitted through direct contact only. It replicates in the nasal and nasopharyngeal tissues and the tonsils. Viremia (the presence of the virus in the blood) is rare. The virus is shed in saliva and eye and nasal secretions, and can also be spread by fomites. FVR has a two- to five-day incubation period. The virus is shed for one to three weeks postinfection. Latently infected cats (carriers) will shed FHV-1 intermittently for life, with the virus persisting within the trigeminal ganglion. Stress and use of corticosteroids precipitate shedding. Most disinfectants, antiseptics and detergents are effective against the virus

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36
Q

Feline herpes virus ocular manifestations

A

conjunctivitis, corneal sequestrum, eosinophilic keratitis, corneal ulcer

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37
Q

Feline Idiopathic Cystitis

A

most common cause of lower urinary tract signs in young healthy cats

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38
Q

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus

A

Lentivirus

Affects cytotoxic t-cells (CD8+), helper t-cells (CD4+), macrophages, b cell. After inoculation, replication occurs in lymphoid and salivary tissues. Eventually, the virus spreads to mononuclear cells, while viremia is suppressed the the host immune response (asymptomatic carrier phase) that can last several years. A slow decline in the number of CD4+ cells is seen, resulting in failure of the immune system. Cats are often about 10-15 years old by the time this occurs.

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39
Q

Feline Infectious Peritonitis Diagnosis

A

Fecal-oral transmission. Eventually, feline corona virus mutates to a virulent feline infectious peritonitis virus which is able to multiply in macrophages. Ideal, a strong cell-mediated immune response eliminates the virus, but in some cats, the infection can become latent and is reactivated with stress. If a cell-mediated immune response is not mounted, pyogranulomatous vasculitis will occur due to the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in the venous endothelium.

Wet form: Complement-mediated inflammation results in pleural and peritoneal effusions

Dry form: Partial cell-mediated immune response results in slow viral replication with granuloma formation

Diagnosis: Highest positive predictive value: Immunofluorescence staining from coronavirus in macrophages in effusion fluid. Immunohistochemistry or RT-PCR used to demonstrate on biopsy specimens ( does not work on feces or serum). Histopathology is gold standard and can show characteristic lesions of disseminated pyogranulomatous and fibrinonectrotic reaction around small veins. Rivalta’s test.

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40
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus

A

retrovirus in the oncornaviridae subfamily and is transmitted both horizontally and vertically in cats. Virus propagates through the tissue, once bone marrow is infected, peripheral viremia occurs by infected neutrophils and platelets being released.

ELISA test for the p27 virus antigen in serum. IFA tests for p27 antigen in leukocytes and platelets.Test may turn negative after a few weeks in neutralized by the cat

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41
Q

Feline Panleukopenia Virus

A

Parvovirus

selectively damages rapid dividing tissues, namely the bone marrow and gastrointestinal tract.

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42
Q

Feline Parainfluenza virus

A

cause lesions in the distal airways and predispose to secondary bacterial invasion of the lungs

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43
Q

Feline Skin Fragility Syndrome

A

concurrent hyperadrenocorticism

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44
Q

Feline traumatic sarcoma

A

ocular sarcoma

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45
Q

Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis

A

herpesvirus and causes respiratory symptoms same as feline herpes virus

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46
Q

Glaucoma signs of chronicity

A

Buphthalmos, corneal fibrosis, lens luxations, mydriasis, tapetal hyperreflectivity and retinal vascular attenuation, and pale optic discs.

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47
Q

Heartworm tests

A

Antigen test will be positive if there are female worms present, but all male worms can show a false-negative test result

Antibody test is prone to false-positive results because a positive test can result from a cat that has been exposed but cleared the infection. A negative test cannot absolutely rule out infection as some animals with a low worm burden may not mount a sufficient antibody response to be measured.

Used together, they can be useful in most cases.

Larvae are more likely to migrate to ectopic locations such as the brain, skin, and ocular tissue.

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48
Q

Heinz bodies in the erythrocytes, blood glossy brown in color

A

Acetaminophen administration, the cat is showing signs of methemoglobinemia, which is caused by oxidative damage to the hemoglobin. Heinz bodies are usually present in animals with methemoglobinemia.

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49
Q

_____ is a gram negative bacterium causing Feline Infectious Anemia. It is treated with _____.

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis is a gram negative epierythrocytic parasitic bacterium and causeative agent of feline infectious anemia (FIA)

treat with doxycylcine

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50
Q

Hyctiocytic mastocytomas

A

sub-type of mast cell tumour in Siamese cats

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51
Q

Hydrocephalus in Siemese kittens

A

Cat exposed to toxin or feline panleukopenia virus during gestation

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52
Q

Hypertension

A

complications include hypertensive retinopathy (retinal detachment), hypertensive heart disease, neurologic complications, and progression of renal disease. Treat with Amlodipine - calcium channel blocker works by preventing calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle cells, thereby causing vasodilation.

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53
Q

Hypertonicity of urethral muscle

A

often post obstruction and urinary catheter making urinating painful and not easily controlled. Treat with phenoxybenzamine to reduce internal urethral sphincter tone.

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54
Q

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy treatment

A

Aim to improve diastolic filling by increasing heart rate. The primary problem with HCM is thickening of the wall of the left ventricle, impairing diastolic filling, there is usually no problem with contractility and systolic function. Slowing the heart rate provides for longer diastolic filling, allowing the left ventricle to fill more effectively. Decreasing the heart rate also decreases the severity of systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Medication most frequently used: beta-blocker (i.e. atenol or metoprolol) and a calcium channel blocker (diltiazem). For cases with severe left atrial enlargement or cats in heart failure also consider ACE inhibitors, diuretics, and preventing thromboembolic disease with aspirin or clopidogrel. Always keep in mind that you want to identify and treat possible underlying hypertension or hyperthyroidism that could be contributing to the disease.

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55
Q

IBR treatment

A

Budesonide or Prednisolone. Budesonide concentrates its effects in the GIT, thus has fewer systemic side effects as compared to prednisolone. Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Other treatments include easily digestible diet and one with a novel protein source, pro-motility agents or anti-nausea agents such as metoclopramide when needed, and vitamins such as cyanocobalamine (vit. B-12) or omega-3 fatty acids may also be of benefit in some cases.

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56
Q

Indolent ulcer

A

part of eosinophilic granuloma complex, history disappearing and recurring lip ulcer. These lesions can also extend into the oral cavity and can be found at the tongue base or hard palate. Typical treatment involves high doses of corticosteroids and identifying possible underlying allergic disease. Sometimes, antibiotics are indicated if severe infection is present. A hypoallergenic diet can be helpful if food allergy is the cause. Many times, the etiology is unknown but allergy is suspected.

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57
Q

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

A

Treat with corticosteroids (prednisolone or budesonide) to control inflammation, Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Easily digestible diet, novel proteins, pro-motility agents, anti-nausea agents, and Vit B-12 and omega-3 fatty acids may also be of benefit.

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58
Q

Insect bite hypersensitivity

A

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

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59
Q

Insulin type most similar to feline insulin

A

bovine insulin

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60
Q

Interestrus

A

variable duration of 7-21 days

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61
Q

Isospora

A

parasitic coccidia that can cause diarrhea. Treatment is usually with sulfonamides such as sulfadimethoxine or trimethoprim-sulfa

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62
Q

Lipase

A

hydrolyzes triglycerides and fats

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63
Q

Lymphocytic portal hepatitis

A

non-specific inflammatory infiltrates delivered by the postal vasculature

64
Q

Mammary gland/ fibroadenomatous/fibroepithelial hyperplasia

A

most common in young, intact female cats due to increased progesterone exposure. Characterized by affecting one or more mammary glands, which become enlarges and are non-painful. Most affected cats are systemically unwell and do not show signs of illness or pain. Treatment if removal of the source of progesterone via ovariectomy or ovariohysterectomy. If no source of progesterone can be identified, or if the glands do no respond to spaying, a progesterone receptor blocker such as aglepristone can be administered as well.

65
Q

Megacolon and colonic impaction treatment

A

maintain optimal hydration, remove impacted feces, dietary fiber and/or laxatives and use of colonic prokinetic agents.

66
Q

Microsporum canis

A

dermatophyte which causes ringworm. classic “ringworm” lesions appear as a central/circular region of alopecia with a ring of edema or crusting. Treat with lyme sulfur dip.

67
Q

Mycoplama haemofelis

A

Feline Infectious Anemia, treat with doxycycline

68
Q

Niacin deficiency

A

causes weight loss, anorexia, poor hair coat, ulceration and erythema of the tongue and palate, and diarrhea

69
Q

Normal systolic blood pressure

A

160 mmHg

70
Q

Notoedres acariasis

A

characteristically causes pruritis, crusting, and often affect the head, neck, and ears.

71
Q

Paragonimus kellicotti

A

lung fluke. The eggs are typically passed in the feces. Fenbendazole and Praziquantel have been effective against this parasite.

72
Q

Parietal cells

A

produce hydrochloric acid

73
Q

Pemphigus foliaceus

A

Skin disease affecting the area of the head most commonly; specifically the pinnae, nasal planum, chin, or periocular regions are involved. The condition is pustular in nature, usually not observed on clinical presentation; instead, crusts are seen as evidence of ruptured pustules. The condition is thought to be immune-mediated in nature with potentially a genetic component. Drug-induced pemphigus foliaceous has been reported with the use of itraconazole.

74
Q

Perineal urethrostomy

A

Must preserve the pudendal nerve (main nerve in the region that is at risk of being severed). If severed, could results in urinary incontinence due to loss of somatic innervation to the urethral sphincter.

75
Q

Phospholipase

A

hydrolyzes membrane phospholipids

76
Q

Plasma Cell Pododermatitis

A

some resolve spontaneously others require life-long therapy; doxycycline

77
Q

Polydactyly

A

Occurs when there is an extra digit. Cat almost appears to have an “opposable thumb”. In cats, this condition is called mitten paw. It is an autosomal dominant trait with incomplete penetrance.

78
Q

Prostatitis treatment

A

enrofloxacin

79
Q

ringworm treatment

A

full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole

80
Q

Sarcocystitis hirsuta

A

definitive host, cattle intermediate host (non-pathogenic)

81
Q

Skin fragility syndrome

A

associated with poorly regulated diabetes mellitus due to hyperadrenocorticism . Use low dose dexamethasone suppression test (ACTH stim test has low sensitivity in cats), can use urine cortisol-creatinine ratio as a screening tool.

82
Q

Spirocerca lupi

A

causes esophagitis, associated with esophagitis sarcoma

83
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A

Sporotrichosis - fungal cigar-shaped organism associated with thorns from roses. “Rose growers disease” Dissemination is rare in dogs and occurs more in cats.

Treatment is antifungal therapy with an -azole like itraconazole or potassium iodine.

84
Q

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

Oral tumour often on upper lip of older cat

85
Q

Strongylus stercoralis

A

threadworm

86
Q

Taenia

A

Tapeworm, treat with Praziquantel

87
Q

Target for relief of feline asthma

A

beta-2 agonist, most commonly Terbutaline

88
Q

Taurine deficiency in cats causes what two conditions?

A

Causes dilated cardiomyopathy and eccentric hypertrophy in cats, can also develop feline retinal degeneration (FCRD). Photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine, and cats cannot synthesize it. The classic lesion is an elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting int eh area centralis dorsalateral to the optic disk then progresses to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus.

89
Q

Thiamine deficiency

A

Leads to seizures in cats fed diet deficient of Thiamine. Seen in cats few raw fish diets when thiaminase depletes the body of thiamin, which causes neurologic symptoms

90
Q

Thyroid hormone active form

A

T3 - small percent is secreted by the thyroid glands, but the majority of it is converted to T3 from T4. Free T4 is unbound T4 which enters cells and can then be converted to T3 or reverse T3. Reverse T3 is formed during illness and does not have any known physiologic effect on cells.

91
Q

Toxocara cati is transmitted via _____. An infected kitten should be treated with ___ every ____ weeks until ____ months old.

A

roundworm (ascarid) trans mammary infection of kittens through milk. migration through liver and lungs. Treat with pyrantel every 3 weeks until 3-4 months old

92
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Protozoa. Cat definitive host; likely infected through eating raw meat of infected prey. Neurologic symptoms and uveitis. Elevated IgM titer shows active infection. Symptoms: lethargy, decreased appetite, and fever. Can cause: diarrhea, upper respiratory symptoms, inflammation of the eyes, and neurologic disease.

93
Q

Toxoplasma treatment in cats is ____

A

Clindamycin

94
Q

Trichuris serrata

A

whipeworm that infects caecum and large intestine

95
Q

Tritrichomonas foetus

A

Flagellated parasite most commonly found in kittens that have had an unresponsive diarrhea. The parasite can be very difficult to diagnose. Most often responsive to Ronidazole.

96
Q

Trypsin

A

Peptidase that breaks down proteins and peptides.

97
Q

A 4-year old cat presents dehydrated, febrile, and jaundiced with a PCV of 16%. CBC shows markedly regenerative anemia with elevated bilirubin. A slide agglutination test is positive. What is the organism and how would you treat this case?

A

Mycoplasma felis; doxycycline or enrofloxacin AND prednisolone because of the secondary IMHA

98
Q

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy in cat

A

treatment: Beta-blockers such as atenolol advocated by some cardiologist, particularly when left ventricular outflow obstruction exists. Atenolol alleviated the obstruction by reducing heart rate, LV contractility, and also reduces myocardial oxygen demands. Diltiazem and antithrombotics may also be considered.

99
Q

In cats with hyperadrenocorticism, ___% have a pituitary tumor and ____% have an adrenal tumor

A

80% pituitary, 20% adrenal

100
Q

If a TT4 is normal in a cat with suspected hyperthyroidism, you should run a ___

A

FT4 by equilibrium dialysis

101
Q

What are the long acting insulins commonly prescribed for felines?

A

Glargine (Lantus) or PZI

102
Q

What is the most common endocrine disease in cats over 8?

A

Hyperthyroidism

103
Q

A newly diagnosed hyperthyroid patient should be treated with ____ in order to ____

A

Oral methimazole; unmask renal insufficiency

104
Q

How would you treat metacarpal bone fractures in a growing kitten?

A

If >50% overlap, spoon splint with change every 5 days for 2 weeks. Otherwise consider surgery.

105
Q

Which cat mite can be found with a tape prep?

A

Chyletiella

106
Q

What is Budesonide?

A

A corticosteroid used for treated IBD in cats

107
Q

Emergent treatment of hypertension in cats is _____

A

Amlodipine

108
Q

Feline castration reduces roaming by ___, aggression by ____ and urine marking by _____

A

Reduces roaming by 90%, aggression by 60% and urine marking by 50%

109
Q

In contrast to dogs with pancreatitis, cats with pancreatitis should eat ____

A

Their normal diet

110
Q

What dis?

A

Cryptococcus - note the narrow base budding

111
Q

What dis?

A

Sporothrix;
Smaller than crypto and less capsule
Photomicrograph of impression smear from ulcerated skin lesion in cat with sporotrichosis showing numerous cigar-shaped to oval or round budding yeastlike organisms filled with blue cytoplasm with a single round pink nucleus surrounded by a nonstaining cell wall within macrophages and extracellularly (panoptic stain, ×100).

112
Q

The treatment for either sporothrix or cryptococcus in a cat is

A

Itraconazole

113
Q

Meow meow bite an electrical cord and burned his lips. What else should you look for?

A

TXR to look for non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

114
Q

How do you differentiate Norcardia and Actinomyces (both are gram___, branching, filamentous ____)

A

Acid fast stain since both are gram positive branching filamentous rods

115
Q

The most commonly isolated bacteria in a cat bite abscess are ___ such as __\

A

Anaerobes;
Obligate: fusobacterium, bacterioides, clostridium
Facultative: pasturella, actinomyces

116
Q

A copper colored iris and pytalism in a cat indicate:

A

Portosystemic shunt

117
Q

feline mammary hyperplasia is caused by

A

progesterone

118
Q

The cornish rex, british short hair and devon rex are known for having ____

A

Type B blood (with anti-bodies against type A blood)

119
Q

The antidote for tylenol poisoning in cats is ___ and you could also give ____

A

antidote is acetylcysteine, also give S-Adenosylmethionine (SAMe) as a hepatoprotectant with antioxidant properties

120
Q

Ringworm is a dermatophyte infection caused by ____ and the definitive diagnosis is ____

A

microsporum canis; fungal culture

121
Q

Lymphocytic plasmacytic enteritis is consistent with _____

A

inflammatory bowel disease

122
Q

Name two chemotherapeutic agents that can’t be used in cats

A

5-flouroeuracil and cisplatin

123
Q

sublingual masses in older cats are usually:

A

sqamous cell carcinoma (poor prognosis)

124
Q

The gestational period of a cat is ____. Fetal skeletons can be seen at ___

A

63 days; fetal skeletons seen at 36-45 day.

125
Q

Cats with osteosarcoma that get an amputation have ____ to live whereas dogs with osteosarcoma that get amputation alone have ____ MST

A

cats: 12 months or more. Dogs 3-4 month MST (these are both with amputation alone).

126
Q

Cats treated for miliary dermatitis, pruritus and dark brown flecks in the fur should be treated for both ____ and ____

A

fleas and tapeworms

127
Q

____ may cause ongoing diarrhea in kittens, it is unresponsive to typical anti-diarrheals

A

Tritichomonas foetus; treat with ronidazole

128
Q

What parasite causing chronic cough is found on a routine fecal float appearing as a double operculated egg with asymmetric terminal plugs

A

Capillaria aerophila

129
Q

____ is shed in saliva and transmitted mainly through bites in older male cats

A

Feline immunodeficiency virus

130
Q

Which type of VSD carries a good prognosis in a 6 month old kitten?

A

Small; many close on their own

131
Q

Clomipramine for kitty anxiety may cause what side effects?

A

nausea, anorexia, constipation

132
Q

Dendritic ulcers in cats are caused by

A

herpes

133
Q

The classic lesion seen with FIP is

A

pyogranulomatous vasculitis

134
Q

This is called___ or ____ and is treated with

A

indolent ulcer or feline eosinophilic granuloma complex; treat with immunosuppressive therapy and change to a hypoallergenic diet

135
Q

cats with calicivirus mediated oral ulcers should receive:

A

clindamycin and sucralfate

136
Q

A bump on the nose PLUS dark circular lesions in the retinas suggests ____ which is transmitted by ____

A

cryptococcus; inhalation of spores from pigeon droppings

137
Q

acceptable treatments for mycoplasma in cats are

A

Doxycycline and enrofloxacin. Doxycycline can cause esophageal strictures so follow with water.

138
Q

Name a possible complication during the post-obstructive period for a blocked cat?

A

hypoalcemia tetany

139
Q

cisplatin can’t be given to cats because it causes:

A

fatal pulmonary edema

140
Q

____ can occur in young dogs and cats with recent enteritis

A

intussusception

141
Q

The causative agent of feline infectious anemia is

A

mycoplasma haemofelis

142
Q

The infectious coccidian in dogs and cats is ____ and is treated with ____

A

Isospora; sulfadimethoxin (albon)

143
Q

Strongyuloides sterocarlis is passed in the ____ form and can be found via ____

A

l1 larvae; baerman

144
Q

Persian cats are predisposed to developing ____ kidneys

A

polycystic kidneys

145
Q

If multiple cats in a household have demodex then the species is ____ and you diagnose with ___

A

demodex gatoi; superficial skin scrape

146
Q

___ causes severe chemosis in young kittens without other clinical signs

A

chlamydophila felis

147
Q

What is the permanent dental formula of a cat

A

2( I3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1)

148
Q

If you notice rounding of the lung lobes on radiographs of a patient with respiratory distress and pleural effusion you should:

A

tap both sides of the chest because fibrosing pleuritis may cause pocketing of fluid making it harder to drain from one side

149
Q

Why is atenolol used for LVOT in cats?

A

this beta blocker reduces LVOT by reducing heart rate, LV contractility and myocardial oxygen demands

150
Q

Feline mammary hyperplasia is mediated by what hormone in what signalment of cat

A

progesterone in cycling females

151
Q

How do you treat eimeria in a cat?

A

you don’t, it’s just passing through

152
Q

How do you treat isospora in a cat?

A

Albon (sulfadimethoxine)

153
Q

Cats are ____ ovulators. If not bred, interestrus has a duration of _____. If they are bred and ovulate but do not become pregnant, interestrus is around ___.

A

Cats are induced ovulators. If no ovulation, interestrus is 7-21 days. If ovulation but no pregnancy, interestrus is 45-50 days.

154
Q

What is a possible complication of an ear flush?

A

Tympanic membrane rupture and horner’s syndrome

155
Q

The treatment of choice for a cat with severe hypertension is ____; the mechanism of action for this drug is ____

A

amlodipine; calcium channel blockers (prevents Ca from entering vascular smooth muscle)

156
Q

A 2 year old cat with weight loss, anorexia, lethargy, bicavitary effusion, non-regenerative anemia, netrophilia, lymphopenia and mixed mild hepatopathy that is not responsive to antibiotics is likely to have:

A

wet FIP